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  • Question 1 - With regards to P53, which statement is NOT true? ...

    Incorrect

    • With regards to P53, which statement is NOT true?

      Your Answer: Mutations in P53 have been found in almost all tumours

      Correct Answer: P53 is a RNA binding protein

      Explanation:

      P53 is a tumour suppressor gene. It is not an RNA binding protein. It has been implicated in almost all tumours. It regulates the progression from G1 to the S phase of the cell cycle and is activated in response to damaged DNA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      10.9
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - The enzyme located on the brush border of the small intestine activating the...

    Incorrect

    • The enzyme located on the brush border of the small intestine activating the proteolytic enzymes for further digestion of proteins is called?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Enterokinase

      Explanation:

      Enterokinase is a brush border enzyme of the duodenum that activates proteolytic enzymes for further digestion of proteins. Trypsinogen is converted to trypsin by the action of enterokinase. Trypsin and chymotrypsin are secreted by the pancreatic acinar cells and are enzymes that aid in protein digestion. Pepsin is secreted by chief cells of the gastric mucosa. Procarboxydase is the inactive form of carboxypeptidase which is converted to its active form by trypsin and is secreted by pancreatic acinar cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - The oligosaccharidases responsible for further digestion of starch after breakdown by the above...

    Incorrect

    • The oligosaccharidases responsible for further digestion of starch after breakdown by the above mentioned enzymes is located where?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Brush border of small intestine

      Explanation:

      The final step in digestion of carbohydrates, which is conversion of disaccharides to absorbable monosaccharides occurs on the small intestinal epithelial cells. The enzymes responsible for this final stage of digestion are not freely found in the intestinal lumen, but they are found as integral membrane proteins in the plasma membrane of the epithelial cell. The apical plasma membrane of the intestinal epithelial cell has numerous microvilli known as the brush border. Thus, the enzymes embedded in those microvilli are referred to as brush border enzymes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - The majority striatal neurons, called medium spiny neurons, utilizes which neurotransmitter? ...

    Incorrect

    • The majority striatal neurons, called medium spiny neurons, utilizes which neurotransmitter?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: GABA

      Explanation:

      Medium spiny neurons are inhibitory neurons which use GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid) which exerts inhibitory actions. These cells represent 95% of neurones within the human striatum found in basal ganglia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - The largest energy reserves among both lean and obese subjects are from? ...

    Incorrect

    • The largest energy reserves among both lean and obese subjects are from?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fatty acids

      Explanation:

      The energy required for sustained exercise is provided by the oxidation of two fuels, glucose stored as glycogen in the liver and muscle, and long-chain fatty acids, stored as adipose tissue triglycerides. The latter provides the largest energy reserve in the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - Which receptor type is associated with bronchial muscle relaxation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which receptor type is associated with bronchial muscle relaxation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: β2

      Explanation:

      β2-adrenoceptors are widely distributed in the respiratory tract. When they are activated, an intracellular response induces the activation of cyclic AMP; this, in turn, produces airway relaxation through phosphorylation of muscle regulatory proteins and modification of cellular Ca2+concentrations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - The residual cleft of the intermediate lobe of the pituitary is lined by...

    Incorrect

    • The residual cleft of the intermediate lobe of the pituitary is lined by follicles resembling which human gland?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyroid

      Explanation:

      The cells located between the two main pituitary lobes form what is known as the intermediate pituitary. This area secretes melanocyte-stimulating hormone and it is only a few cell layers thick. It is rich in follicles filled with colloid, and lined by basophilic cells. This configuration resembles that of another important gland: the thyroid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - In the life cycle of plasmodium species: ...

    Incorrect

    • In the life cycle of plasmodium species:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Merozoites are released from the liver and enter the red blood cell

      Explanation:

      Plasmodium is a genus of parasitic protozoa, many of which cause malaria in their hosts. The parasite always has two hosts in its life cycle: a Dipteran insect host and a vertebrate host. Sexual reproduction always occurs in the insect, making it the definitive host.The life-cycles of Plasmodium species involve several different stages both in the insect and the vertebrate host. These stages include sporozoites, which are injected by the insect vector into the vertebrate host’s blood. Sporozoites infect the host liver, giving rise to merozoites and (in some species) hypnozoites. These move into the blood where they infect red blood cells. In the red blood cells, the parasites can either form more merozoites to infect more red blood cells, or produce gametocytes which are taken up by insects which feed on the vertebrate host. In the insect host, gametocytes merge to sexually reproduce. After sexual reproduction, parasites grow into new sporozoites, which move to the insect’s salivary glands, from which they can infect a vertebrate host bitten by the insect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 9 - Which one of these features is typical of dermatomyositis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of these features is typical of dermatomyositis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gottron's papules over knuckles of fingers

      Explanation:

      Dermatomyositis is a long-term inflammatory disorder which affects muscles. Its symptoms are generally a skin rash and worsening muscle weakness in the proximal muscles (for example, the shoulders and thighs) over time. These may occur suddenly or develop over months. Other symptoms may include weight loss, fever, lung inflammation, or light sensitivity. Complications may include calcium deposits in muscles or skin.The skin rash may manifest as aheliotrope (a purplish color) or lilac, but may also be red. It can occur around the eyes along with swelling, as well as the upper chest or back ( shawl sign) or V-sign above the breasts and may also occur on the face, upper arms, thighs, or hands. Another form the rash takes is called Gottron’s sign which are red or violet, sometimes scaly, slightly raised papules that erupt on any of the finger joints (the metacarpophalangeal joints or the interphalangeal joints)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - A patient who has recently been diagnosed with SLE undergoes serum testing. A...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who has recently been diagnosed with SLE undergoes serum testing. A rise in which of the following antibodies would indicate severe systemic involvement?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti double-stranded DNA antibodies

      Explanation:

      Anti ds-DNA antibodies are very specific for SLE and their presence most often indicates systemic spread of the disease. These antibodies are present in about 30 percent of the total cases of SLE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 11 - Presence of which of the following indicates a worse prognosis in rheumatoid arthritis?...

    Incorrect

    • Presence of which of the following indicates a worse prognosis in rheumatoid arthritis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-CCP antibodies

      Explanation:

      Rheumatoid arthritis is both common and chronic, with significant consequences for multiple organ systems. Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) antibody testing is particularly useful in the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis, with high specificity, presence early in the disease process, and ability to identify patients who are likely to have severe disease and irreversible damage. However, its sensitivity is low, and a negative result does not exclude disease. Anti-CCP antibodies have not been found at a significant frequency in other diseases to date, and are more specific than rheumatoid factor for detecting rheumatoid arthritis. The other factors that are mentioned do not play a key prognostic role.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 12 - A 40-year-old man is admitted to the Emergency Department in a confused state....

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man is admitted to the Emergency Department in a confused state. He tells you that he consumed two bottles of antifreeze. On examination, his pulse is 120 bpm and blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg. An arterial blood gas analysis shows uncompensated metabolic acidosis. He is transferred to the high dependency unit and ethanol is given via a nasogastric tube. How does ethanol help this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Competes with ethylene glycol for alcohol dehydrogenase

      Explanation:

      Ethanol competes with ethylene glycol for alcohol dehydrogenase and thus, helps manage a patient with ethylene glycol toxicity.Ethylene glycol is a type of alcohol used as a coolant or antifreezeFeatures of toxicity are divided into 3 stages:Stage 1: (30 min to 12 hours after exposure) Symptoms similar to alcohol intoxication: confusion, slurred speech, dizziness (CNS depression)Stage 2: (12 – 48 hours after exposure) Metabolic acidosis with a high anion gap and high osmolar gap. Also tachycardia, hypertensionStage 3: (24 – 72 hours after exposure) Acute renal failureManagement has changed in recent times:Fomepizole, an inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase, is now used first-line in preference to ethanol.Ethanol has been used for many years works by competing with ethylene glycol for the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase this limits the formation of toxic metabolites (e.g. glycolaldehyde and glycolic acid) which are responsible for the hemodynamic/metabolic features of poisoning.Haemodialysis has a role in refractory cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 13 - Choose the correct statement. The cells of the liver… ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the correct statement. The cells of the liver…

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Help to maintain the normal blood glucose level.

      Explanation:

      Synthesis of vitamin D3 takes place in both the liver and in the kidneys. The liver is responsible for an intermediate step and final synthesis takes place in the kidneys. Immunoglobulins are manufactured by plasma cells in respective organs where there is antigen exposure. The liver plays a major role in maintaining blood glucose levels by converting excess glucose to glycogen and converting glycogen back to glucose in time of need. Hepatocytes have enzymes that can deactivate steroid hormones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 14 - Mutation in RB can lead to the formation of which cancer? ...

    Incorrect

    • Mutation in RB can lead to the formation of which cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Retinoblastoma

      Explanation:

      Patients with a history of autosomal dominant familial retinoblastoma have at least one mutated copy of the RB gene. This predisposes the patient to develop retinoblastoma in one or both the eyes. Patients with a family history should be screened properly so that it can be detected and treated as early as possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 15 - The breakdown of superoxide is catalysed by which enzyme? ...

    Incorrect

    • The breakdown of superoxide is catalysed by which enzyme?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superoxide dismutase

      Explanation:

      As superoxide is toxic, nearly all organisms living in the presence of oxygen contain isoforms of the superoxide-scavenging enzyme superoxide dismutase, or SOD. SOD is an extremely efficient enzyme; it catalyses the neutralization of superoxide nearly as quickly as the two can diffuse together spontaneously in solution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 16 - Regarding integrins, which option is false? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding integrins, which option is false?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Play no role in cell signalling.

      Explanation:

      Integrins are transmembrane receptors that facilitate cell-extracellular matrix (ECM) adhesion. Upon ligand binding, integrins activate signal transduction pathways that mediate cellular signals such as regulation of the cell cycle, organization of the intracellular cytoskeleton, and movement of new receptors to the cell membrane. Integrins are obligate heterodimers, meaning that they have two subunits: α (alpha) and β (beta). Integrins play an important role in cell signalling by modulating the cell signalling pathways of transmembrane protein kinases such as receptor tyrosine kinases (RTK).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 17 - What is the function of gap junctions? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the function of gap junctions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diffusion of small molecules between neighbouring cells

      Explanation:

      Gap junctions are a specialized intercellular connection between a multitude of cell-types. They directly connect the cytoplasm of two cells, which allows various molecules, ions and electrical impulses to directly pass through a regulated gate between cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 18 - A son has brought his 72-year-old mother to clinic. He is concerned about...

    Incorrect

    • A son has brought his 72-year-old mother to clinic. He is concerned about her short-term memory problems for the past 10 months. He has to remind her to take her medications and she has had two incidents of falling over in the last 10 months. Which of the following assists in the diagnosis of above condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Progressive loss of function

      Explanation:

      The clinical presentation is dementia. To differentiate Alzheimer disease and vascular dementia, the progressive loss of function is important. Progressive loss of function is usually associated with vascular dementia and rest of the responses are associated with Alzheimer disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatrics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 19 - All of the following are consistent with the indicator dilution method except--- ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following are consistent with the indicator dilution method except---

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: In thermodilution, the indicator used is warm saline

      Explanation:

      In thermodilution, the indicator used is cold saline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 20 - The areas of extensive series of sarcoplasmic folds known as intercalated discs always...

    Incorrect

    • The areas of extensive series of sarcoplasmic folds known as intercalated discs always occur at what portion of the muscle fiber?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Z lines

      Explanation:

      The muscle fibers of the heart branch and interdigitate, but one complete unit is surrounded by a cell membrane. The place where one muscle fiber abuts the other, the cell membrane of both the fibers run parallel to each other through a series of extensive folds. These areas always occur on the Z lines and are known as intercalated discs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 21 - What is the most important way in which heat is lost from the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most important way in which heat is lost from the body?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radiation and conduction

      Explanation:

      The body maintains a constant core temperature by balancing heat loss and heat gain. The mechanisms of heat loss are: radiation, evaporation, convection and conduction. Out of these mechanisms, the most important under normal conditions are radiation, through which body heat is given off to the surrounding atmosphere; and conduction, in which the body releases heat into the objects it comes into contact with.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 22 - Somatostatin is responsible for? ...

    Incorrect

    • Somatostatin is responsible for?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreased gastrin release

      Explanation:

      Somatostatin is an inhibitory hormone secreted from the D cells of the Pancreatic Islets. It causes the inhibition of gastrin (decreasing stomach acid production), CCK (decreasing gallbladder motility), gastrin inhibitory peptide and secretin. Gastrin production is also inhibited by secretin, GIP, VIP, glucagon and calcitonin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 23 - The interior of lysosomes is kept at a pH of around 5 by...

    Incorrect

    • The interior of lysosomes is kept at a pH of around 5 by the action of:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: H+ ATPase

      Explanation:

      The lysosome maintains its pH differential by pumping in protons (H+ ions) from the cytosol across the membrane via proton pumps and chloride ion channels. Vacuolar H+-ATPases are responsible for transport of protons, while the counter transport of chloride ions is performed by ClC-7 Cl−/H+ antiporter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 24 - As assessed by immunocytochemistry and electron microscopy, the anterior pituitary gland contains how...

    Incorrect

    • As assessed by immunocytochemistry and electron microscopy, the anterior pituitary gland contains how many different types of cells?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5

      Explanation:

      The pituitary is divided into three sections

      -the anterior lobe which constitute the majority of the pituitary mass and is composed primarily of five hormone-producing cell types (thyrotropes, lactotropes, corticotropes, somatotropes and gonadotropes) each secreting thyrotropin, prolactin, ACTH, growth hormone and gonadotropins (FSH and LH) respectively.

      There is also a sixth cell type in the anterior lobe -the non-endocrine, agranular, folliculostellate cells.

      The intermediate lobe produces melanocyte-stimulating hormone and endorphins, whereas the posterior lobe secretes anti-diuretic hormone (vasopressin) and oxytocin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 25 - According to the Vaughan William's classification of antiarrhythmic agents, lidocaine is a: ...

    Incorrect

    • According to the Vaughan William's classification of antiarrhythmic agents, lidocaine is a:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Class Ib agent

      Explanation:

      Lidocaine is an example of class IB antiarrhythmics.The Vaughan-Williams classification of antiarrhythmicsI: Membrane stabilizing agentsIA: Quinidine, Procainamide, DisopyramideIB: Lidocaine, MexiletineIC: Propafenone, Flecainide II: β blockers – Propranolol, EsmololIII: Agents widening AP – Amiodarone, Dronedarone, Dofetilide, Ibutilide, SotalolIV: Calcium channel blockers – Verapamil, DiltiazemV: Miscellaneous – Digoxin, adenosine, magnesium

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 26 - Cholesterol is synthesized in all of these organs EXCEPT? ...

    Incorrect

    • Cholesterol is synthesized in all of these organs EXCEPT?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stomach

      Explanation:

      The liver primarily synthesizes about 20-25% of the total daily cholesterol. Cholesterol is also synthesized to smaller extents in the adrenal glands, reproductive organs (as cholesterol is the precursor of sex hormones), skin and is also produced in the intestines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 27 - In addition to its role in digestion and absorption of fats, bile: ...

    Incorrect

    • In addition to its role in digestion and absorption of fats, bile:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is the major excretory route for lipid-soluble waste products

      Explanation:

      The end product of haem metabolism is bilirubin and jaundice is caused by increased bilirubin levels in the blood. Gallstones are mainly caused by cholesterol and bile pigments. Bile is the main route of excretion for lipid soluble waste products whereas urine is the main route of excretion of water soluble waste products.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 28 - A 42 year old female presents with a funny bone sensation in her...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 year old female presents with a funny bone sensation in her right elbow that is accompanied by numbness and tingling in the 4th and 5th digits. The symptoms are aggravated when the elbow is bent for a prolonged period. Which of the following explains the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cubital tunnel syndrome

      Explanation:

      Cubital Tunnel Syndrome is a condition that involves pressure or stretching of the ulnar nerve (also known as the “funny bone” nerve), which can cause numbness or tingling in the 4th and 5th digit, pain in the forearm, and/or weakness in the hand. Epicondylitis of the elbow is a condition associated with repetitive forearm and elbow activities. Both lateral epicondylitis (commonly known as tennis elbow) and medial epicondylitis (commonly known as golfer’s elbow) are characterized by elbow pain during or following elbow flexion and extension. Radial tunnel syndrome is a set of symptoms that include fatigue or a dull, aching pain at the top of the forearm with use. Although less common, symptoms can also occur at the back of the hand or wrist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 29 - A 42 year old obese man complains of a painful swollen ankle. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 year old obese man complains of a painful swollen ankle. The pain has worsened over the past 2 weeks. He is a diabetic and gives a history of recent alcohol consumption. Joint aspirate shows rhomboid crystals with numerous neutrophils. Radiological examination shows evidence of chondrocalcinosis. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pseudogout

      Explanation:

      Pseudogout is a paroxysmal joint inflammation due to calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition (calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate). Aetiology includes mostly idiopathic (primary form) and secondary form occurring as a result of joint trauma, familial chondrocalcinosis, hyperparathyroidism, hemochromatosis, gout, hypophosphatemia. Clinical presentation: Often asymptomatic. Acute (pseudogout attack): monoarthritis (rarely oligoarthritis), mostly affecting the knees and other large joints (e.g., hips, wrists, and ankles). It may become chronic (can affect multiple joints). Osteoarthritis with CPPD (most common form of symptomatic CPPD): progressive joint degeneration with episodes of acute inflammatory arthritis typical of pseudogout attacks. Arthrocentesis should be performed, especially in acute cases. Polarized light microscopy: detection of rhomboid-shaped, positively birefringent CPPD crystals. Synovial fluid findings: 10,000-50,000 WBCs/μL with > 90% neutrophils. X-ray findings: cartilage calcification of the affected joint (chondrocalcinosis). Fibrocartilage (meniscus, annulus fibrosus of intervertebral disc) and hyaline cartilage (joint cartilage) may be affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 30 - A 30-year-old male is brought to the emergency department following his collapse in...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male is brought to the emergency department following his collapse in a night club. His friends who accompanied him admit that, of recent, he has been using increasing amounts of cocaine. Which among the following is commonly associated with cocaine overdose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metabolic acidosis

      Explanation:

      Metabolic acidosis is associated with cocaine overdose. In overdose, cocaine leads to agitation, tachycardia, hypertension, sweating, hallucinations, and finally convulsions. Metabolic acidosis, hyperthermia, rhabdomyolysis, and ventricular arrhythmias also occur.Chronic use may be associated with premature coronary artery disease, dilated cardiomyopathy, and increased risk of cerebral haemorrhage.There are 3 stages for acute cocaine toxicity:Stage I: CNS symptoms of headache, vertigo, pseudo hallucinations, hyperthermia, hypertension. Stage II: increased deep tendon reflexes, tachypnoea, irregular breathing, hypertension.Stage III: Areflexia, coma, fixed and dilated pupils, hypotension, ventricular fibrillation, apnoea, and respiratory failure.Treatment:- Airway, breathing, and circulation to be secured. The patient’s fever should be managed, and one should rule out hypoglycaemia as a cause of the neuropsychiatric symptoms. – Cardiovascular toxicity and agitation are best-treated first-line with benzodiazepines to decrease CNS sympathetic outflow.- The mixed beta/alpha blocker labetalol is safe and effective for treating concomitant cocaine-induced hypertension and tachycardia.- Non-dihydropyridine calcium channels blockers such as diltiazem and verapamil have been shown to reduce hypertension reliably, but not tachycardia. – Dihydropyridine agents such as nifedipine should be avoided, as reflex tachycardia may occur. – The alpha-blocker phentolamine has been recommended but only treats alpha-mediated hypertension and not tachycardia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

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