-
Question 1
Correct
-
Phagocytosis is the function of which of the following glial cells?
Your Answer: Microglia
Explanation:The central nervous system comprises of two types of cells| neurons and neuroglial cells. Glial cells are the support cells that serve a number of important functions. Three types of neuroglia comprise the mature nervous system, which are ependymal cells, microglia, and macroglia. The macroglia are of two types oligodendrocytes and astrocytes. Microglia are the neuroglial cells that serve the function of phagocytosis since they are derived from the hematopoietic stem cells and share properties with tissue macrophages. They remove the cellular debris from the site of injury or normal cellular turnover by performing scavenger function.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 6 year old child presents with a history of recurrent, intense nausea and vomiting. His mum reveals he hasn’t passed urine the whole day. Upon inspection, he looks lethargic and his eyes are sunken. What would be the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: IV fluid bolus then IV maintenance fluids
Explanation:The clinical picture suggests that the child is severely dehydrated. IV fluid bolus then IV maintenance fluids is the correct option.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
Which of the following immune responses occurs in Coeliac disease?
Your Answer: Type IV hypersensitivity
Explanation:Celiac disease is classified as a Type IV hypersensitivity mediated by T-cell response. Negatively charged gliadin has been shown to induce interleukin 15 in the enteric epithelial cells, stimulating the proliferation of the natural killer cells and intraepithelial lymphocytes to express NK-G2D, a marker for natural killer T lymphocytes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
Which of the given bioactive factors is NOT a component of normal human breast milk?
Your Answer: Epidermal growth factor
Correct Answer: Basophil
Explanation:Human breast milk composition is best suited to meet all the growth and development requirements of a baby. It contains numerous biochemicals ranging from macronutrients, micronutrients, minerals, immunoglobulins, inflammatory markers, and growth factors. The major bioactive factors found in human breast milk are: immunoglobulins (IgA, IgG, and IgM), cells (macrophages and stem cells), growth factors (epidermal growth factor, tumour necrosis factor-alpha, transforming growth factor-beta, and vascular endothelial growth factor), cytokines, chemokines, hormones, metabolic hormones, glycans, and mucins.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nutrition
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
The differentiation of type I and type II epithelial cells in the developing lung is evident in which gestational age?
Your Answer: Canalicular: 16-24 weeks gestation
Explanation:The differentiation between type 1 and type 2 epithelia in the developing lung buds is evident from 16-24 weeks of gestation.Development of the respiratory tract has five stages:- Embryonic (at 4 – 5 weeks of gestation):Formation of lung buds, trachea and mainstem bronchi occur. These structures are formed from a ventral outpouching of foregut pharynx. At this stage, the beginnings of the five lung lobes are present.- Pseudoglandular (at 5 – 16 weeks of gestation):Formation of terminal bronchioles, cartilage and smooth muscles occur in this stage. – Canalicular (at 16-24 weeks gestation): Differentiation of type I and II epithelial cells can be done in this stage. There is also an increase in the size of proximal airways).- Saccular (at 24 – 40 weeks of gestation): Terminal saccule formation occurs. Production of surfactant takes place at this stage with an increase in the number of goblet cellsUp to half the adult number of alveoli are in place by this stage.- Alveolar (occurs between 32 weeks of gestation till the post-natal age 8): Formation of alveoli and septation occurs with the expansion of air spaces.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
Which of the following IV blood products is most likely to cause an urticarial reaction?
Your Answer: Platelets
Correct Answer: Fresh frozen plasma
Explanation:Transfusion with blood products carries a risk of acute and more chronic adverse reactions. These reactions can either be immune mediated due to a component mismatch, or non immune, underpinned by bacterial or viral contamination. Reactions range from very mild such as urticaria, to life threatening in the case of transfusion-related acute lung injury. In transfusion with packed red blood cells, the most common adverse event is pyrexia, while urticaria is the most common adverse event that follows infusion with FFP.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
Jamila, a 16 year old girl, was brought to the emergency centre following a collapse and abnormal movements earlier at school today. The episode occurred when she was walking to her next lesson with her friends. Suddenly she told her friends that she felt scared and complained that her vision had become blurry. She was helped to a chair where she sat for 15 minutes speaking incoherently before collapsing to the floor. Her friends observed irregular jerking movements of her right leg and left arm. The movement continued for about 15 minutes after which she was able to sit up unsupported but could not speak for about 20 minutes. There was also bleeding from the tongue which she had bit during the episode. She had a similar episode yesterday at home while on a video call with her mother. Her father narrated that she suddenly dropped the phone, and her eyes began to roll up. She initially remained standing but fell to the floor after a minute. He noticed irregular movements of both her legs, and her eyes were tightly shut. The movements ended after 2 minutes after which she became responsive to questions, but her eyes remained closed. She was brought later in the day, and was discharged after routine investigations. Jamila is a GCSE candidate preparing for her mock examinations, and currently lives with her father as her mother works abroad. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for Jamila’s condition?
Your Answer: Idiopathic generalised epilepsy
Correct Answer: Non-epileptic attack disorder
Explanation:Non Epileptic attack disorder, also known as psychogenic non epileptic seizures, is a condition characterised by episodes of abnormal movement and behaviours that resemble seizures , but are not caused by electrical activity changes in the brain. It is believed that the disorder is caused by the brain’s response to overwhelming or stressful situations. In Jamila’s case, triggering conditions for her episodes may have been the absence of her mother, and the stress of her upcoming examinations. A diagnosis of generalised epilepsy is unlikely because this would require abnormal movement in all 4 limbs during an episode and a longer period of semi consciousness after. Cataplexy can also be ruled out as it does not involve a loss of consciousness which we see in Jamila’s case. Vasovagal syncope does not correspond with the history as there was no evidence of simultaneous collapse and responsiveness coupled with colour change and near spontaneous recovery when supine. A complex partial seizure may be possible in Jamila’s case, however the history of long duration, her eyes being tightly shut and the differences in presentation between the two episodes makes it less likely.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
Which of the following is incorrect?
Your Answer: The embryonic phase is the first 20 weeks in utero
Explanation:The embryonic period comprises of the first 8 weeks of pregnancy. It is divided into a preembryonic phase (from the 1st to the 3rd week), in which the three germinal layers arise, and into the embryonic phase proper (from the 4th to 8th week), in which the embryonic organ anlagen arise.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
An 8-year-old girl presents with a history of a bright red bloodstain in her underpants one day prior to consultation. Her mother reports that the girl started cycling lessons one week ago. How will you proceed with the investigation in this case?
Your Answer: Local Examination
Correct Answer: Examination under Anaesthesia
Explanation:A local exam might not help in locating the cause of the bleeding because it might be underneath the superficial structures. A thorough examination should be done under GA to accurately locate the source of bleeding.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genitourinary
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 15 year old girl is brought to the emergency after collapsing at a shopping mall. She is accompanied by her mother who reveals that she has had amenorrhea for the past 7 consecutive months. There is fine hair on her body. Which of the following investigations is mandatory in this case?
Your Answer: Urine analysis
Correct Answer: Urea & Electrolytes
Explanation:Although some individuals with Anorexia Nervosa exhibit no laboratory abnormalities, the semistarvation characteristic of this disorder can affect most major organ systems and produce a variety of disturbances. The induced vomiting and abuse of laxatives, diuretics, and enemas can also cause a number of disturbances leading to abnormal laboratory findings.Haematology: Leukopenia and mild anaemia are common| thrombocytopenia occurs rarely.Chemistry: Dehydration may be reflected by an elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN). Hypercholesterolemia is common. Liver function tests may be elevated.Hypomagnesemia, hypozincaemia, hypophosphatemia, and hyperamylasaemia are occasionally found. Induced vomiting may lead to metabolic alkalosis (elevated serum bicarbonate), hypochloraemia, and hypokalaemia, and laxative abuse may cause a metabolic acidosis. Serum thyroxine levels are usually in the low-normal range| triiodothyronine levels are decreased. Hyperadrenocorticism and abnormal responsiveness to a variety of neuroendocrine challenges are common.In females, low serum oestrogen levels are present, whereas males have low levels of serum testosterone. There is a regression of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis in both sexes in that the 24-hour pattern of secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH) resembles that normally seen in prepubertal or pubertal individuals.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
Out of 30 children who are exposed to a chemical, 15 develop a disorder, compared to only 1 child out of 10 developing the same disorder who were not exposed.The following can be deduced from this information:
Your Answer: The relative risk of exposure to the chemical is 5
Explanation:Relative risk is the probability of an outcome occurring in an exposed group as compared to the probability of that outcome in an unexposed group. In the scenario given, 50% of the children exposed developed the disease while only 10% of the children who were unexposed developed the disease. The relative risk was therefore 50/10=5. There is no further information about whether the study was controlled, the confidence interval, or the type of study. It therefore cannot be confirmed whether the chemical is causative and if it should be avoided.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
-
-
Question 12
Correct
-
A term baby weighing 3.3kg is admitted to NICU at 3 hours old with increased respiratory effort. The baby was delivered by spontaneous vaginal delivery following an uncomplicated pregnancy. Membranes ruptured 30 hours before delivery and there are no other risk factors for infection. On examination the baby is visibly tachypnoeic with intercostal recession and nasal flaring. Heart sounds are normal with no murmurs. Femoral pulses are present bilaterally. Capillary refill time is 3 seconds centrally and baby has cool hands and feet. Respiratory rate is 90/min, heart rate 170/min and oxygen saturations measured on the right hand are 85% in room air. IV access has been obtained and antibiotics are being given. Enough blood was obtained for culture, blood sugar and venous blood gas. Blood sugar is 2.6 mmol/l. Blood gas shows: pH 7.25, CO2 8.5 kPa, BE –8. Despite low flow nasal cannula oxygen baby’s saturations remain around 88%. What should be the next step in this baby’s management?
Your Answer: Prepare to intubate baby
Explanation:Infants may require tracheal intubation if:- direct tracheal suctioning is required- effective bag-mask ventilation cannot be provided- chest compressions are performed- endotracheal (ET) administration of medications is desired- congenital diaphragmatic hernia is suspected, or – a prolonged need for assisted ventilation exists.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
According to NICE guidelines, which of the following factors pose an increased risk of severe hyperbilirubinemia?
Your Answer: Gestational chicken pox infection at 30 weeks
Correct Answer: History of a previous sibling requiring phototherapy for jaundice
Explanation:Identify babies as being more likely to develop significant hyperbilirubinemia if they have any of the following factors:- gestational age under 38 weeks- a previous sibling with neonatal jaundice requiring phototherapy- mother’s intention to breastfeed exclusively- visible jaundice in the first 24 hours of life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
-
-
Question 14
Correct
-
A 10-year-old girl presents to the hospital with complaints of fever, painful joints, and a rash. Her parents insist that she was otherwise well except for a history of sore throat 2 weeks before.On examination, she appears quite unwell with a temperature reading of 38.5°C. She was found to be tachycardic, hypertensive and with an erythematous rash with raised edges noted on the anterior aspect of her abdomen. Her left ankle and right elbow joints are swollen, and she has multiple painless subcutaneous nodules under her skin. Auscultation revealed an apical mid-diastolic murmur. Blood investigations reveal leucocytosis and raised C-reactive protein (CRP) levels. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) was also above normal limits for her gender and age. An ECG confirms the presence of a tachycardia, a prolonged PR interval, and flat inverted T waves.What is the most probable diagnosis for this child?
Your Answer: Rheumatic fever
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this child would be rheumatic fever due to a previous history of rheumatic fever, evidence of streptococcal disease from a throat swab, a raised ASO titre and a positive streptococcal antigen test or a leukocytosis.Acute Rheumatic Fever:ARF occurs because of an abnormal immune response to a streptococcal antigenic component. It has a latent period of 1–3 weeks and is more common in the lower socio-economic classes. It peaks at around 5–15 years of age and affects the blood vessels, joints, nervous system and subcutaneous tissues. It is characterised as an autoimmune disease, and there is a risk of rheumatic fever occurring after infection in 3% of the population. The recurrence is greater in younger children and increases with each attack. Duckett-Jones criteria:The diagnostic criteria for acute rheumatic fever.Major: – Pancarditis- Chorea (Sydenham’s) – Polyarthritis (flitting)- Erythema marginatum- Subcutaneous nodulesMinor criteria include the presence of arthralgia, fever, prolonged PR interval, raised ESR, raised CRP.Note that:To make the diagnosis of rheumatic fever: Two major and/or one major with two minor criteria are required. Evidence of a recent streptococcal infection with a raised ASO titre or an antiribonuclease B level is sufficient. Exceptions to this rule are mentioned below:- Chorea alone is diagnostic.- Insidious or late-onset carditis with no other explanation.- Rheumatic recurrence: The presence of one major and one minor criterion with a prior streptococcal disease that is recurring.Consequences of pericarditis include heart block, pericardial effusion, tachycardia, cardiomegaly, pericardial friction rub, congestive cardiac failure, valvular disease and a Carey–Coombes apical mid-diastolic rumbling murmur.New heart murmurs are often audible, including those of mitral regurgitation and aortic regurgitation. Skin nodules affect the perivascular tissues and are non-specific lesions resulting from fibroid degeneration.Management:Medication includes aspirin for the acute phase, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for arthritis, prednisolone for severe carditis, and high-dose penicillin for immediate management with antibiotic prophylaxis in the long term. Antibiotics may include penicillin V, erythromycin or benzylpenicillin. Diazepam and haloperidol may be required to control the chorea.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A pregnant woman with atopic eczema and asthma, who has a 5-year-old child with moderately severe eczema, requests advice about reducing the risk of eczema in her unborn child. Select the MOST appropriate advice from the following:
Your Answer: There is good clinical and epidemiological evidence to support the delayed introduction of potential food allergens in weaning foods (e.g. milk protein and eggs)
Correct Answer: Removing certain known food allergens from the mother’s diet during pregnancy does not reduce the risk or prevent the onset of atopic eczema
Explanation:Nonspecific triggers of inflammation in patients with atopic dermatitis may include physical or chemical irritants. The following simple measures should be followed in daily life to reduce the frequency and severity of irritant-induced atopic dermatitis flares :Skin care products that contain alcohol and astringents should be avoided.New clothes should be laundered before use to remove formaldehyde and other chemicals.Liquid detergents are preferred over powder detergents for laundering clothes, as liquids are easier to rinse out. A second rinse cycle may also improve removal of residual detergent.Patients should shower immediately after swimming in chlorinated pools and should subsequently apply moisturizer.Fragrance-free skin products that are hypoallergenic or made for sensitive skin may be less irritating than other kinds of skin products.Prenatal and postnatal probiotic supplementation may be helpful in preventing the development of atopic dermatitis in young children. In a 2008 meta-analysis, the most commonly studied probiotic was Lactobacillus rhamnoses GG. Larger, randomized controlled studies are needed to confirm these initial findings.Breastfeeding during the first 4 months of life may reduce the incidence and severity of childhood atopic disease but only modestly and only in those at high risk.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
Which of the following patient populations is most likely to present with primary vesicoureteric reflux?
Your Answer: Girls aged 3–10 years
Correct Answer: New-born girls
Explanation:Vesicoureteric reflex (VUR) is described as the retrograde flow of urine from the bladder into the ureter due to an incompetent uterovesical junction. In primary VUR the lower urinary tract functions normally, while secondary VUR is associated with a poorly functioning lower urinary tract. The incidence of VUR is highest in new-born girls. They can present with hydronephrosis, or urinary tract infections.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A new-born baby is born with a midline lumbosacral cystic lesion. Occipitofrontal circumference was above the 90th percentile.The next best step is?
Your Answer: Surgical closure of the back
Correct Answer: Cranial ultrasound
Explanation:The baby may have hydrocephalus and no surgery can be done until it is excluded.Cranial sonography is an important part of neonatal care in general, and high-risk and unstable premature infants, in particular. It allows rapid evaluation of infants in the intensive care units without the need for sedation and with virtually no risk. Expectedly, sonography represents an ideal imaging modality in neonates due to its portability, lower cost, speed, and lack of ionizing radiations. Although there are numerous indications for cranial sonography, it appears to be most useful for detection and follow-up of intracranial haemorrhage, hydrocephalus, and periventricular leukomalacia (PVL).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 13-month-old boy presents to the hospital with a rash and breathing difficulties following routine vaccination. On examination, it was noted that he was developing swelling around the mouth and neck.What is the most appropriate next step to manage this child?
Your Answer: Salbutamol nebuliser stat
Correct Answer: IM adrenaline 150 mcg (0.15ml of 1 in 1,000)
Explanation:The IM dose of adrenaline for anaphylaxis in:< 6 months: 150 micrograms (0.15ml 1 in 1,000)6 months - 6 years: 150 micrograms (0.15ml 1 in 1,000)6 - 12 years: 300 micrograms (0.3ml 1 in 1,000)Adult and child > 12 years: 500 micrograms (0.5ml 1 in 1,000)Anaphylaxis:Anaphylaxis is an acute, rapidly progressing, potentially life-threatening IgE mediated Type I hypersensitivity reaction.It involves the release of mediators from mast cells, basophils and inflammatory cells. It is characterised by oedematous swelling of the airway mucosa giving rise to dyspnoea and respiratory distress. The most common cause of anaphylaxis in children is a food allergy.Risk factors for death in patients with anaphylaxis include asthma, age 11+, peanut allergy, and delay in adrenaline administration.Management of anaphylaxis includes:- ABCD- Remove the allergen- IM adrenaline or Nebulised adrenaline- IV Hydrocortisone – pro re nata IV fluid support. – Followed by observation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
-
-
Question 19
Correct
-
A 5 month old baby presents with failure to thrive, and the following blood results: Na=135 mmol/l K=2.3 mmol/lUrea=2.0 mmol/lCreatinine 30 µmol/lP=0.8 mmol/lBicarbonate=17 mmol/lCa=2.5 mmol/lAdditionally, urinalysis reveals 1+ glucose and 1+ protein. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Fanconi tubular syndrome
Explanation:Fanconi tubular syndrome is characterised by malabsorption of various electrolytes and substances commonly absorbed by the proximal tubule. Hypokalaemia, hypophosphatemia, and hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis is usually present. Also, urinalysis reveals an increased fractional excretion of glucose.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
-
-
Question 20
Correct
-
Which of the following conditions is usually inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion?
Your Answer: Familial adenomatous polyposis
Explanation:Familial adenomatous polyposis can have different inheritance patterns.When familial adenomatous polyposis results from mutations in the APC gene, it is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern, which means one copy of the altered gene in each cell is sufficient to cause the disorder. In most cases, an affected person has one parent with the condition.When familial adenomatous polyposis results from mutations in the MUTYH gene, it is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern, which means both copies of the gene in each cell have mutations. Most often, the parents of an individual with an autosomal recessive condition each carry one copy of the mutated gene, but do not show signs and symptoms of the condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
-
-
Question 21
Correct
-
Which of the following is true regarding teenage pregnancy?
Your Answer: Maternal weight gain is maximum during mid-pregnancy
Explanation:Teenagers may have poor eating habits and neglect to take their vitamin supplements. They are less likely than older women to be of adequate pre-pregnancy weight or to gain an adequate amount of weight during pregnancy. Low weight gain increases the risk of having a low birthweight baby. Weight gain is maximal during the 2nd trimester.aPTT and gallbladder emptying is decreased during pregnancy whereas d-dimers is increased.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 1 year old baby is taken to the A&E with colicky abdominal pain and an ileo-ileal intussusception is found on investigation. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Attempt pneumatic reduction with air insufflation
Correct Answer: Undertake a laparotomy
Explanation:Answer: Undertake a laparotomyIntussusception, which is defined as the telescoping or invagination of a proximal portion of intestine (intussusceptum) into a more distal portion (intussuscipiens), is one of the most common causes of bowel obstruction in infants and toddlers.Intussusception may be ileoileal, colocolic, ileoileocolic, or ileocolic (the most common type).Most infants with intussusception have a history of intermittent severe cramping or colicky abdominal pain, occurring every 5-30 minutes. During these attacks, the infant screams and flexes at the waist, draws the legs up to the abdomen, and may appear pale. These episodes may last for only a few seconds and are separated by periods of calm normal appearance and activity. However, some infants become quite lethargic and somnolent between attacks.Infants with intussusception require surgical correction. Prompt laparotomy following diagnosis is crucial for achieving better outcomes. Primary anastomosis can be performed successfully, and stomas can be created in the critically ill patients or those with late detection and septicaemia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
-
-
Question 23
Correct
-
A 14-year-old girl presents with primary amenorrhoea. She is an athlete who is currently training for a national athletics championship.What is the best treatment option for her?
Your Answer: Adequate diet and observation
Explanation:Intensive physical training and participation in competitive sports during childhood and early adolescence may affect athletes’ pubertal development.Female athletes who do not begin secondary sexual development by the age of 14 or menstruation by the age of 16 warrant a comprehensive evaluation and treatment.Since she is still 14, adequate diet and observation are enough.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
In which of the following is there Growth hormone deficiency (GHD)?
Your Answer: Turner's syndrome
Correct Answer: Sheehan's syndrome
Explanation:The main cause of growth hormone (GH) deficiency is a pituitary tumour or the consequences of treatment of the tumour including surgery and/or radiation therapy.Sheehan’s syndrome (SS) is postpartum hypopituitarism caused by necrosis of the pituitary gland. It is usually the result of severe hypotension or shock caused by massive haemorrhage during or after delivery. Patients with SS have varying degrees of anterior pituitary hormone deficiency.Laron syndrome is Insulin-like growth factor I (IGF-I) deficiency due to GH resistance or insensitivity due to genetic disorders of the GH receptor causing GH receptor deficiency.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
Which ectopic tissue is usually contained in the Meckel's diverticulum?
Your Answer: Duodenal
Correct Answer: Gastric
Explanation:The Meckel’s diverticulum is a vestigial remnant of the omphalomesenteric duct. This structure is also referred to as the vitelline and contains two types of ectopic tissue, namely| gastric and pancreatic.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
Which of the following disorders is correctly linked to associated mutations?
Your Answer: Haemochromatosis - deletion
Correct Answer: Charcot- Marie-Tooth- whole gene duplication
Explanation:Types of DNA mutations and their impactpoint mutation:Substitution: One base is incorrectly added during replication and replaces the pair in the corresponding position on the complementary strand as in Sickle cell anaemiaInsertion: One or more extra nucleotides are inserted into replicating DNA, often resulting in a frameshift as in one form of beta-thalassemiaDeletion: One or more nucleotides is skipped during replication or otherwise excised, often resulting in a frameshift as in Cystic fibrosis.Chromosomal mutation:Inversion: One region of a chromosome is flipped and reinserted as in Opitz-Kaveggia syndromeDeletion: A region of a chromosome is lost, resulting in the absence of all the genes in that area as in Cri du chat syndromeDuplication: A region of a chromosome is repeated, resulting in an increase in dosage from the genes in that region as in some cancers and Charcot-Marie toothTranslocation: A region from one chromosome is aberrantly attached to another chromosome as in One form of leukaemiaCopy number variation:Gene amplification: The number of tandem copies of a locus is increased as in Some breast cancersExpanding trinucleotide repeat: The normal number of repeated trinucleotide sequences is expanded as in Fragile X syndrome, Huntington’s disease
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
Which of the following disorders are NOT associated with hypertrichosis?
Your Answer: Porphyria cutanea tarda
Correct Answer: Psoriasis
Explanation:Among the given options, psoriasis is not associated with hypertrichosis.The causes of hypertrichosis include:- Drugs: minoxidil, ciclosporin, and diazoxide.- Congenital hypertrichosis lanuginosa and congenital hypertrichosis terminalis.- Porphyria cutanea tarda- Anorexia nervosa
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 2 year old female was taken to her local emergency department with jerking movements in her limbs. This lasted for around 10 seconds, and then she fell unconscious. She soon regained consciousness - she was disorientated but afebrile with no symptoms of meningeal irritation. From the list of options, chose the most appropriate investigation route for this patient.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 24 hour EEG
Explanation:Many of the symptoms favour an epilepsy diagnosis: uncontrollable jerking of the limbs and a loss of consciousness. A 24-hour EEG is used to diagnose epilepsy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
What is the prevalence of atopic eczema in children?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 15-20%
Explanation:Atopic dermatitis (AD), also called atopic eczema, is a common chronic or recurrent inflammatory skin disease and affects 15-20% of children and 1-3% of adults worldwide. It is characterized by acute flare-ups of eczematous pruritic lesions over dry skin.The incidence has increased by 2- to 3-fold during the past decades in industrialized countries.Some of the most valuable AD prevalence and trend data have come from the International Study of Asthma and Allergies in Childhood (ISAAC). This is the biggest (close to 2 million children in 100 countries) and only allergy study that has taken a truly global approach. The strength of the study is the use of a uniformly validated methodology allowing a direct comparison of results between paediatric populations all over the world (http://isaac.auckland.ac.nz/index.html).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 9 year old boy was admitted with gastroenteritis. The boy's symptoms started two days ago with profound diarrhoea and emesis. Blood exams show the following: Sodium=148mmol/l, Potassium=2.2mmol/l, Urea=20mmol/l, Glucose=4.3mmol/l. What would be the best management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: V normal saline and potassium supplement
Explanation:The boy needs re-hydration and hydro-electrolytic re-balancing due to fluid losses from the gastroenteritis and subsequent dehydration.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)