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  • Question 1 - Which of the following epilepsy syndromes is NOT benign? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following epilepsy syndromes is NOT benign?

      Your Answer: Gastaut type-idiopathic childhood occipital epilepsy

      Correct Answer: Infantile spasms

      Explanation:

      Epilepsy is a common paediatric neurologic disorder characterized by seizures of varying frequency and intensity. There are many childhood or infantile epilepsy syndromes that can be categorized as benign epilepsy syndromes as the child suffering from these usually outgrows them after reaching a certain age, and they do not lead to significant cognitive or physical impairment. Some of these may not need any treatment. Such benign epilepsy syndromes include benign rolandic epilepsy, Panayiotopoulos syndrome, Gastaut type-idiopathic childhood occipital epilepsy, and idiopathic photosensitive occipital lobe epilepsy. West syndrome, also called infantile spasms, is a serious infantile epileptic encephalopathy, characterized by multiple clusters of myoclonic spasms, and regression of the previous normally attained milestones. It is associated with severe cognitive and physical impairment, often leading to life long disability.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      34.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 12-year old girl was brought to the hospital with recurrent headaches for...

    Correct

    • A 12-year old girl was brought to the hospital with recurrent headaches for 6 months. Her physical examination revealed no abnormality. A CT scan of the head revealed a suprasellar mass with calcifications, eroding the surrounding sella turcica. The lesion is likely to represent:

      Your Answer: Craniopharyngioma

      Explanation:

      Craniopharyngiomas (also known as Rathke pouch tumours, adamantinomas or hypophyseal duct tumours) affect children mainly between the age of 5 and 10 years. It constitutes 9% of brain tumours affecting the paediatric population. These are slow-growing tumours which can also be cystic, and arise from the pituitary stalk, specifically the nests of epithelium derived from Rathke’s pouch. Histologically, this tumour shows nests of squamous epithelium which is lined on the outside by radially arranged cells. Calcium deposition is often seen with a papillary type of architecture.
      ACTH-secreting pituitary adenomas are rare and mostly microadenomas. Paediatric astrocytoma’s usually occur in the posterior fossa. Although null cell adenomas can cause mass effect and give rise to the described symptoms, they are not suprasellar. Prolactinomas can also show symptoms of headache and disturbances in the visual field, however they are known to be small and slow-growing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      202.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 16-month-old girl with eczema is on the following treatment regimen: Oilatum in...

    Correct

    • A 16-month-old girl with eczema is on the following treatment regimen: Oilatum in baths| Baby' shampoo and soap and E45 cream to affected areas four times daily. Additionally, the mother uses 'non-biological' washing powder.The child often scratches the affected areas, sometimes even in her sleep. On examination, her skin is erythematous, excoriated, and lichenified over the knees, thighs, and flexor surfaces of the elbows.Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step in the management of this child?

      Your Answer: Use E45 cream instead of soap| advise using a greasier emollient and try an antihistamine at night

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate next step in the management of this patient would be to use E45 cream instead of soap. Using a greasier emollient and an antihistamine at night can also be trialled..Management of eczema:Treatment of eczema can be problematic, and thus, parents should be advised regarding simple, everyday measures that can relieve the symptoms. These include:- Using non-biological washing powder- Wearing cotton clothes as opposed to artificial fibres- Avoiding the use of soaps or shampoos and using E45 Cream as an alternative.- Additional use of bath oil (e.g. Oilatum) is found to be beneficial.- Regular emollient use is recommended and essential. The aim is to keep the skin from feeling dry at any time of day. Sedating with older types of antihistamines at night does not help to reduce itching, but when used in large doses, they occasionally provide a sedative effect which may improve sleep. If all these measures are in use, but the eczema is still not controlled, the escalation of treatment would be appropriate. Note: There is no evidence for the benefit of topical antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      103.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A child is admitted with a febrile illness. Which of the following is...

    Incorrect

    • A child is admitted with a febrile illness. Which of the following is of concern?

      Your Answer: A 2 year old boy with heart rate of 140

      Correct Answer: A 6 month old with a systolic blood pressure of 60

      Explanation:

      Age (years) Respiratory rate (per minute) Heart rate (per minute) Systolic blood pressure<1 30-40 110-160 70-901-2 25-35 100-150 80-952-5 25-30 95-140 80-1005-12 20-25 80-120 90-110>12 15-20 60-100 100-120Adapted from Advanced Paediatric Life Support Manual

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      31.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 13-year-old girl presents with short stature, webbed neck, cubitus valgus and primary...

    Correct

    • A 13-year-old girl presents with short stature, webbed neck, cubitus valgus and primary amenorrhea.Which of the following hormones is most important for long term replacement?

      Your Answer: Oestrogen

      Explanation:

      This girl most probably has Turner’s syndrome, which is caused by the absence of one set of genes from the short arm of one X chromosome.Turner syndrome is a lifelong condition and needs lifelong oestrogen replacement therapy. Oestrogen is usually started at age 12-15 years. Treatment can be started with continuous low-dose oestrogens. These can be cycled in a 3-weeks on, 1-week off regimen after 6-18 months| progestin can be added later.In childhood, growth hormone therapy is standard to prevent short stature as an adult.Fetal ovarian development seems to be normal in Turner syndrome, with degeneration occurring in most cases around the time of birth so pulsatile GnRH and luteinising hormone would be of no use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 40-week-old baby presented with a weak cry and failure to thrive. The...

    Correct

    • A 40-week-old baby presented with a weak cry and failure to thrive. The mother gives a history of prolonged neonatal jaundice and says it is common in her family. On examination, a large tongue was noticed. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Congenital hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Congenital hypothyroidism is associated with failure to thrive, macroglossia, prolonged jaundice of a new-born and constipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 2-month-old child is brought to the paediatric emergency by his parents. Which...

    Correct

    • A 2-month-old child is brought to the paediatric emergency by his parents. Which of the following would be a contraindication for the baby's discharge from the hospital?

      Your Answer: Any one of the above

      Explanation:

      Any 2-month-old child presenting with any of the above signs, should be assessed and have a history taken and physical examination made before discharge. As these may all be signs and symptoms for a condition requiring hospitalisation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      32
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - An 8 year old male is brought by the paramedics to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • An 8 year old male is brought by the paramedics to the emergency department after having an episode of generalised tonic-clonic seizures. The seizures started at 10:55. The paramedics gave him buccal midazolam at 11:04 and waited for the seizures to end, until 11:06. Afterwards, they gave him oxygen via face mask and set up a venous line. His blood glucose at that moment was 5.2 mmol/L and he remained unconscious during the whole trip to the hospital. The paramedics arrived at the emergency department at 11:16 and you observe that he has a patent airway and a good air entry. His RR is 12 and his O2 saturation is 98% on 10L O2. His heart rate is 122 bpm and his CRT is 2 seconds. At 11:19, you observe that the child is not responsive to pain and he starts experiencing subtle but persistent jerking movements of his jaw and left upper limb. You notice that the child's pupils are deviated to the right and are bilaterally constricted. It's 11:20. What should you do next?

      Your Answer: Intubate and prepare IV phenytoin

      Correct Answer: Administer IV lorazepam now

      Explanation:

      NICE guidelines suggest that at the premonitory stage (pre-hospital) the patient should receive Diazepam 10−20 mg given rectally, or midazolam 10 mg given buccally. If seizures continue, the patient should receive lorazepam IV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      300.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - An 11-year-old boy with a suspected brain tumour displays features of disinhibition. Damage...

    Incorrect

    • An 11-year-old boy with a suspected brain tumour displays features of disinhibition. Damage to which of the following areas would most likely result in these findings?

      Your Answer: Left frontal lobe

      Correct Answer: Right frontal lobe

      Explanation:

      The clinical presentation of the boy suggests the involvement of the right frontal lobe.Psychiatric or behavioural disturbances secondary to frontal lobe lesions exhibit lateralisation. The lesions of the left hemisphere are associated with depression, especially if the lesion involves the dorsolateral portion of the prefrontal cortex. Whereas, lesions of the right hemisphere are associated with impulsivity, disinhibition, and aggression, as it is the case with the child in question.Presenting symptoms of lobar dysfunctions:- Frontal lobe: Contralateral hemiplegia, impaired problem solving, disinhibition, and lack of initiative. Broca’s aphasia and agraphia suggest the involvement of the dominant hemisphere.- Temporal lobe: Wernicke’s aphasia (dominant hemisphere involvement), homonymous upper quadrantanopia and auditory agnosia (non-dominant hemisphere involvement).- Parietal lobe: Anosognosia, dressing apraxia, spatial neglect and constructional apraxia are observed when the non-dominant hemisphere is involved. Gerstmann’s syndrome is observed when the dominant hemisphere is involved.- Occipital lobe: Visual agnosia, visual illusions and contralateral homonymous hemianopia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      67.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 1 day old baby girl is born with severe respiratory compromise. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 1 day old baby girl is born with severe respiratory compromise. She is seen to have a scaphoid abdomen and an absent apex beat. Which anomaly does this baby have?

      Your Answer: Situs inversus

      Correct Answer: Bochdalek hernia

      Explanation:

      Answer: Bochdalek herniaA Bochdalek hernia is one of two forms of a congenital diaphragmatic hernia, the other form being Morgagni hernia. A Bochdalek hernia is a congenital abnormality in which an opening exists in the infant’s diaphragm, allowing normally intra-abdominal organs (particularly the stomach and intestines) to protrude into the thoracic cavity. In the majority of patients, the affected lung will be deformed, and the resulting lung compression can be life-threatening. Bochdalek hernias occur more commonly on the posterior left side (85%, versus right side 15%).In normal Bochdalek hernia cases, the symptoms are often observable simultaneously with the baby’s birth. A few of the symptoms of a Bochdalek Hernia include difficulty breathing, fast respiration and increased heart rate. Also, if the baby appears to have cyanosis (blue-tinted skin) this can also be a sign. Another way to differentiate a healthy baby from a baby with Bochdalek Hernia, is to look at the chest immediately after birth. If the baby has a Bochdalek Hernia it may appear that one side of the chest cavity is larger than the other and or the abdomen seems to be scaphoid (caved in).Situs inversus (also called situs transversus or oppositus) is a congenital condition in which the major visceral organs are reversed or mirrored from their normal positions. The normal arrangement of internal organs is known as situs solitus while situs inversus is generally the mirror image of situs solitus. Although cardiac problems are more common than in the general population, most people with situs inversus have no medical symptoms or complications resulting from the condition, and until the advent of modern medicine it was usually undiagnosed. In the absence of congenital heart defects, individuals with situs inversus are homeostatically normal, and can live standard healthy lives, without any complications related to their medical condition. There is a 5–10% prevalence of congenital heart disease in individuals with situs inversus totalis, most commonly transposition of the great vessels. The incidence of congenital heart disease is 95% in situs inversus with levocardia.Cystic fibrosis is a progressive, genetic disease that causes persistent lung infections and limits the ability to breathe over time. In people with CF, mutations in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) gene cause the CFTR protein to become dysfunctional. When the protein is not working correctly, it’s unable to help move chloride — a component of salt — to the cell surface. Without the chloride to attract water to the cell surface, the mucus in various organs becomes thick and sticky. In the lungs, the mucus clogs the airways and traps germs, like bacteria, leading to infections, inflammation, respiratory failure, and other complications. Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) is a medical condition where a portion of the bowel dies. It typically occurs in new-borns that are either premature or otherwise unwell. Symptoms may include poor feeding, bloating, decreased activity, blood in the stool, or vomiting of bile.The exact cause is unclear. Risk factors include congenital heart disease, birth asphyxia, exchange transfusion, and premature rupture of membranes. The underlying mechanism is believed to involve a combination of poor blood flow and infection of the intestines. Diagnosis is based on symptoms and confirmed with medical imaging.Morgagni hernias are one of the congenital diaphragmatic hernias (CDH), and is characterized by herniation through the foramen of Morgagni. When compared to Bochdalek hernias, Morgagni hernias are:-anterior-more often right-sided (,90%)-small-rare (,2% of CDH)-at low risk of prolapseOnly ,30% of patients are symptomatic. New-borns may present with respiratory distress at birth similar to a Bochdalek hernia. Additionally, recurrent chest infections and gastrointestinal symptoms have been reported in those with previously undiagnosed Morgagni hernia.The image of the transverse colon is herniated into the thoracic cavity, through a mid line defect and this indicates that it is a Morgagni hernia since the foramen of a Morgagni hernia occurs in the anterior midline through the sternocostal hiatus of the diaphragm, with 90% of cases occurring on the right side.Clinical manifestations of congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH) include the following:Early diagnosis – Right-side heart| decreased breath sounds on the affected side| scaphoid abdomen| bowel sounds in the thorax, respiratory distress, and/or cyanosis on auscultation| CDH can often be diagnosed in utero with ultrasonography (US), magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), or bothLate diagnosis – Chest mass on chest radiography, gastric volvulus, splenic volvulus, or large-bowel obstructionCongenital hernias (neonatal onset) – Respiratory distress and/or cyanosis occurs within the first 24 hours of life| CDH may not be diagnosed for several years if the defect is small enough that it does not cause significant pulmonary dysfunctionCongenital hernias (childhood or adult onset) – Obstructive symptoms from protrusion of the colon, chest pain, tightness or fullness the in chest, sepsis following strangulation or perforation, and many respiratory symptoms occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      28.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following could be an indicator of possible language delay in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following could be an indicator of possible language delay in an otherwise well child?

      Your Answer: Echolalia at the age of 2 years

      Correct Answer: A family history of hereditary deafness

      Explanation:

      In the first few years of life the developing sensory inputs are important. Hearing is essential for speech and language development and may be delayed when a child cannot hear. Therefore any child with a family history of hereditary deafness should be screened. From about 4-6months babies are able to laugh and babble when excited or unhappy. By the age of 9 months the child should be able to bring together groups of same sound syllables and be able to say one or two words by the 1st birthday. If a child is unable to babble by 10-12 years, it may indicate hearing impairment. By the age of 2 a child should be able to speak in 1 or 2 word phrases and often repeats phrases used by others, known as Echolalia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      464.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A male infant is brought to the emergency department by his parents. He...

    Correct

    • A male infant is brought to the emergency department by his parents. He was born at 34 weeks by spontaneous vaginal delivery and was discharged 4 weeks ago. He is not on any regular medication. Parents said that he brings up small volumes of milk after feeds. This happens approximately twice a day. Observations are all within normal range and examination is unremarkable.Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux

      Explanation:

      Gastroesophageal reflux occurs in almost all infants, manifesting as wet burps after feeding. The spit-ups appear effortless and not particularly forceful.Infants in whom reflux has caused GERD have additional symptoms, such as irritability, feeding refusal, and/or respiratory symptoms such as chronic recurrent coughing or wheezing and sometimes stridor. Much less commonly, infants have intermittent apnoea or episodes of arching the back and turning the head to one side (Sandifer syndrome). Infants may fail to gain weight appropriately or, less often, lose weight.Incidence of gastroesophageal reflux increases between 2 months and 6 months of age (likely due to an increased volume of liquid at each feeding) and then starts to decrease after 7 months. Gastroesophageal reflux resolves in about 85% of infants by 12 months and in 95% by 18 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      24.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - An 11-year-old girl presents to the paediatric assessment unit with a widespread macular...

    Correct

    • An 11-year-old girl presents to the paediatric assessment unit with a widespread macular rash. She had a previous history of flu-like illness and sore throat diagnosed as tonsillitis for which she was prescribed Amoxicillin. On examination, she has widespread cervical lymphadenopathy and petechiae on her palate. What is the most likely underlying pathogen?

      Your Answer: Epstein Barr Virus

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical scenario, the most likely underlying pathogen is the Epstein Barr virus (EBV).An Epstein Barr virus (EBV) infection most commonly results in upper respiratory tract symptoms with fever and sore throat. Lymphadenopathy is frequently palpable on examination. Splenomegaly may also occur, and for this reason, patients diagnosed with glandular fever should be advised to avoid contact sports for one month following diagnosis. The presence of petechiae on the soft palate is also associated with EBV infection. The vast majority of patients with active EBV infection will develop a widespread rash if given amoxicillin, therefore, phenoxymethylpenicillin (Penicillin V) is recommended for the treatment of a suspected bacterial throat infection to prevent this complication occurring for individuals who have EBV infection.Other options:- Coronavirus: This is one of the causes of the common cold and is frequently responsible for sore throats| however, in this case, the presenting features are more suggestive of an EBV infection.- Group A Streptococcus: Streptococci are classified into two main groups| alpha-haemolytic and beta-haemolytic. Group A Streptococcus belongs to the beta-haemolytic group. Group A streptococcal infection is a common cause of bacterial tonsillitis. It is possible that the child, in this case, had streptococcal tonsillitis and has had a drug reaction to the amoxicillin. However her age, flu-like symptoms and petechiae on her palate all point to an EBV infection and amoxicillin resulting in a rash.- Parainfluenza: Parainfluenza viruses are one of many causes of the common cold and can cause pharyngitis. They are the leading cause of viral croup.- Rhinovirus: Rhinoviruses are one of many causes of the common cold and are frequently responsible for sore throats| however, in this case, are other factors suggesting EBV infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      49.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 15-year-old girl is referred to the paediatric unit with reduced urine output...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl is referred to the paediatric unit with reduced urine output and lethargy. She has been passing bloody diarrhoea for the past four days. On admission she appears dehydrated. Bloods show the following:Na+ 142 mmol/lK+ 4.8 mmol/lBicarbonate 22 mmol/lUrea 10.1 mmol/lCreatinine 176 µmol/lHb 10.4 g/dlMCV 90 flPlt 91 * 109/lWBC 14.4 * 109/lGiven the likely diagnosis, which one of the following organisms is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Shigella

      Correct Answer: E. coli

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis in this case is Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS), which is generally seen in young children presenting with a triad of symptoms, namely: acute renal failure, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, and thrombocytopenia. The typical cause of HUS is ingestion of a strain of Escherichia coli.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      572.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 13 year old girl presents to the clinic with weight loss and...

    Correct

    • A 13 year old girl presents to the clinic with weight loss and bloody diarrhoea. Examination of the abdomen is unremarkable. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Inflammatory bowel disease

      Explanation:

      Answer: Inflammatory bowel diseaseThe inflammatory bowel diseases (IBDs), including ulcerative colitis and Crohn disease, are chronic inflammatory disorders of the gastrointestinal tract most often diagnosed in adolescence and young adulthood, with a rising incidence in paediatric populations. Inflammatory bowel disease is caused by a dysregulated mucosal immune response to the intestinal microflora in genetically predisposed hosts. Although children can present with the classic symptoms of weight loss, abdominal pain, and bloody diarrhoea, many present with nonclassical symptoms of isolated poor growth, anaemia, or other extraintestinal manifestations.Colorectal Carcinoma (CRC) is rare in patients less than 20 years of age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following ages should a child be expected to draw a...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following ages should a child be expected to draw a line and start cutting with scissors?

      Your Answer: 3-4 years

      Correct Answer: 2- 2 1/2 years

      Explanation:

      Fine motor development involves greater use of the hands to perform more precise tasks. By 6 -12 months children should be able to reach for small objects and pass an object from one hand to the other. From 1 -2 years they can perform more complex tasks such a building a tower of blocks, feeding themselves, and turning knobs. In terms of pencil skills, they should be able to imitate scribbles and then spontaneously scribble. By the age of 2 years they can draw a line, and by three they can draw a circle. From the age of 3.5 they can draw a cross, 4.5 – a square, 5 – a triangle, and 6 a diamond.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the given statements is correct regarding carbon monoxide? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the given statements is correct regarding carbon monoxide?

      Your Answer: CO shifts the oxygen dissociation curve to the right.

      Correct Answer: CO combines with haemoglobin to form carboxyhaemoglobin

      Explanation:

      Carbon monoxide is a colourless gas, which is toxic to animals. It has a high affinity for haemoglobin (around 250 times greater than oxygen). It combines with haemoglobin forming carboxyhaemoglobin, which decreases the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, leading to a left-shift in the oxygen-dissociation curve. CO is produced endogenously in limited amounts (0.4ml per hour), but the toxic levels are higher.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      61.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 17 year old boy presented with complaints of pain in his right...

    Correct

    • A 17 year old boy presented with complaints of pain in his right lower limb. The pain tends to occur more at night and is not associated with physical activity. The most likely diagnosis would be?

      Your Answer: Osteoid osteoma

      Explanation:

      Osteoid osteoma is a bone forming tumour which affects individuals in the second decade of life. The patient presents with a history of pain in the lower limbs which is mostly at night and responds to NSAIDS. If the pain doesn’t respond to NSAIDS, then other differentials should be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      36.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 12-year-old girl is recovering from bilateral parotitis. She complains of a continuous...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl is recovering from bilateral parotitis. She complains of a continuous headache and drowsiness. A CT brain is done which is normal. What is the best definitive investigation in this case?

      Your Answer: Electroencephalogram

      Correct Answer: Lumbar puncture

      Explanation:

      This patient might have viral meningitis as he recently suffered viral parotitis(Mumps). Microscopy and culture of the CSF would show a CSF lymphocytosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      46
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 6 month old female is brought by her parents who are concerned...

    Correct

    • A 6 month old female is brought by her parents who are concerned regarding her development. Which of the following is expected of developmental milestones at this age?

      Your Answer: They enjoy playing with their parents

      Explanation:

      6 month old babies that go through normal developmental milestones, should enjoy playing with others and especially their parents.The other milestones are expected of a 9-month-old.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      39.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - An asymptomatic 5-month old boy was referred to the paediatric cardiology department after...

    Correct

    • An asymptomatic 5-month old boy was referred to the paediatric cardiology department after his GP noted an ejection systolic murmur and thrill at the upper left sternal edge. SpO2 saturation is at 98%, and an ECG reveals an R/S ratio >1 in the V1 lead.What is the most probable diagnosis for this child?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary Stenosis

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this patient would be pulmonary stenosis. Pulmonary Stenosis:Pulmonary valve murmurs are heard in the upper left sternal edge, associated with a thrill but no desaturation in the absence of an additional shunt. The ECG changes suggest right ventricular hypertrophy. Pulmonary stenosis is often well tolerated in childhood unless severe. These should be monitored with serial echocardiography, and balloon pulmonary valvoplasty should be considered once the pressure gradient reaches 64 mmHg.Other options:- Atrial septal defect: While atrial septal defects are associated with right ventricular outflow tract murmurs, they would not cause a thrill.- Patent ductus arteriosus: PDA murmurs can be audible in the left upper sternal edge, but would normally be audible in the left infraclavicular area and be continuous rather than ejection systolic. This left to right shunt would not cause desaturation but does cause left-sided volume loading and hence left-sided ECG changes.- Tetralogy of Fallot: Ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, subpulmonary stenosis, and right ventricular hypertrophy. This would often cause a ULSE murmur with a thrill and RVH on ECG. However, this degree of obstruction would cause shunting from right to left, and this child would be desaturated.- Ventricular septal defect: Isolated ventricular septal defects cause pansystolic murmurs at the left lower sternal edge. They would have left-sided ECG changes and normal saturations (in the absence of pulmonary hypertension).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      23.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 7-week-old baby girl has a bright red, well-circumscribed and lobulated lesion developing...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-week-old baby girl has a bright red, well-circumscribed and lobulated lesion developing on her right temple that wasn't noted at birth, but is now 5 mm in diameter.What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Refer to paediatric dermatology (on a routine basis)

      Correct Answer: Reassure the mother that most lesions spontaneously regress

      Explanation:

      Capillary haemangiomas are one of the most common benign tumours of infancy. They are benign endothelial cell neoplasms that are typically absent at birth and characteristically have rapid growth in infancy with spontaneous involution later in life. This is in contrast to another known group of childhood vascular anomalies, vascular malformations. Vascular malformations, such as lymphangiomas and arteriovenous malformations, are present at birth and are characterized by very slow growth with persistence into adult life. The indications for treatment can be divided into systemic, ophthalmic, and dermatologic reasons. Systemic reasons for intervention include congestive heart failure, thrombocytopenia, haemolytic anaemia, and nasopharyngeal obstruction. Ophthalmic indications for intervention include occlusion of the visual axis, optic nerve compression, severe proptosis, and anisometropia. Dermatologic indications for intervention include maceration and erosion of the epidermis, infection, and cosmetic disfigurement.The first-line treatment of capillary haemangiomas is simple observation. Since most of these lesions regress on their own, there is no need to intervene unless one of the above criteria is met.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      46.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A child presents with hypothyroidism. Which of the following features is characteristic of...

    Correct

    • A child presents with hypothyroidism. Which of the following features is characteristic of hypothyroidism?

      Your Answer: Prolonged neonatal jaundice

      Explanation:

      Congenital hypothyroidism is one of the most important diseases of the new-born, which may lead to mental and physical retardation when treatment is delayed or an appropriate dosage of thyroxine is not administered. The most alarming and earliest sign is jaundice, especially when it is prolonged, during the neonatal period.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following developmental milestones is a 3 year old girl unlikely...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following developmental milestones is a 3 year old girl unlikely to have achieved?

      Your Answer: Build a tower of nine cubes

      Correct Answer: Make good cuts with scissors

      Explanation:

      At the age of three years a child is to be able to dress and undress himself with supervision, eat with a spoon and fork, build a tower with 9 cubes, give their full name and copy a circle. The child will not be able to make good cuts with scissions until he is about 5 years old.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A new-born child is not moving his left arm properly. He had shoulder...

    Correct

    • A new-born child is not moving his left arm properly. He had shoulder dystocia during childbirth. His arm is hanging down with the shoulder internally rotated, elbow extended, forearm pronated and wrist flexed. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Erb palsy

      Explanation:

      Erb’s palsy is a paralysis of the arm caused by injury to the brachial plexus, specifically the severing of the upper trunk C5–C6 nerves.The infant with an upper plexus palsy (C5-C7) keeps the arm adducted and internally rotated, with the elbow extended, the forearm pronated, the wrist flexed, and the hand in a fist. In the first hours of life, the hand also may appear flaccid, but strength returns over days to months.The right side is injured in 51% of cases. Left side occurs in 45% of patients and bilateral injuries, in 4%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 15-year-old girl presents with complaints of right-sided earache. She says that the...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl presents with complaints of right-sided earache. She says that the ear has been itchy over the past few days but has become excruciatingly painful today. On examination, she appears uncomfortable at rest but otherwise well. Her observations are within normal limits. Otoscopy is difficult as the girl flinches in pain, the ear canal appears oedematous. The tympanic membrane is difficult to see with oedema and discharge present in the external canal. The oropharynx seems normal with no erythema or tonsillar exudate. What is the next step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Oral antibiotics

      Correct Answer: Topical antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical scenario, the patient has features suggestive of acute otitis externa, which can be managed with topic antibiotics.Otitis externa:It can be classified as acute (< 3 weeks) or chronic (> 3 months). Frequent exposure to water, e.g. swimming, is a risk factor for the condition. Itching, pain, hearing loss and discharge are common complaints. Examination demonstrates oedema of the external auditory canal with discharge. Pain may be elicited on the movement of the tragus or pinna. First-line treatment is with topical drops/sprays for one week. Acidic preparations such as 2% acetic acid, antibiotic or combined antibiotic and corticosteroid preparations may be used (1% hydrocortisone and 0.3% gentamicin). Acetic acid can be used as the first-line treatment for mild cases without discharge or hearing impairment. On selecting an appropriate topical preparation remember that topical aminoglycosides are contraindicated if the tympanic membrane is perforated and that chloramphenicol ear drops cause contact dermatitis in approximately 10% of people. Clinoquinol, a combination of antibacterial and antifungal, may be preferred over aminoglycoside containing preparations due to the theoretical lower risk of ototoxicity and dermatitis. However, there is no clear evidence to support the use of one topical preparation over another.Other options:- Admit for IV antibiotics: First line management is with analgesia and topical antibiotic or combined antibiotic and corticosteroid preparations. Thus, IV antibiotics is not an appropriate action.- Oral antibiotics: Oral antibiotics like flucloxacillin or erythromycin are considered only for severe infections such as the spread of cellulitis beyond the ear canal. – Reassurance is not sufficient to treat these patients. They require topic antibiotic therapy.- Referral to ENT: Should be considered only in case of treatment failure. ENT referral can also be considered if there is cellulitis extending past the margin of the external ear canal, extreme pain or extensive swelling and discharge likely to require suction or the insertion of an ear wick. Urgent ENT referral is reserved for suspected cases of malignant otitis externa (with the extension of the condition into the adjacent bone and spreading osteomyelitis).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      43.6
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A young boy presents with signs and symptoms consistent with infective endocarditis. He...

    Correct

    • A young boy presents with signs and symptoms consistent with infective endocarditis. He has a history of neglect and poor dental hygiene.Which organism is likely to have caused his endocarditis?

      Your Answer: Streptococci viridans

      Explanation:

      Infective endocarditis occurs when microorganisms enter the bloodstream and infect damaged endocardium or endothelial tissue. It most commonly involves the heart valves (either native or prosthetic), but it may also occur at the site of a septal defect, on the chordae tendineae, or on the mural endocardium. The prototypic lesion is at the site of the infection| the vegetation is a mass of platelets, fibrin, microcolonies of microorganisms, and scant inflammatory cells. Endocarditis is classified as acute or subacute, which applies to the features and the progression of infection until diagnosis.The oral cavity, the skin, and the upper respiratory tract are the primary portals for Streptococcus viridans| Staphylococcus species| and Haemophilus aphrophilus, Aggregatibacter (formerly Actinobacillus) actinomycetemcomitans, Cardiobacterium hominis, Eikenella corrodens, and Kingella kingae (HACEK) organisms. Streptococcal and staphylococcal organisms are responsible for more than 80% of cases of bacterial IE.Streptococcus viridans accounts for approximately 50-60% of cases of subacute disease.While S aureus infection is the most common cause of IE, including Prosthetic valve endocarditis, acute IE, and IV Drug Abusers IE

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 15-year-old boy is brought to the clinic with recurrent episodes of diarrhoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy is brought to the clinic with recurrent episodes of diarrhoea and loose stools. He looks shorter than his age and does not seem to have undergone a growth spurt. After a series of investigations, he is diagnosed with Crohn's disease. Which of the following treatment strategies should initially be employed?

      Your Answer: Azathioprine

      Correct Answer: Elemental diet for 6 weeks

      Explanation:

      The elemental diet is a medically supervised, sole nutrition dietary management given to individuals with moderate to severe impaired gastrointestinal function for 14-21 days.The diet consists of macronutrients broken down into their elemental form requiring little to no digestive functionality allowing time for the gut to rest. Elemental formulations are believed to be entirely absorbed within the first few feet of small intestine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      23.3
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of the following actions will a 2-year-old child with normal developmental milestones...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following actions will a 2-year-old child with normal developmental milestones be able to perform?

      Your Answer: Run on tiptoe

      Correct Answer: Pull and push large wheeled toys and squat to play with toys on the floor

      Explanation:

      Among the given options a 2-year-old child with normal developmental milestones will be able to pull and push large wheeled toys and squat to play with toys on the floor.Other options:- Bouncing and catching a ball is learnt by the age of 5.- The ability to pedal a tricycle should be attained by 3 years of age, not 2.- A child can walk on tip-toe by 2.5 and run on tip-toe by (option D) 3 years of age, not 2.- The ability to momentarily maintain balance using one leg (option E) should be attained by 3 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following segments of the ECG represents ventricular repolarization? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following segments of the ECG represents ventricular repolarization?

      Your Answer: QRS complex

      Correct Answer: T wave

      Explanation:

      The T wave represents ventricular repolarization. Other options:- P wave:Depolarization that spreads from the SA node throughout the atria. The wave lasts 0.08 to 0.1 seconds (80-100 ms).The isoelectric period after the P wave represents the time in which the impulse is travelling within the AV node.- P-R interval:Time from the onset of the P wave to the beginning of the QRS complex. The wave ranges from 0.12 to 0.20 seconds in duration.Represents the time between the onset of atrial depolarization and the onset of ventricular depolarization- QRS complex:It represents ventricular depolarization. The duration of the QRS complex is normally 0.06 to 0.1 seconds.- ST-segment:The isoelectric period following the QRS. It represents the period in which the entire ventricle is depolarized and roughly corresponds to the plateau phase of the ventricular action potential- U wave: It is a small positive wave which may follow the T wave. It represents the last remnants of ventricular repolarization.- Q-T intervalIt represents the time for both ventricular depolarization and repolarization to occur, and therefore roughly estimates the duration of an average ventricular action potential.The interval ranges from 0.2 to 0.4 seconds depending upon heart rate.At high heart rates, ventricular action potentials shorten in duration, which decreases the Q-T interval. Therefore the Q-T interval is expressed as a corrected Q-T (QTc) by taking the Q-T interval and dividing it by the square root of the R-R interval (interval between ventricular depolarizations). This allows an assessment of the Q-T interval that is independent of heart rate.The normal corrected Q-Tc interval is less than 0.44 seconds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      7.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurology And Neurodisability (0/3) 0%
Endocrinology (4/4) 100%
Dermatology (1/2) 50%
Emergency Medicine (1/2) 50%
Paediatric Surgery (1/2) 50%
Child Development (1/5) 20%
Gastroenterology And Hepatology (1/2) 50%
ENT (1/2) 50%
Renal (0/1) 0%
Haematology And Oncology (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular (2/3) 67%
Neonatology (1/1) 100%
Passmed