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Question 1
Incorrect
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Which is the most accurate statement regarding scabies?
Your Answer: Because the mite can jump, infection rates are high in households and nurseries
Correct Answer: Positive mineral oil mount is diagnostic
Explanation:The diagnosis of scabies can often be made clinically in patients with a pruritic rash and characteristic linear burrows. Definitive testing relies on the identification of mites or their eggs, eggshell fragments, or scybala. This is best undertaken by placing a drop of mineral oil directly over the burrow on the skin and then superficially scraping longitudinally and laterally across the skin with a scalpel blade. (Avoid causing bleeding.) Scraping 15 or more burrows often produces only 1 or 2 eggs or mites, except in a case of crusted scabies, in which many mites will be present. The sample is placed on a microscope slide and examined under low and high power. Potassium hydroxide should not be used, since it can dissolve mite pellets. Failure to find mites is common and does not rule out the diagnosis of scabies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old girl presents with a rash in her lower limbs. The rash appeared a few days after an upper respiratory infection and was associated with persistent haematuria. Renal biopsy revealed immunoglobulin G (IgG) glomerular immune deposits. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Post-infectious glomerulonephritis
Correct Answer: Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP)
Explanation:Immunoglobulin G (IgG) glomerular immune deposits are seen more commonly in HSP compared to IgA nephropathy.The presentation of the child is highly suggestive of Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP). It is an IgA-mediated, autoimmune hypersensitivity vasculitis that targets the small vessels of the skin, GI tract, kidneys, and joints.It is most commonly seen in children aged 3 – 6years and is twice as common in boys than girls. Preceding viral URTI with low-grade pyrexia is common. The most common organism associated with HSP is, however, Group A streptococcal infection A.A purpuric rash is seen on the back of the legs and buttocks and can less frequently, affect the arms. Arthralgia is common (usually knees/ankles) in these patients. Abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea may occur. And half of the children with HSP have renal involvement. Rarely, it can lead to end-stage renal failure.Treatment includes adequate hydration, occasionally steroids, and other immunosuppressants. The disease can recur in 1 in 3 children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Which of the following features is consistent with ventricular septal defect (VSD) murmur?
Your Answer: Split second heart sound
Correct Answer: Short diamond shaped diastolic murmur after the third heart sound
Explanation:Auscultatory findings of VSD vary with the size of the defect. Small VSDs typically produce murmurs ranging from a grade 1 to 2/6 high-pitched, short systolic murmur (due to tiny defects that actually close during late systole) to a grade 3 to 4/6 holosystolic murmur (with or without thrill) at the lower left sternal border| this murmur is usually audible within the first few days of life (see table Heart Murmur Intensity). The precordium is not hyperactive, and the 2nd heart sound (S2) is normally split and has normal intensity.Moderate to large VSDs produce a holosystolic murmur that is present by age 2 to 3 wk| S2 is usually narrowly split with an accentuated pulmonary component. An apical diastolic rumble (due to increased flow through the mitral valve) and findings of heart failure (e.g., tachypnoea, dyspnoea with feeding, failure to thrive, gallop, crackles, hepatomegaly) may be present. In moderate, high-flow VSDs, the murmur is often very loud and accompanied by a thrill (grade 4 or 5 murmur). With large defects allowing equalization of left ventricular and right ventricular pressures, the systolic murmur is often attenuated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 4
Correct
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A 15-year-old girl presents with a history recurrent abdominal pain and intermittent diarrhoea over the past one year. During these episodes, she may pass 3-7 very loose stools with mucus. Recently, over the past two months, she has passed stools mixed with blood. Her mother also complaints although she has not lost weight, she has failed to gain the appropriate weight for age according to her growth chart. The child is yet to attain her menarche, and her mother suffers from vitiligo. Clinical examination was unremarkable.Blood investigations revealed:Hb: 12.3 g/dLESR: 38 mm on the first hourTotal and differential counts were within normal limits, and an autoantibody screen was negative.What is the next most relevant investigation you will order?
Your Answer: Colonoscopy
Explanation:This patient in question is most likely suffering from inflammatory bowel disease, probably ulcerative colitis. The most valuable investigation that can assess the severity and extent of the disease, including the opportunity to obtain biopsies is a colonoscopy.Other options:Barium studies and abdominal x-rays do not give sufficient information. While they can provide indicative evidence, only a colonoscopy-guided biopsy can confirm IBD.Radio-isotope scans will help in identifying a focus such as a Meckel’s diverticulum, and angiography is rarely indicated unless a vascular lesion is suspected of causing the intestinal bleed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Which of the following cranial nerves does not have both sensory and motor functions?
Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal (CN IX)
Correct Answer: Abducens (CN VI)
Explanation:Cranial nerves I, II, and VIII are considered purely afferent nerves since they conduct sensory information from the olfactory region, the retina of the eye, and the inner ear structures, respectively.Cranial nerves III, IV, VI, XI, and XII are considered purely efferent due to their motor output to the orbit, the neck, and the tongue.Cranial nerves V, VII, IX, and X are considered mixed cranial nerves due to the presence of afferent and efferent fibres with both sensory and motor components.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl is referred to the paediatric unit with reduced urine output and lethargy. She has been passing bloody diarrhoea for the past four days. On admission she appears dehydrated. Bloods show the following:Na+ 142 mmol/lK+ 4.8 mmol/lBicarbonate 22 mmol/lUrea 10.1 mmol/lCreatinine 176 µmol/lHb 10.4 g/dlMCV 90 flPlt 91 * 109/lWBC 14.4 * 109/lGiven the likely diagnosis, which one of the following organisms is the most likely cause?
Your Answer: Campylobacter
Correct Answer: E. coli
Explanation:The likely diagnosis in this case is Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS), which is generally seen in young children presenting with a triad of symptoms, namely: acute renal failure, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, and thrombocytopenia. The typical cause of HUS is ingestion of a strain of Escherichia coli.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is the most accurate regarding the anatomy and embryology of the thyroid gland?
Your Answer: The thyroid gland is formed from an outpouching of the ectoderm of the primitive buccal cavity
Correct Answer: Between the follicular cells are C cells
Explanation:The thyroid gland is one of the first endocrine glands to develop, and is formed from the endoderm of the epithelial tissue of the primitive pharynx. The mature gland is functionally made up of follicles with colloid which contain the pro hormone thyroglobulin. Thyroid hormone is synthesised at a cellular level and is stored as thyroglobulin, before its release as thyroid hormone, a major modulator of metabolism. In between the follicular cells are parafollicular, or C-cells which secrete parathyroid hormone or calcitonin which are responsible for calcium regulation in the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 3 year old girl presents with a 2 day history of GI symptoms whenever she eats cauliflower. Her mother is concerned that she may be allergic, and has kept a food diary and a record of her symptoms. Which of these is LEAST likely to be associated with food allergies?
Your Answer: Abdominal pain
Correct Answer: Polycythaemia
Explanation:Polycythaemia is a condition in which there is an increased red cell mass and increasing blood viscosity, which decreases its ability to flow. It is not associated with food allergies, but is fundamentally caused by either an overproduction of red blood cells, or a reduction in the volume of plasma. Abdominal pain, constipation, loose and frequent stools, and pallor are all non IGE mediated symptoms of food allergy according to NICE guidelines in the UK.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Which of the following findings is consistent with autism?
Your Answer: Microcephaly
Correct Answer: Macrocephaly
Explanation:Autism is a neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by difficulties with social interaction, language delays, and some repetitive behaviours. Autism may be associated with some dysmorphic facial features, including macrocephaly, which denotes an abnormally large head. Macrocephaly is usually most observable during early childhood. The other features mentioned are not found to be associated with autism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which of the following can be expected from a 12-month-old child assuming he has achieved normal developmental miles stones so far?
Your Answer: Remove one item of clothing on request (e.g. sock)
Correct Answer: Pick up a raisin between forefinger and thumb
Explanation:In a child with an age of 12 months – pincer grasp should be well developed. It is essential to have a good grasp of important milestones. Most 12-month-old children will be mobile, by standing holding onto a support, lifting one foot and moving it sideways (‘cruising’ around the furniture). They will demonstrate a neat pincer grasp, e.g. picking up a raisin or piece of paper between the tip of the index finger and the thumb. Words (or meaningful word-like utterances) are produced, but words are not usually chosen and put together deliberately by a child until after the second birthday (typically around the age of 30 months). Word combinations used earlier than this are likely to be an echo of a learnt phrase which may be understood by the child to be one single word even though they are a combination of more than one word (e.g. daddy, home). Building a tower of three cubes and following a one-step command such as ‘take off your socks’, is expected at 18 months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy presents to the emergency with vomiting and acute central abdominal pain. On examination, the abdomen is tense and tender but there is no guarding and bowel sounds are audible. Ankle and knee reflexes are absent and there is reduced power distally in his lower limbs. One of his older sisters has previously presented with a similar condition. The lab investigations are as follows: Hb 10 g/dlMean corpuscular volume (MCV): 65 flPlatelets: 170Blood film basophilic stipplingUrinary δ-ALA (delta-aminolaevulinic acid): 100 mmol/24 hrs (normal range 8-53)What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Guillain Barré
Correct Answer: Lead poisoning
Explanation:Lead Poisoning Symptoms: Abdominal pain, bluish line on the gums (Burton line), wrist/foot drop, anaemia, nephropathy, encephalopathy, cognitive impairmentDiagnosis: Detectable in bloodBasophilic stippling of erythrocytes (disorder of heme synthesis) on smearTreatment: Succimer, Dimercaprol, EDTA
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Isolated atrial septal defect is NOT characterized by which of the given findings?
Your Answer: Right axis deviation
Correct Answer: Diastolic murmur
Explanation:ASD is an acyanotic congenital heart disease, characterized by the failure of the interatrial septum to form completely, which results in the mixing of left and right-sided blood. There are various types of ASD, some of them are ostium primum septal defect and patent foramen ovale. Clinical findings associated with ASD are a systolic ejection murmur, fixed splitting of second heart sound, prolonged PR interval, both left and right axis deviation (primum and secundum ASD, respectively). The most common finding is an incomplete right bundle branch block.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 13
Correct
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A 10-year-old boy presents with bilaterally enlarged parotid glands for more than 9 months. On examination, both parotid glands are firm and non-tender and are not warm to touch.What is the most probable infectious cause for chronic parotitis in the given scenario?
Your Answer: Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
Explanation:The most probable cause for chronic parotitis in this patient would be HIV infection.Rationale:Chronic infectious parotitis is relatively uncommon in children. While mycobacterial infection can result in chronic parotitis, HIV is a relatively more common cause. The presentation should always prompt an HIV test. Other options:- While mumps is the most common cause of acute viral parotitis, the chronic nature of the boy’s presentation rules it out. – Acute bacterial parotitis is usually unilateral and is warm and tender to touch.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- HIV
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Question 14
Correct
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A 15-month-old child is due for his measles, mumps and rubella (MMR) vaccines. He is feverish due to an acute otitis media and the mother gives a family history of egg allergy. What is the most appropriate action?
Your Answer: Defer immunization for two weeks
Explanation:Vaccines should not be given to a feverish child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A new-born has several strawberry naevi. You're concerned about internal haemangiomas. How many naevi should warrant further investigation?
Your Answer: More than 3
Correct Answer: More than 5
Explanation:Eight percentage of infantile haemangiomas are focal and solitary. Sixty percent of cutaneous haemangiomas occur on the head and neck, 25% on the trunk, and 15% on the extremities. Haemangiomas also can occur in extracutaneous sites, including the liver, gastrointestinal tract, larynx, CNS, pancreas, gall bladder, thymus, spleen, lymph nodes, lung, urinary bladder, and adrenal glands.Guidelines on the management of infantile haemangioma were released in December 2018 by the American Academy of Paediatrics stating that:Imaging is not necessary unless the diagnosis is uncertain, there are five or more cutaneous infantile haemangiomas present, or there is suspicion of anatomic abnormalities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 16
Correct
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An 8 month old baby is admitted with vomiting. He is crying but is afebrile. Clinical examination reveals a diffusely tender abdomen, however, the doctor does not detect any palpable masses. Which of the following should you exclude first?
Your Answer: Intussusception
Explanation:Intussusception is an urgent condition that must be excluded first as it may lead to life-threatening complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which of the following vaccinations is contraindicated in patients with malignancy undergoing chemotherapy?
Your Answer: Pneumococcus
Correct Answer: Rubella
Explanation:MMR vaccine is a live vaccine. It contains measles, mumps and rubella. These vaccines should be avoided during chemotherapy and for 6 months after.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 12 year old girl is admitted with severe (35%) burns following a fire at home. She was transferred to the critical care unit after the wound was cleaned and dressed. She became tachycardic and hypotensive one day after skin grafts were done. She has vomited three times and blood was seen in it. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Disseminated intra vascular coagulation
Correct Answer: Curling's ulcers
Explanation:Answer: Curling’s ulcersCurling’s ulcer is an acute gastric erosion resulting as a complication from severe burns when reduced plasma volume leads to ischemia and cell necrosis (sloughing) of the gastric mucosa. The most common mode of presentation of stress ulcer is the onset of acute upper GI bleed like hematemesis or melena in a patient with the acute critical illness. A similar condition involving elevated intracranial pressure is known as Cushing’s ulcer. Cushing’s ulcer is a gastro-duodenal ulcer produced by elevated intracranial pressure caused by an intracranial tumour, head injury or other space-occupying lesions. The ulcer, usually single and deep, may involve the oesophagus, stomach, and duodenum. Increased intracranial pressure may affect different areas of the hypothalamic nuclei or brainstem leading to overstimulation of the vagus nerve or paralysis of the sympathetic system. Both of these circumstances increase secretion of gastric acid and the likelihood of ulceration of gastro-duodenal mucosa.Mallory-Weiss syndrome is characterized by upper gastrointestinal bleeding secondary to longitudinal mucosal lacerations (known as Mallory-Weiss tears) at the gastroesophageal junction or gastric cardia. However, Mallory-Weiss syndrome may occur after any event that provokes a sudden rise in the intragastric pressure or gastric prolapse into the oesophagus, including antecedent transoesophageal echocardiography. Precipitating factors include retching, vomiting, straining, hiccupping, coughing, primal scream therapy, blunt abdominal trauma, and cardiopulmonary resuscitation. In a few cases, no apparent precipitating factor can be identified. One study reported that 25% of patients had no identifiable risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 19
Correct
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A neonate was delivered 24 hours ago at the gestational age of 29 weeks. His birth weight was recorded to be 1 kg. Due to his critical state, the baby was intubated and ventilated. Prior to his intubation, the baby was managed with CPAP, but he seemed to get exhausted. He is now on SiMV (spontaneous intermittent mechanical ventilation). The ventilator settings are as follows: targeted tidal volume 9 ml, maximum PIP 30, PEEP 5, rate 40/min, FiO2 0.3. Baby's oxygen saturations are 93%. Blood gas shows pH 7.41, CO2 3.9 kPa, BE -4. Which of the following changes need to be made to the ventilator settings initially?
Your Answer: Decrease targeted tidal volume
Explanation:Synchronized IMV (SIMV) with pressure support, used in the alert infant. SIMV guarantees a minimum minute volume while allowing the patient to trigger spontaneousbreaths at a rate and volume determined by the patient. Extra breaths are boosted with pressure support. Tidal Volume (Vt) is normally approximately 6-10 mL/kg and 4-6 ml/kg in the preterm.Respiratory rate (RR) is usually 30-60 BPM. Tidal volume and respiratory rate are relatedto respiratory minute volume as follows: Vm(mL/min) = Vt x RR .This baby is overventilated with a low CO2. Tidal volumes should generally be targeted at 4–6 ml/kg and this baby is being targeted at 9 ml/kg which exposes the baby to damage to the distal airways from this ventilation which can lead to bronchopulmonary dysplasia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 37 week foetus is found to be in transverse position on ultrasound. The position has not changed despite attempting External Cephalic Version at 36 weeks and the due date is in a week. What is the preferred option of delivery for a foetus in a transverse lie?
Your Answer: Caesarean section
Explanation:A transverse lie is a common malpresentation. It occurs when the fetal longitudinal axis is perpendicular to the long axis of the uterus. The location of the spine determines if the foetus is back up (the curvature of the spine is in the upper part of the uterus) or back down (the curvature of the spine is in the lower part of the uterus).Good antenatal care, ECV, and elective caesarean section are the mainstay of the management.Spontaneous delivery of a term foetus is impossible with a persistent transverse lie and, in general, the onset of labour is an indication for the lower segment caesarean section (LSCS) in a case of a transverse lie.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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The differentiation of type I and type II epithelial cells in the developing lung is evident in which gestational age?
Your Answer: Alveolar: 32 weeks gestation to age 8
Correct Answer: Canalicular: 16-24 weeks gestation
Explanation:The differentiation between type 1 and type 2 epithelia in the developing lung buds is evident from 16-24 weeks of gestation.Development of the respiratory tract has five stages:- Embryonic (at 4 – 5 weeks of gestation):Formation of lung buds, trachea and mainstem bronchi occur. These structures are formed from a ventral outpouching of foregut pharynx. At this stage, the beginnings of the five lung lobes are present.- Pseudoglandular (at 5 – 16 weeks of gestation):Formation of terminal bronchioles, cartilage and smooth muscles occur in this stage. – Canalicular (at 16-24 weeks gestation): Differentiation of type I and II epithelial cells can be done in this stage. There is also an increase in the size of proximal airways).- Saccular (at 24 – 40 weeks of gestation): Terminal saccule formation occurs. Production of surfactant takes place at this stage with an increase in the number of goblet cellsUp to half the adult number of alveoli are in place by this stage.- Alveolar (occurs between 32 weeks of gestation till the post-natal age 8): Formation of alveoli and septation occurs with the expansion of air spaces.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 22
Correct
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Children can be offered cow's milk starting from what age?
Your Answer: 12 months
Explanation:Cow’s milk differs in composition to human breast milk. The sodium content of cows milk is too high, which can easily overwhelm a baby’s developing kidneys and lead to hypernatremia and dehydration. In addition to its iron content being too low, cows milk can cause further increase iron deficiency anaemia by irritating the baby’s intestinal lumen and causing blood loss per rectum. After 12 months a baby’s gastrointestinal tract and organs are able to tolerate cows milk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which of the following organs is an ectoderm derivative?
Your Answer: Adrenal cortex
Correct Answer: Adrenal medulla
Explanation:Ectoderm derivatives include the adrenal medulla, posterior pituitary, the epidermis of the skin, nails, hair, sweat glands, mammary glands, sebaceous glands, the central nervous system, the peripheral nervous system, the retina and lens of eye, the pupillary muscle of the iris, melanocytes, Schwann cells and odontoblasts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Normal male puberty is characterized by which of the following features?
Your Answer: A growth rate of 5-6 cm is expected in the peak velocity of the growth spurt
Correct Answer: Thinning and reddening of scrotal skin is typical of Tanner stage 2
Explanation:Puberty is a period of transitioning into adulthood by developing full reproductive potential by undergoing drastic physiological and psychological changes. For boys, it occurs around 9-16 years of age typically. The process of pubertal changes is usually divided into stages called tanner’s stages. The physiologic changes of puberty are initiated by the release of gonadotropin-releasing hormones from the hypothalamus, which then interact with numerous endogenous and environmental stimuli to bring about the physical pubertal features. Tanner stage 2 in boys is characterized by the thinning and reddening of the scrotal skin.The growth spurt of around 9cm per year is expected in boys, at the peak velocity.Testicular enlargement of >3cm commences puberty.Pubarche, in the absence of other secondary sexual characteristics, is pathological.Adrenarche is the increase in the secretion of adrenal androgens, occurring prior to increased gonadotropin release.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 5 year old girl presents with a wart-like lesion on her thigh and a hyperpigmented, rhabdoid whorl rash. She has a history of seizures since she was three years old and warts similar to the one she has now. Family history reveals the mother had two in utero stillbirths. The doctor observes small vesicles on the anterior surface of her left wrist. Other findings include mild scoliosis, thin wiry hair, and peg-shaped teeth. Her gait is normal and she is otherwise healthy. Ruth Griffiths score reveals a reduced sub quotient in terms of social skills, performance, and language and hearing skills. The doctor takes a biopsy sample which shows many intradermal eosinophils in the absence of inflammatory cells. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Incontinentia pigmenti
Explanation:Incontinentia pigmenti is a genetic condition that affects females more than males. It usually manifests in the skin but can affect other parts of the body as well. It presents with a blistering rash that may evolve into wart-like growths. Hyperpigmentation and hair loss are also present, as well as eye and teeth abnormalities. Clinically there are three phases: 1- the bullous phase – crops of vesicles appear in the first 2 weeks of life|2- the papular phase – warty papules that flatten out over the skin| and 3- the hyperpigmented phase – pigmentary changes in the form of whorls and streaks that are hypo- and hyperpigmented in nature.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 16 year old patient was admitted with walking difficulties and knee pain. Upon examination, his leg is externally rotated and is 2cm shorter. His ability to flex, abduct and medially rotate his leg is limited and when he flexes his hip, external rotation is increased. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Slipped femoral epiphysis
Explanation:The clinical presentation is typical of a slipped femoral epiphysis, which refers to a fracture through the growth plate (physis), resulting in slippage of the overlying end of the femur. It is the most common hip disorder in adolescence. SCFEs usually cause groin pain on the affected side, but sometimes cause knee or thigh pain. The range of motion in the hip is restricted in internal (medial) rotation, abduction, and flexion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 27
Correct
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A 15 year old girl is diagnosed with familial adenomatous polyposis. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommended step in management?
Your Answer: Surveillance annual flexible sigmoidoscopy from age 13 years until age 30 years
Explanation:Answer: Surveillance annual flexible sigmoidoscopy from age 13 years until age 30 years. Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is the most common adenomatous polyposis syndrome. It is an autosomal dominant inherited disorder characterized by the early onset of hundreds to thousands of adenomatous polyps throughout the colon. If left untreated, all patients with this syndrome will develop colon cancer by age 35-40 years. In addition, an increased risk exists for the development of other malignancies.Most patients with FAP are asymptomatic until they develop cancer. As a result, diagnosing presymptomatic patients is essential.Of patients with FAP, 75%-80% have a family history of polyps and/or colorectal cancer at age 40 years or younger.Nonspecific symptoms, such as unexplained rectal bleeding (haematochezia), diarrhoea, or abdominal pain, in young patients may be suggestive of FAP.In a minority of FAP families a mutation cannot be identified and so annual flexible sigmoidoscopy should be offered to at risk family members from age 13–15 years until age 30, and at three to five year intervals thereafter until age 60 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 27-year-old pregnant female had a pre pregnancy BMI of 33 kg/m2. She is found to have gestational diabetes and ultrasonography estimates a fetal macrosomia. BP is 127/72 mmHg. This primigravida is at greatest risk for which of the following obstetric emergency?
Your Answer: Shoulder dystocia
Explanation:Shoulder dystocia occurs when the fetal anterior shoulder impacts against the maternal symphysis following delivery of the vertex. Less commonly, shoulder dystocia results from impaction of the posterior shoulder on the sacral promontory. Risk Factors for Shoulder DystociaMaternalAbnormal pelvic anatomyGestational diabetesPost-dates pregnancyPrevious shoulder dystociaShort statureFetalSuspected macrosomiaLabour relatedAssisted vaginal delivery (forceps or vacuum)Protracted active phase of first-stage labourProtracted second-stage labour
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Consider the following study:Healthy individuals are assessed according to their current body mass index (BMI). Two years later, their health status is reassessed, and the relationships with their earlier BMI were determined.What is the type of epidemiological study described above?
Your Answer: Retrospective
Correct Answer: Cohort
Explanation:The study described in the question is a ‘cohort’ study.Other options:A prospective observational study – When groups are classified according to one or more factors at a given time and followed forward to determine outcomes (usually some health status)- Although there is in one sense a control group (those who do not develop the health problem), this is not generally called a ‘controlled’ trial. – An ecological study would look at outcomes in different groups (countries or regions usually) who follow different practices.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 30
Correct
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Anorexia nervosa is associated with which of the following skin and nail related changes?
Your Answer: Acrocyanosis
Explanation:Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder which is characterized by distorted self-image leading to abnormally decreased calorie intake. This disorder affects multiple bodily systems, including the skin, GI, and endocrine system. Due to extreme weight loss, patients with anorexia nervosa develop cold intolerance along with bluish discoloration of their fingers, nose, and ears, which is known as acrocyanosis. This phenomenon may be due to the shunting of the blood from the peripheries to the central body systems as a reaction to hypothermia. Other notable changes in the integumentary system include extreme dryness (xerosis), lanugo hairs, decubitus ulcers, and easy bruisibility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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