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  • Question 1 - In most somatic cells telomeres progressively shorten as: ...

    Incorrect

    • In most somatic cells telomeres progressively shorten as:

      Your Answer: The host ages

      Correct Answer: The cell divides

      Explanation:

      Telomerase activity is seen in germ cells and is absent in somatic cells. A somatic cell is any biological cell forming the body of an organism, other than a gamete, germ cell, gametocyte or undifferentiated stem cell. i.e. liver cells. Telomeres prevent the chromosomes from shortening and prevent the coding portion of the DNA from being lost, thus allowing the cell to replicate indefinitely. During replication telomeres may be lost resulting in cell death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - “Ploidy” is a term used to refer to the number of chromosomes in...

    Correct

    • “Ploidy” is a term used to refer to the number of chromosomes in cells. Cancer cells are commonly:

      Your Answer: Aneuploidy

      Explanation:

      Cancer cells most commonly undergo disordered cell growth and cell division. This results in an additional number of chromosomes called aneuploidy. This is a characteristic of cancer cells along with variation in differentiation of the cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      159.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Southern Blotting and DNA probes: ...

    Correct

    • Southern Blotting and DNA probes:

      Your Answer: DNA fragments are separated by gel electrophoresis and transferred onto membrane sheets in southern blotting

      Explanation:

      A Southern blot is a method used in molecular biology for detection of a specific DNA sequence in DNA samples. Southern blotting combines transfer of electrophoresis-separated DNA fragments to a filter membrane and subsequent fragment detection by probe hybridization. The other forms of blotting involve the use of RNA and proteins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following are true when it comes to tumour suppressor genes:...

    Correct

    • Which of the following are true when it comes to tumour suppressor genes:

      Your Answer: All of the options are true

      Explanation:

      All of the above mentioned statements are true regarding tumour suppressor genes. Tumour suppressor genes generally follow the two-hit hypothesis, which implies that both alleles that code for a particular protein must be affected before an effect is manifested.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      27.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following is true for P53: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true for P53:

      Your Answer: It binds e2f and stops the cell cycle at the g 1 phase

      Correct Answer: It is induced by ‘broken’ DNA

      Explanation:

      P53 gene is activated as a result of damaged DNA and if that cannot be repaired then it activates apoptosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is the protective hexametric sequence at the ends of chromosomes called? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the protective hexametric sequence at the ends of chromosomes called?

      Your Answer: Intron

      Correct Answer: Telomere

      Explanation:

      Telomeres are non coding DNA plus proteins that are found at the end of the linear chromosomes. They maintain the integrity of the chromosomes and prevent their shortening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Mutation in RB can lead to the formation of which cancer? ...

    Correct

    • Mutation in RB can lead to the formation of which cancer?

      Your Answer: Retinoblastoma

      Explanation:

      Patients with a history of autosomal dominant familial retinoblastoma have at least one mutated copy of the RB gene. This predisposes the patient to develop retinoblastoma in one or both the eyes. Patients with a family history should be screened properly so that it can be detected and treated as early as possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following is true for P 53: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is true for P 53:

      Your Answer: It is induced by ‘broken’ DNA

      Explanation:

      All of the above mentioned statements are true regarding tumour suppressor genes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which part of the chromosome plays a role in preserving its integrity and...

    Incorrect

    • Which part of the chromosome plays a role in preserving its integrity and stability?

      Your Answer: Centromere

      Correct Answer: Telomere

      Explanation:

      Telomeres are non coding DNA plus proteins that are found at the end of the linear chromosomes. They maintain the integrity of the chromosomes and prevent their shortening

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Regarding Southern Blotting and DNA probes, which answer is FALSE ...

    Correct

    • Regarding Southern Blotting and DNA probes, which answer is FALSE

      Your Answer: RNA fragments are separated by gel electrophoresis and transferred onto membrane sheets in southern blotting

      Explanation:

      Restriction enzymes always cut at different positions. There are different restriction endonucleases for different nucleotide sequences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Three adjacent nucleotides code for a particular amino acid. These are called codons....

    Incorrect

    • Three adjacent nucleotides code for a particular amino acid. These are called codons. How many common amino acids are there and how many potential codon combinations make up the genetic code?

      Your Answer: 12 amino acids, 64 codon combinations

      Correct Answer: 20 amino acids, 64 codon combinations

      Explanation:

      There are around 20 amino acids and 61 out of the 64 combinations of codon code for these 20 common amino acids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      36.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Regarding DNA cloning and sequencing, all of the following are true, except: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding DNA cloning and sequencing, all of the following are true, except:

      Your Answer: Yeast artificial chromosomes ( yacs) are vectors

      Explanation:

      Yeast chromosomes cannot be used as a vector. All the rest are true. Vectors can be bacteria, viruses and plasmids. DNA ligase binds the DNA fragment to the host DNA after insertion. Fluorescence can be used to visualize them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Defects in chromosomal structure (and examples) include those mentioned below except: ...

    Correct

    • Defects in chromosomal structure (and examples) include those mentioned below except:

      Your Answer: Lyonization (x-linked disorders)

      Explanation:

      All are true except for A) Lyonization which is the inactivation of the X chromosomes in a female. It is not a chromosomal abnormality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      42.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - In meiosis, the period of prophase 1 involves: ...

    Correct

    • In meiosis, the period of prophase 1 involves:

      Your Answer: Replicated DNA condensing to form visible chromosomes

      Explanation:

      Prophase 1 has been divided into five different stages (laptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene and diakinesis). In prophase 1, chromosomes are going to condense to become visible, each chromosome will contain two chromatids that are joined at the centromere.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      41
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - In which stage of mitosis are the chromosomes most obvious or prominent? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which stage of mitosis are the chromosomes most obvious or prominent?

      Your Answer: Prophase

      Correct Answer: Metaphase

      Explanation:

      Prophase begins when the nucleus envelope disintegrates and the chromosomes start to condense. The chromosomes consist of two sister chromatids that are joined at a constriction known as centromere. When the cell reaches the metaphase the chromosomes are completely condensed and ready to align on the equatorial plate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Telomerase is active in all of the following cells, except: ...

    Incorrect

    • Telomerase is active in all of the following cells, except:

      Your Answer: Certain osteoblasts

      Correct Answer: Certain liver cells

      Explanation:

      Telomerase is an enzyme that adds repetitive nucleotide sequences to the ends of chromosomes (telomeres), preventing their shortening during cell division. Telomerase activity is crucial for cells that divide frequently and need to maintain their telomere length for continued proliferation. These include:

      • Stem cells: They have high telomerase activity to maintain their long-term proliferative capacity.
      • Germ cells: These cells also have active telomerase to ensure the stability of genetic material across generations.
      • Certain white blood cells: Some immune cells, particularly those that need to proliferate in response to infection, show telomerase activity.
      • Certain cancer cells: Many cancer cells reactivate telomerase, which contributes to their uncontrolled growth and immortality.

      However, most somatic cells, including certain liver cells, do not exhibit significant telomerase activity. While some liver cells might show low levels of telomerase activity during regeneration, it is not generally active in normal, differentiated liver cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following is not true regarding mitochondrial chromosome disorders? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not true regarding mitochondrial chromosome disorders?

      Your Answer: Because mitochondrial chromosomes have no introns in their genes, any point mutation has a low likelihood of having an effect.

      Explanation:

      Any point mutation in any part of the mitochondrial DNA will lead to a mutated mitochondria and will likewise have its ill effect on the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      89
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which statement about X linked dominant disorders is FALSE? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement about X linked dominant disorders is FALSE?

      Your Answer: Heterozygous females tend to have the disease more severely than affected males.

      Explanation:

      Women who have the affected X chromosome will be affected, but the severity will be less than that in males as they have a normal X chromosome to counter the effect of the mutated X chromosome. Affected males will pass on the defect to their daughters 100% of the time but not to their sons.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      88.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following with regard to DNA mutations does not fit: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following with regard to DNA mutations does not fit:

      Your Answer: All gene mutations cause clinical disease entities

      Explanation:

      All gene mutations do not cause a clinical manifestation of the disease, some gene mutations are silent mutations. They are present but do not cause any disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The process whereby DNA fragments are separated by size and charge is called:...

    Correct

    • The process whereby DNA fragments are separated by size and charge is called:

      Your Answer: Gel electrophoresis

      Explanation:

      Fragments of DNA of varying length can be separated on the basis of their charge and their size by a process called gel electrophoresis. Because DNA contains negatively charged phosphate groups, it will migrate in an electric field toward the positive electrode. Shorter chains migrate more rapidly through the pores of the gel, and thus separation depends on length. DNA bands in the gel can be visualized by various techniques including staining with dyes and autoradiography.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Immortality can result from over expression of which enzyme? ...

    Incorrect

    • Immortality can result from over expression of which enzyme?

      Your Answer: Reverse transcriptase

      Correct Answer: Telomerase

      Explanation:

      Telomerase activity is seen in germ cells and is absent in somatic cells. Telomeres prevent the chromosomes from shortening and prevent the coding portion of the DNA from being lost, thus allowing the cell to replicate indefinitely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - During which stage does the mitotic apparatus dissolute? ...

    Correct

    • During which stage does the mitotic apparatus dissolute?

      Your Answer: Telophase

      Explanation:

      In telophase the nuclear envelope along with the nucleolus will reappear. The daughter nuclei will enlarge as the chromosome will decondense again. Along with this, cytokinesis will occur. At the end of cytokinesis the daughter centrioles will move from the poles to the intercellular bridge where they will be disassembled and complete the separation of the daughter cells

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - The process by which RNA fragments are separated by gel electrophoresis and transferred...

    Correct

    • The process by which RNA fragments are separated by gel electrophoresis and transferred onto a membrane sheet is called:

      Your Answer: Northern blotting

      Explanation:

      Blots of the gel can be made from using nitrocellulose paper. Northern blots are produced when a fragment of radioactive DNA hybridize with RNA on a nitrocellulose blot of a gel and southern blots are produced when DNA hybrize with DNA on a nitrocellulose blot of the gel.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Normal eukaryote somatic cells have: ...

    Incorrect

    • Normal eukaryote somatic cells have:

      Your Answer: 46 pairs of chromosomes

      Correct Answer: 23 pairs of chromosomes

      Explanation:

      A normal somatic eukaryotic cell contains 46 chromosomes i.e. 23 pairs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      34.3
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - At the end of which phase will P53 halt the cell cycle? ...

    Correct

    • At the end of which phase will P53 halt the cell cycle?

      Your Answer: G1 phase

      Explanation:

      P53 regulates the cell cycle. It regulates the progression from G1 to S phase

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - In RFLP (restriction fragment length polymorphism), the DNA fragments are separated by length...

    Correct

    • In RFLP (restriction fragment length polymorphism), the DNA fragments are separated by length through a process known as:

      Your Answer: Agarose gel electrophoresis

      Explanation:

      Samples of DNA from individuals are broken into pieces by restriction enzymes and the fragments are separated according to their lengths via gel electrophoresis. Although now largely obsolete due to the rise of inexpensive DNA sequencing technologies, RFLP analysis was the first DNA profiling technique inexpensive enough to see widespread application.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following statements is not true about mitochondrial chromosomes? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is not true about mitochondrial chromosomes?

      Your Answer: Encode proteins that are critical to the process of apoptosis

      Correct Answer: Mitochondrial chromosomes play no role in the transmission of disease from generation to generation.

      Explanation:

      All the above mentioned statements are true except that mitochondrial DNA is passed from the mother to the child. If the child inherits the defective mitochondrial gene it will manifest some form of the disease. Commonly inherited diseases related to mitochondrial abnormality are Leber hereditary optic neuropathy and myoclonic epilepsy with ragged red fibers (MERRF).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      60.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Regarding restriction fragment length polymorphisms (RFLP) and Gene Knockout Mouse Models. All are...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding restriction fragment length polymorphisms (RFLP) and Gene Knockout Mouse Models. All are true except:

      Your Answer: Sequence changes involved in RFLP can be analysed more quickly by PCR.

      Correct Answer: In knockout mouse models a gene is turned on through targeted mutation

      Explanation:

      In RFLP, polymorphism occurs in 98% of the non coding genome, resulting in no phenotypical change in the organism. A gene is not turned on by a mutation, rather the mutation at the restriction site will alter the DNA and the DNA will now form fragments of different lengths. PCR is a better technique than RFLP.

      A knockout, as related to genomics, refers to the use of genetic engineering to inactivate or remove one or more specific genes from an organism. Scientists create knockout organisms to study the impact of removing a gene from an organism, which often allows them to then learn something about that gene’s function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      47.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - The process of DNA amplification and quantification is called: ...

    Correct

    • The process of DNA amplification and quantification is called:

      Your Answer: PCR

      Explanation:

      PCR/polymerase chain reaction is a procedure carried out in a test tube that can be used on the smallest amount of DNA to amplify it, allowing for millions of copies of specific nucleotides to be made.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - In DNA cloning and sequencing, the bases in nucleotides chains are bound together...

    Correct

    • In DNA cloning and sequencing, the bases in nucleotides chains are bound together by:

      Your Answer: Hydrogen bonding.

      Explanation:

      Nucleotides will always bind together via hydrogen bonds. There are two hydrogen bonds present between thymine and adenine and three hydrogen bonds present between guanine and cytosine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      7.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Genetics (19/30) 63%
Medicine (19/30) 63%
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