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  • Question 1 - Parents of a new-born are worried about cot death. What advice will you...

    Incorrect

    • Parents of a new-born are worried about cot death. What advice will you give?

      Your Answer: Reassure

      Correct Answer: Child should sleep on the back with legs towards the end of the cot

      Explanation:

      Cot death also know as SIDS or Sudden Infant Death syndrome. Putting a baby to sleep on his back has been shown to reduce the risk of SIDS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      96
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 3 year old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother...

    Correct

    • A 3 year old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother due to burning micturition, frequency and urgency. She is also experiencing some suprapubic tenderness. Which of the following investigations should be done initially?

      Your Answer: Clean catch of urine for Culture &Sensitivity

      Explanation:

      Urine culture and sensitivity is used to diagnose a urinary tract infection (UTI). A mid-stream clean catch urine sample is the most common type of sample collected. It is important to follow the clean catch process to have accurate results from an uncontaminated sample. Urine cultures can also check for infections of the bladder or kidney.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genitourinary
      48.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 14 year old boy is taken to the emergency room after complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 14 year old boy is taken to the emergency room after complaining of sudden onset of pain in the left hemiscrotum despite not having any other urinary symptoms. The superior pole of the testis is tender on examination and the cremasteric reflex is particularly marked. What would be the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Torsion of the testis

      Correct Answer: Torsion of a testicular hydatid

      Explanation:

      Answer: Torsion of a testicular hydatidThe appendix testis (or hydatid of Morgagni) is a vestigial remnant of the Müllerian duct, present on the upper pole of the testis and attached to the tunica vaginalis. It is present about 90% of the time. The appendix of testis can, occasionally, undergo torsion (i.e. become twisted), causing acute one-sided testicular pain and may require surgical excision to achieve relief. One third of patients present with a palpable blue dot discoloration on the scrotum. This is nearly diagnostic of this condition. If clinical suspicion is high for the serious differential diagnosis of testicular torsion, a surgical exploration of the scrotum is warranted. Torsion of the appendix of testis occurs at ages 0-15 years, with a mean at 10 years, which is similar to that of testicular torsion.Occasionally a torsion of the hydatid of Morgagni can produce symptoms mimicking those created by a testicular torsion| a torsion of the hydatid, however, does not lead to any impairment of testicular function.Absence of the cremasteric reflex is a sign of testicular torsion. This therefore confirms that the diagnosis is Torsion of a testicular hydatid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genitourinary
      80.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 14 year old girl presented with complaints of acne vulgaris over her...

    Incorrect

    • A 14 year old girl presented with complaints of acne vulgaris over her face. The acne is exacerbated during her menstrual period. The most appropriate treatment option would be?

      Your Answer: Topical tetracyclines

      Correct Answer: Topical benzoyl peroxide

      Explanation:

      Topical benzoyl peroxide is used for the treatment of mild to moderate acne vulgaris. It is actually a peeling agent and it clears the pores and reduces the bacterial cell count.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      30.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 15-week-old baby boy is brought to the emergency by his parents due...

    Correct

    • A 15-week-old baby boy is brought to the emergency by his parents due to vomiting and weight loss. Physical examination reveals a central palpable mass in the abdomen. Ultrasound examination shows a pylorus 8mm long and a target sign centrally. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Intussusception

      Explanation:

      Intussusception is a condition in which one segment of intestine telescopes inside of another, causing an intestinal obstruction. Although intussusception can occur anywhere in the gastrointestinal tract, it usually occurs at the junction of the small and large intestines. Most describe the symptoms of intussusception as a triad of colicky abdominal pain, bilious vomiting, and currant jelly stool. The primary symptom of intussusception is described as intermittent crampy abdominal pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      238
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - In males, precocious puberty may be defined as the development of secondary sexual...

    Incorrect

    • In males, precocious puberty may be defined as the development of secondary sexual characteristics before which of the following ages?

      Your Answer: 12 years of age

      Correct Answer: 9 years of age

      Explanation:

      Precocious Puberty is the development of secondary sexual characteristics before the age of 8 in females, and 9 in males. The first sign of early puberty in males is testicular enlargement, followed by growth of the penis and the scrotum at least a year after. Precocious puberty in boys in uncommon and usually has an organic cause leading to excess secretion of testosterone. These can be gonadotrophin dependent in the case of an inter cranial lesion, where the testes would be bilaterally enlarged, or from excess production from the adrenal gland in the case of adrenal hyperplasia or a tumour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      48
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 15-year-old boy, who has a family history of Gilbert's syndrome, presents with...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy, who has a family history of Gilbert's syndrome, presents with signs and symptoms of hepatic dysfunction. Liver function tests reveal raised unconjugated bilirubin levels. Subsequent genetic testing led to a diagnosis of Gilbert's syndrome. What is the reason for the unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia in Gilbert's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Reduced levels of UDP-glucuronosyl transferase-1

      Explanation:

      Gilbert’s syndrome is an autosomal recessive condition that results from defective bilirubin conjugation due to a deficiency of UDP glucuronyl transferase – 1. The prevalence is approximately 1-2% in the general population.The clinical presentation of Gilbert’s syndrome include:- Unconjugated hyperbilinaemia- Jaundice can occur during an intercurrent illnessManagement:Blood investigations usually reveal a rise in bilirubin following prolonged fasting or intravenous nicotinic acid.No treatment required for these patients.Other options:- CYP2C9 deficiency causes reduced warfarin metabolism, and subsequent enhanced drug effects. – Pancreatic disease, cholestasis, excessive alcohol consumption and certain drugs are common causes of raised GGT levels- Defective hepatocyte excretion of conjugated bilirubin is related to the pathophysiology of Dubin-Johnson syndrome- Reduced CYP2C19 levels can lead to the disordered metabolism of clopidogrel and other drugs such as proton-pump inhibitors, anticonvulsants and sedatives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      359.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 15-year-old girl has a 5-day history of fever, general malaise and headache...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl has a 5-day history of fever, general malaise and headache and has developed diffuse raised oedematous papules. These lesions are typical of erythema multiforme. Which one of the following is true?

      Your Answer: The lesions can be distinguished from urticaria as they are normal in the centre

      Correct Answer: The lesions will heal without scarring

      Explanation:

      Erythema multiforme lesions typically heal without scarring. Other options:- In erythema multiforme, lesions are typically symmetrical and acral, i.e. on the hands, feet and limbs. – HSV is a common cause of erythema multiforme in children, accounting for at least 50% of cases| the lesions typically have damaged skin in the centre and are dusky and bullous (in contrast to urticaria, where the centre of the lesion is normal).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      150.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 6 year old presents with fever and multiple vesicles on his back....

    Correct

    • A 6 year old presents with fever and multiple vesicles on his back. What is the single most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: None

      Explanation:

      This clinical picture is typical of chickenpox, which is treated with antihistamines and calamine lotion. In the case of fever, acetaminophen can be used. Generally treatment is purely for symptomatic relief.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      31.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 7-month-old baby girl is admitted with poor feeding and irritability for 2...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-month-old baby girl is admitted with poor feeding and irritability for 2 days. She is lethargic and persistently crying. Urine dipstick showed leucocytes. What is the single most important investigation to arrive at a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: CSF analysis

      Correct Answer: Urine for C&S

      Explanation:

      The clinical presentation and leucocytes on the urine dipstick is suggestive of a urinary tract infection. To confirm the diagnosis, urine should be sent for culture and sensitivity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      332.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Erythema multiforme is NOT associated with which of the following clinical features? ...

    Incorrect

    • Erythema multiforme is NOT associated with which of the following clinical features?

      Your Answer: Target lesions

      Correct Answer: Inflammation of fat cells under the skin

      Explanation:

      Erythema multiforme is a skin rash characterized by the eruption of macules, papules, and target-like lesions. The target or iris lesions appear rounded with a red centre surrounded by a pale ring, which in turn is surrounded by a dark red outer ring. These are acute and self-limiting, mostly appearing on the distal extremities along with palmoplantar involvement. The disease affects the mucous membrane and orbits as well. The most common infectious cause is herpes simplex virus 1 and 2 to a lesser extent. Inflammation of the adipocytes underlying the skin is referred to as erythema nodosum, and it is not a feature of EM.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      160.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 14-day-old baby presented in NICU with the signs and symptoms of hydrocephaly,...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-day-old baby presented in NICU with the signs and symptoms of hydrocephaly, seizures and chorioretinitis. Which of the following infectious agents is most probably the cause in a case like this?

      Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

      Correct Answer: Toxoplasmosis

      Explanation:

      Maternal and fetal toxoplasma infection may be avoided by advising pregnant women to wear gloves when gardening or handling cat litter and to cook meat thoroughly. Affected babies are treated with pyrimethamine, sulfadiazine, and folic acid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      34.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 16-year-old has a right sided aortic arch which is visible on the...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old has a right sided aortic arch which is visible on the echocardiography. Which of the following condition most likely predisposes to this finding?

      Your Answer: Coarctation of the aorta

      Correct Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot

      Explanation:

      Several types of right-sided aortic arch exist, the most common ones being right-sided aortic arch with aberrant left subclavian artery and the mirror-image type. The variant with aberrant left subclavian artery is associated with congenital heart disease in only a small minority of affected people. The mirror-image type of right aortic arch is very strongly associated with congenital heart disease, in most cases tetralogy of Fallot. A right-sided aortic arch does not cause symptoms on itself, and the overwhelming majority of people with the right-sided arch have no other symptoms. However when it is accompanied by other vascular abnormalities, it may form a vascular ring, causing symptoms due to compression of the trachea and/or oesophagus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      44.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A child on 70% O2 suddenly crouches down whilst playing to help with...

    Incorrect

    • A child on 70% O2 suddenly crouches down whilst playing to help with breathing. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Aortic stenosis

      Correct Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot

      Explanation:

      Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF), a congenital heart defect, includes the following: right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defect, abnormal position of the aorta and pulmonary valve stenosis. The O2 saturation in patients with TOF is typically lower than normal and the condition usually becomes symptomatic early in life. A feature of the disease with high diagnostic significance is squatting or crouching of the infant as a compensatory mechanism to increase the peripheral vascular resistance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      189.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A well 2-week-old baby born at term is referred to hospital with a...

    Incorrect

    • A well 2-week-old baby born at term is referred to hospital with a discharging umbilicus. The cord separated at 10 days and there is no peri-umbilical swelling or erythema. There is a small red mass at the site of cord separation, which is discharging a small amount of yellow fluid. The GP had taken a swab of this which grew Staphylococcus epidermidis.The MOST appropriate course of action is which of the following?

      Your Answer: Treat with intravenous antibiotics

      Correct Answer: Reassure parents and review in 1–2 weeks

      Explanation:

      The baby most likely has umbilical granuloma – granulation tissue may persist at the base of the umbilicus after cord separation| the tissue is composed of fibroblasts and capillaries and can grow to more than 1 cm.Medical therapy is indicated only when an infection is present.Silver nitrate application to umbilical granulomas is usually successful. One or more applications may be needed. Care must be taken to avoid contact with the skin. Silver nitrate can cause painful burns. Small umbilical granulomas with a narrow base may be safely excised in the office setting. Large granulomas and those growing in response to an umbilical fistula or sinus do not resolve with silver nitrate and must be surgically excised in the operating room setting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      45.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Out of 30 children who are exposed to a chemical, 15 develop a...

    Correct

    • Out of 30 children who are exposed to a chemical, 15 develop a disorder, compared to only 1 child out of 10 developing the same disorder who were not exposed.The following can be deduced from this information:

      Your Answer: The relative risk of exposure to the chemical is 5

      Explanation:

      Relative risk is the probability of an outcome occurring in an exposed group as compared to the probability of that outcome in an unexposed group. In the scenario given, 50% of the children exposed developed the disease while only 10% of the children who were unexposed developed the disease. The relative risk was therefore 50/10=5. There is no further information about whether the study was controlled, the confidence interval, or the type of study. It therefore cannot be confirmed whether the chemical is causative and if it should be avoided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      49.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 16-year-old girl presents to her OBGYN after getting pregnant. It is evaluated...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl presents to her OBGYN after getting pregnant. It is evaluated that she is 13 days pregnant and the fetal tissue has just undergone implantation. Where in the uterus does implantation usually take place?

      Your Answer: Anterior or superior walls

      Explanation:

      Time and EventWeek 1: ImplantationWeek 2: Formation of bilaminar diskWeek 3: Formation of primitive streakFormation of notochordGastrulationWeek 4: Limb buds begin to formNeural tube closesHeart begins to beatWeek 10: Genitals are differentiated

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      51.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the given statements is characteristic of meningomyeloceles? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the given statements is characteristic of meningomyeloceles?

      Your Answer: A cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak is common

      Explanation:

      Myelomeningocele is the most common type of open neural tube defect and a serious central nervous system disorder associated with significant morbidity. It is also called open spina bifida since the dura, and arachnoid matter herniates through the defect in the vertebral column. The commonest association is the decreased folate levels during early pregnancy. The alpha-fetoprotein levels are raised in the amniotic fluid. CSF leak is a common presentation with associated macrocephaly and hydrocephaly. Prenatal surgical repair is linked to a better prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      49.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A neonate was delivered 24 hours ago at the gestational age of 29...

    Incorrect

    • A neonate was delivered 24 hours ago at the gestational age of 29 weeks. His birth weight was recorded to be 1 kg. Due to his critical state, the baby was intubated and ventilated. Prior to his intubation, the baby was managed with CPAP, but he seemed to get exhausted. He is now on SiMV (spontaneous intermittent mechanical ventilation). The ventilator settings are as follows: targeted tidal volume 9 ml, maximum PIP 30, PEEP 5, rate 40/min, FiO2 0.3. Baby's oxygen saturations are 93%. Blood gas shows pH 7.41, CO2 3.9 kPa, BE -4. Which of the following changes need to be made to the ventilator settings initially?

      Your Answer: Increase FiO2

      Correct Answer: Decrease targeted tidal volume

      Explanation:

      Synchronized IMV (SIMV) with pressure support, used in the alert infant. SIMV guarantees a minimum minute volume while allowing the patient to trigger spontaneousbreaths at a rate and volume determined by the patient. Extra breaths are boosted with pressure support. Tidal Volume (Vt) is normally approximately 6-10 mL/kg and 4-6 ml/kg in the preterm.Respiratory rate (RR) is usually 30-60 BPM. Tidal volume and respiratory rate are relatedto respiratory minute volume as follows: Vm(mL/min) = Vt x RR .This baby is overventilated with a low CO2. Tidal volumes should generally be targeted at 4–6 ml/kg and this baby is being targeted at 9 ml/kg which exposes the baby to damage to the distal airways from this ventilation which can lead to bronchopulmonary dysplasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      223
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - During the excision of the submandibular salivary gland, which one of the following...

    Incorrect

    • During the excision of the submandibular salivary gland, which one of the following nerves is at risk of injury as the duct is mobilised?

      Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal

      Correct Answer: Lingual nerve

      Explanation:

      The lingual nerve wraps around Wharton’s duct, and thus, is at risk of injury as the submandibular gland is mobilised. The lingual nerve provides sensory supply to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue.Note:- Submandibular duct (Wharton’s duct): It opens lateral to the lingual frenulum on the anterior floor of the mouth. It is around 5 cm in length.- Lingual nerve wraps around Wharton’s duct. As the duct passes forwards, it crosses medial to the nerve, above it and then crosses back, lateral to it, to reach a position below the nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 15-day old male baby was brought to the emergency department with sweating...

    Correct

    • A 15-day old male baby was brought to the emergency department with sweating and his lips turning blue while feeding. He was born full term. On examination, his temperature was 37.9°C, blood pressure 75/45 mmHg, pulse was 175/min, and respiratory rate was 42/min. A harsh systolic ejection murmur could be heard at the left upper sternal border. X-ray chest showed small, boot-shaped heart with decreased pulmonary vascular markings. He most likely has:

      Your Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot

      Explanation:

      The most common congenital cyanotic heart disease and the most common cause of blue baby syndrome, Tetralogy of Fallot shows four cardiac malformations occurring together. These are ventricular septal defect (VSD), pulmonary stenosis (right ventricular outflow obstruction), overriding aorta (degree of which is variable), and right ventricular hypertrophy. The primary determinant of severity of disease is the degree of pulmonary stenosis. Tetralogy of Fallot is seen in 3-6 per 10,000 births and is responsible for 5-7% congenital heart defects, with slightly higher incidence in males. It has also been associated with chromosome 22 deletions and DiGeorge syndrome. It gives rise to right-to-left shunt leading to poor oxygenation of blood. Primary symptom is low oxygen saturation in the blood with or without cyanosis at birth of within first year of life. Affected children ay develop acute severe cyanosis or ‘tet spells’ (sudden, marked increase in cyanosis, with syncope, and may result in hypoxic brain injury and death). Other symptoms include heart murmur, failure to gain weight, poor development, clubbing, dyspnoea on exertion and polycythaemia. Chest X-ray reveals characteristic coeur-en-sabot (boot-shaped) appearance of the heart. Treatment consists of immediate care for cyanotic spells and Blalock–Taussig shunt (BT shunt) followed by corrective surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      51.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - In which of the following ethnic backgrounds are Mongolian blue spots most likely...

    Correct

    • In which of the following ethnic backgrounds are Mongolian blue spots most likely to be found?

      Your Answer: White European

      Explanation:

      Mongolian spots are, hyper-pigmented, non-blanching patches present on the back and gluteal region at birth. They are commonly found in African and Asian ethnic groups, and can also present in infants of Mediterranean and middle eastern descent. Though the spots usually disappear by puberty, some may persist into adulthood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which is not true relating to growth in the normal child? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is not true relating to growth in the normal child?

      Your Answer: Birthweight is doubled by 5 months

      Correct Answer: Full growth hormone responsiveness develops in puberty

      Explanation:

      Most healthy infants and children grow predictably, following a typical pattern of progression in weight, length, and head circumference. Normal human growth is pulsatile| periods of rapid growth (growth spurts) are separated by periods of no measurable growth Growth hormone levels and responsiveness’ develop in late infancy, increase during childhood and peak during puberty.Typical milestones — General guidelines regarding length or height gain during infancy and childhood include the following:- The average length at birth for a term infant is 20 inches (50 cm)- Infants grow 10 inches (25 cm) during the first year of life- Toddlers grow 4 inches (10 cm) between 12 and 24 months, 3 inches (7.5 cm) between 24 and 36 months, and 3 inches (7.5 cm) between 36 and 48 months- Children reach one-half of their adult height by 24 to 30 months- Children grow 2 inches per year (5 cm per year) between age four years and puberty- There is a normal deceleration of height velocity before the pubertal growth spurt.Growth continues past pubertal growth spurt as there is increase in spinal length.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      30.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - What is the average age that puberty starts in boys? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the average age that puberty starts in boys?

      Your Answer: 10 years

      Correct Answer: 12 years

      Explanation:

      Puberty is when a child’s body begins to develop and change as they become an adult.The average age for girls to begin puberty is 11, while for boys the average age is 12.It’s completely normal for puberty to begin at any point from the ages of 8 to 14. The process can take up to 4 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A mother and her 2 year old girl is referred to a paediatrician...

    Incorrect

    • A mother and her 2 year old girl is referred to a paediatrician on account of concerns over a possible squint. On examination the doctor uses a pen torch to assess the symmetry of the light reflex on each cornea. The following test was used to assess the child:

      Your Answer: Bruckner test

      Correct Answer: Hirschberg test

      Explanation:

      In the Hirschberg test, the corneal reflex should fall in the same place in both eyes. If there is a malalignment then the reflection of the light will appear in different places in the two eyes. The cover test is then used to differentiate between a latent deviation, or a manifest deviation.In the Bruckner test, the direct ophthalmoscope is used to obtain a red reflex simultaneously in both eyes. If strabismus is present, the deviated eye will have a lighter and brighter reflex than the fixating eye.The swinging flashlight test is a test of the pupils response to light, and to check for a relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD).The Angle Kappa test measures the angle between the line of sight and the corneal-pupillary axis. It is a monocular measurement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      30.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following conditions do NOT result in polyuria? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions do NOT result in polyuria?

      Your Answer: Acute tubular necrosis

      Correct Answer: Hyperkalaemia

      Explanation:

      Polyuria is defined as a total increase in the urine output or > 2L/m2 of daily urine produced in children. Polyuria can be a symptom of a vast number of medical conditions. The commonest and most important disease having polyuria as the main symptom is diabetes mellitus. Nephrogenic and central diabetes insipidus also results in polyuria along with polydipsia. Other conditions that lead to an increase in the urine output are renal failure, acute tubular necrosis, and exposure to high altitude. Hyperkalaemia does not result in polyuria| rather hypokalaemia can be an associated finding with polyuria in the case of diuretic abuse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      27.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A female presents to obstetric triage at 24 weeks with cramping pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A female presents to obstetric triage at 24 weeks with cramping pain and is threatening preterm labour. The parents would like to know the statistics relating to survival and outcome if their baby is born at this gestation. Which particular study would be useful to review before this consultation?

      Your Answer: OSCAR Xe

      Correct Answer: EPICURE

      Explanation:

      EPICure is a series of studies of survival and later health among babies and young people who were born at extremely low gestations – from 22 to 26 weeks.Boost II is a double-blind randomised controlled trial (RCT) comparing the effects of targeting arterial oxygen saturations between 85% and 89% versus 91% and 95% in preterm infants.OSCAR Xe is not the name of a study. Baby-OSCAR is an RCT to determine whether a confirmed large patent ductus arteriosus in very premature babies should be treated with ibuprofen within 72 hours of birth.SafeBoosC is a trial to examine if it is possible to stabilise the cerebral oxygenation of extremely preterm infants in the first 72 hours of life with the use of NIRS oximetry and a clinical treatment guideline. TOBY Xe is an RCT looking at the neuroprotective effects of hypothermia combined with inhaled xenon following perinatal asphyxia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 16-year-old female presents to the physician with nausea, vomiting and abdominal swelling....

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old female presents to the physician with nausea, vomiting and abdominal swelling. Physical examination also reveals digital clubbing and linea nigra on her abdomen. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ovarian cyst

      Correct Answer: Pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Clinical signs of early pregnancy-Amenorrhoea-Nausea and vomiting -Breast enlargement and tenderness -Hyperpigmentation of the areola and formation of linea nigra: Most likely due to increased levels of melanocyte-stimulating hormone produced by the placenta -Increased urinary frequency-Fatigue-Cravings for or aversions to certain foods-Abdominal bloating and constipation

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - The following is a sleep-related hormone released in an intermittent manner: ...

    Correct

    • The following is a sleep-related hormone released in an intermittent manner:

      Your Answer: Prolactin

      Explanation:

      Hormones can be secreted in a number of different ways, thus plasma levels of each may vary throughout the day. Many of these exhibit intermittent secretion related to sleep (growth hormone, and prolactin), while others are released based on circadian rhythms (cortisol). Some are released in a pulsatile fashion throughout the day such as FSH, LH, Thyroxine, while others are stress related like cortisol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the foetal abnormalities given below leads to oligohydramnios? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the foetal abnormalities given below leads to oligohydramnios?

      Your Answer: Foetal hydrops

      Correct Answer: A single umbilical artery

      Explanation:

      An important predictor of the foetal well-being is the evaluation of amniotic fluid volumes, commonly done using ultrasonography. Amniotic fluid index (AFI) is calculated by measuring the largest vertical diameter of the fluid pocket in all four quadrants of the uterine cavity and then added together. Oligohydramnios or decreased amniotic fluid volume can be defined as an AFI less than 5cm and occurs in about 4-5% of the pregnancies. It is associated with a number of foetal abnormalities and complications. Foetal abnormalities that lead to oligohydramnios include: premature rupture of membranes, intrauterine growth retardation, and congenital foetal abnormalities among others. A single umbilical artery is an anatomical defect of the umbilical cord, which leads to IUGR, uteroplacental insufficiency and may be associated with multiple congenital abnormalities as well, which all ultimately lead to the development of oligohydramnios. Foetal hydrops, developmental dysplasia of the hip and, macrosomia lead to polyhydramnios. Cleft palate is not associated with any of them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      9.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neonatology (2/7) 29%
Genitourinary (1/2) 50%
Dermatology (1/4) 25%
Paediatric Surgery (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (1/4) 25%
Infectious Diseases (1/2) 50%
Microbiology (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular (1/3) 33%
Epidemiology And Statistics (1/1) 100%
Neurology And Neurodisability (1/1) 100%
ENT (0/1) 0%
Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
Nephro-urology (0/1) 0%
Adolescent Health (0/1) 0%
Passmed