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  • Question 1 - Which cells are considered the source of IL-3? ...

    Correct

    • Which cells are considered the source of IL-3?

      Your Answer: T lymphocytes

      Explanation:

      IL-3 stimulates haematopoiesis and is secreted mainly from the T lymphocytes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - During which phase of meiosis does exchange of genetic material occur accounting for...

    Correct

    • During which phase of meiosis does exchange of genetic material occur accounting for genetic diversity between individuals:

      Your Answer: Prophase 1

      Explanation:

      Prophase 1 has been divided into five different stages ( laptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene ans diakinesis). In prophase 1 chromosomes are going to condense to become visible, each chromosome will contain two chromatids that are joined at the centromere. the nucleolus and nuclear envelope are going to disintegrate. the homologous chromosomes will form tetrad and crossing over will occur between the chromosomes (random exchange of genes), the point of exchange is known as the chiasmata, this increases genetic diversity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      23.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Where is retinol mainly stored? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where is retinol mainly stored?

      Your Answer: Eyes

      Correct Answer: Liver

      Explanation:

      Vitamin A is a group of unsaturated nutritional organic compounds that includes retinol, retinal, retinoic acid, and several provitamin A carotenoids (most notably beta-carotene). The liver stores a multitude of substances, including glucose (in the form of glycogen), vitamin A (1–2 years’ supply), vitamin D (1–4 months’ supply), vitamin B12 (3–5 years’ supply), vitamin K, iron, and copper.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - In Starling’s law of the heart, the decrease in tension developed by muscle...

    Correct

    • In Starling’s law of the heart, the decrease in tension developed by muscle contraction at high degrees of stretch is due to:

      Your Answer: Disruption of myocardial fibers

      Explanation:

      Starling law states that the force of contraction is directly proportional to the preload. When the heart muscle is stretched beyond its limit the tension that is developed decreases, this is not due to loss of formation of effective myosin and actin cross bridges. The heart muscles despite being fully stretched is never stretched to this point. The reason for this decreased tension is physical disruption of the myocardial fibers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Depolarization spreads rapidly through cardiac muscle fibers because of the presence of: ...

    Correct

    • Depolarization spreads rapidly through cardiac muscle fibers because of the presence of:

      Your Answer: Gap junctions

      Explanation:

      The cardiac muscles have gap junctions in between the cells. They allow for the formation of low resistance passages, which allow ions to diffuse through every muscle fiber rapidly and result in the cardiac muscles functioning as a syncytium, without any protoplasmic bridges involved.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Defects in chromosomal structure (and examples) include those mentioned below except: ...

    Incorrect

    • Defects in chromosomal structure (and examples) include those mentioned below except:

      Your Answer: Deletion (Wilms’ tumour, deletions of part of p11)

      Correct Answer: Lyonization (x-linked disorders)

      Explanation:

      All are true except for A) Lyonization which is the inactivation of the X chromosomes in a female. It is not a chromosomal abnormality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      36
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following factors is directly responsible for the breakdown of fibrinogen...

    Correct

    • Which of the following factors is directly responsible for the breakdown of fibrinogen to fibrin?

      Your Answer: Thrombin

      Explanation:

      Prothrombin (coagulation factor II) is proteolytically cleaved to form thrombin in the coagulation cascade, the clotting process. Thrombin in turn acts as a serine protease that converts soluble fibrinogen into insoluble strands of fibrin, as well as catalysing many other coagulation-related reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - An 18-year-old young lady is brought to the ER by her mother. She...

    Correct

    • An 18-year-old young lady is brought to the ER by her mother. She was found, lying on the floor having consumed an unidentified quantity of her mother's prescription pills with alcohol. The patient's mother is a known hypertensive under treatment. On examination, the patient was found to be lethargic, hypotensive with a BP of 70/50 mmHg, and bradycardic with a pulse rate of 38 bpm. A finger prick glucose is 3.2 mmol/L. Which TWO among the following are the most appropriate steps for the initial management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Glucagon and isoprenaline

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate steps of initial management include iv glucagon and iv isoprenaline.The most likely diagnosis in the above scenario (decreased conscious level, profound hypertension, and bradycardia) is β-blocker toxicity/overdose. Bronchospasm rarely occurs in an overdose of β-blockers, except where there is a history of asthma.Immediate management is to give iv glucagons (50–150μg/kg) followed by infusion to treat hypotension and isoprenaline or atropine to treat bradycardia. Where patients fail to respond to these measures, temporary pacing may be required. If the patient is seen within the first 4 hours of the overdose, gastric lavage may be of value.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      52.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Endothelial cells are attached to adjacent cells by adherent junctions via: ...

    Correct

    • Endothelial cells are attached to adjacent cells by adherent junctions via:

      Your Answer: Cadherins

      Explanation:

      Cadherins are calcium dependant molecules that mediate cell to cell adhesions in epithelial and endothelial cells among others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - The hepatic portal vein is a large vessel formed by which of the...

    Correct

    • The hepatic portal vein is a large vessel formed by which of the following veins?

      Your Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      The portal vein is usually formed by the confluence of the superior mesenteric and splenic veins and also receives blood from the inferior mesenteric, gastric, and cystic veins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - The enzyme responsible for telomeres maintaining their length after cell division is called:...

    Correct

    • The enzyme responsible for telomeres maintaining their length after cell division is called:

      Your Answer: Telomerase

      Explanation:

      Telomerase is the enzyme responsible for maintenance of the length of telomeres by addition of guanine-rich repetitive sequences. Telomerase activity is exhibited in gametes and stem and tumor cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Pendrin is a Cl-/I- exchanger whose function is: ...

    Correct

    • Pendrin is a Cl-/I- exchanger whose function is:

      Your Answer: Transfer of iodide across the thyrocyte apical membrane into the colloid

      Explanation:

      Pendrin is an anion transporter present in the inner ear, thyroid and kidney. It regulates the entrance of iodide from the thyroid cell to the colloid space. It has been proposed that its role could be the maintenance of the ionic composition of the endolymph.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Salty taste is triggered by: ...

    Correct

    • Salty taste is triggered by:

      Your Answer: Amiloride-sensitive sodium channel

      Explanation:

      Amiloride-sensitive sodium channels also known as epithelial Na channels is a membrane bound ion channel that is selectively permeable to Na+ ions. These channels are located throughout different epithelial membranes in the body. It is found in taste receptor cells, where it plays an important role in salt taste perception. They are also located in the kidney, the lung and the colon. Hyperpolarization-activated, cyclic nucleotide-gated (HCN) voltage-gated ion channels are widely seen in the cortex, hippocampus, thalamus and brain regions that underlie the generation of both focal and generalized-onset seizures. The metabotropic glutamate receptor (mGluRs) perform a variety of functions in the central and peripheral nervous systems. They are involved in learning, memory, anxiety, and the perception of pain. Gustducin is a G protein associated with taste and gustatory system. It plays a major role in sensation of bitter, sweet and umami stimuli.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following forms an important constituent of the brush border on...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following forms an important constituent of the brush border on the microvilli of the intestinal epithelium?

      Your Answer: Crypts

      Correct Answer: Hydrolases

      Explanation:

      There are certain enzymes which are part of the brush border cells including hydrolases also known as the brush border hydrolases. They perform the final step in digestion of certain nutrients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Where in the body would you find Kupffer cells? ...

    Correct

    • Where in the body would you find Kupffer cells?

      Your Answer: Liver

      Explanation:

      Kupffer cells are hepatic macrophages. They are responsible for 80% of the phagocytic activity in the liver.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 42 year old female with a history of SLE presents with an...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 year old female with a history of SLE presents with an exacerbation of wrist pain. Which of the following markers would be the most suitable for monitoring disease activity?

      Your Answer: C-reactive protein

      Correct Answer: Anti-dsDNA titres

      Explanation:

      A high level of anti-dsDNA in the blood is strongly associated with lupus and is often significantly increased during or just prior to a flare-up. When the anti-dsDNA is positive and the person tested has other clinical signs and symptoms associated with lupus, it means that the person tested likely has lupus. This is especially true if an anti-Sm test is also positive.In the evaluation of someone with lupus nephritis, a high level (titre) of anti-dsDNA is generally associated with ongoing inflammation and damage to the kidneys.A very low level of anti-dsDNA is considered negative but does not exclude a diagnosis of lupus. Only about 65-85% of those with lupus will have anti-dsDNA.Low to moderate levels of the autoantibody may be seen with other autoimmune disorders, such as Sjögren syndrome and mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - The branche(s) of the left coronary artery include: ...

    Correct

    • The branche(s) of the left coronary artery include:

      Your Answer: Left circumflex artery & anterior interventricular artery

      Explanation:

      The left main coronary divides into branches:

      1. The left anterior descending artery branches off the left coronary artery and supplies blood to the front of the left side of the heart.

      2. The circumflex artery branches off the left coronary artery and encircles the heart muscle.

      The anterior interventricular artery is otherwise known as the anterior descending branch. The posterior descending artery comes from Right coronary artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - In which organelle is the intrinsic apoptotic pathway initiated? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which organelle is the intrinsic apoptotic pathway initiated?

      Your Answer: Endoplasmic reticulum

      Correct Answer: Mitochondria

      Explanation:

      Apoptosis is a programmed form of cell death involving the degradation of cellular constituents by a group of cysteine proteases called caspases. The caspases can be activated through either the intrinsic (mitochondrial mediated) or extrinsic (death receptor mediated) apoptotic pathways.

      The intrinsic apoptotic pathway, also known as the mitochondrial pathway, is primarily initiated within the mitochondria. This pathway is activated in response to various internal stimuli, such as DNA damage, oxidative stress, and other cellular stresses.

      When the intrinsic pathway is triggered, several events occur in the mitochondria:

      1. Release of cytochrome c: Cytochrome c is released from the mitochondrial intermembrane space into the cytoplasm.
      2. Formation of the apoptosome: Cytochrome c in the cytoplasm binds to apoptotic protease activating factor-1 (Apaf-1) and procaspase-9, forming a complex known as the apoptosome.
      3. Activation of caspase-9: The apoptosome activates caspase-9, an initiator caspase.
      4. Caspase cascade: Activated caspase-9 then activates executioner caspases, such as caspase-3, leading to the execution phase of apoptosis, which results in the orderly dismantling of the cell.

      The mitochondria play a crucial role in this pathway by regulating the release of pro-apoptotic factors that are essential for the activation of downstream apoptotic processes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Myocardial oxygen consumption is increased by: ...

    Correct

    • Myocardial oxygen consumption is increased by:

      Your Answer: An increase in after load

      Explanation:

      Cardiac oxygen consumption is directly related to the amount of tension that develops in the ventricles. It is increased by an increased size of heart, increased afterload, increased contractility and increased heart rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Regarding the surface anatomy of the orifices of the heart, where is the...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the surface anatomy of the orifices of the heart, where is the aortic valve located?

      Your Answer: Opposite the 3rd left intercostal space bind the left margin of the sternum

      Correct Answer: Opposite the left 3rd intercostal space to the left of the sternum

      Explanation:

      The aortic valve is situated in the left 3rd intercostal space just beneath the sternum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      32.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Mean intra pleural pressure at rest with inspiration can reach: ...

    Incorrect

    • Mean intra pleural pressure at rest with inspiration can reach:

      Your Answer: -16 mmHg

      Correct Answer: -6 mmHg

      Explanation:

      It is a negative pressure as it is lower than the atmospheric pressure. It can start from -2.5 and reach around -6 mmHg

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Respiratory
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Water hammer pulse is found in: ...

    Correct

    • Water hammer pulse is found in:

      Your Answer: Aortic insufficiency

      Explanation:

      Watson’s water hammer pulse is the medical sign which describes a pulse that is bounding and forceful, rapidly increasing and subsequently collapsing, as if it were the sound of a water hammer that was causing the pulse. A water hammer was a Victorian toy in which a tube was half filled with fluid, the remainder being a vacuum. The child would invert and reinvert the tube; each time the impact of the fluid at each end would sound like a hammer blow. This is associated with increased stroke volume of the left ventricle and decrease in the peripheral resistance leading to the widened pulse pressure of aortic regurgitation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 55-year-old diabetic male presents with a feeling of generally being unwell. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old diabetic male presents with a feeling of generally being unwell. He also has a history of atrial fibrillation and epilepsy. His main complaint is a blue tinge to his vision. Which one of his medications is most likely to be responsible?

      Your Answer: Phenytoin

      Correct Answer: Sildenafil

      Explanation:

      Blue tinge of vision/cyanopsia is caused due to the intake of sildenafil citrate.Sildenafil citrate (Viagra) is the first oral drug to be widely approved for the treatment of erectile dysfunction. It is a potent and selective inhibitor of type-V phosphodiesterase, the primary form of the enzyme found in human penile erectile tissue, thereby preventing the breakdown of cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP), the intracellular second messenger of nitric oxide.Uses:It is used for the treatment of erectile dysfunction, idiopathic pulmonary hypertension, premature ejaculation, high altitude illness, penile rehabilitation after radical prostatectomy, angina pectoris, and lower urinary tract symptoms.Adverse effects:Mild headache, flushing, dyspepsia, cyanopsia, back pain, and myalgias – due to a high concentration of PDE11 enzyme in skeletal muscle, which shows significant cross-reactivity with the use of tadalafil.It can also cause hypotension, dizziness, and rhinitis.Note: Xanthopsia (yellow-green vision) may occur secondary to treatment with digoxin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Regarding Iron stores, which of the following contains the highest proportion of total...

    Correct

    • Regarding Iron stores, which of the following contains the highest proportion of total body iron?

      Your Answer: Haemoglobin

      Explanation:

      Most well-nourished people in industrialized countries have 4 to 5 grams of iron in their bodies. Of this, about 2.5 g is contained in the haemoglobin needed to carry oxygen through the blood, and most of the rest (approximately 2 grams in adult men, and somewhat less in women of childbearing age) is contained in ferritin complexes that are present in all cells, but most common in bone marrow, liver, and spleen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Concerning surface anatomy, where is the apex beat found? ...

    Correct

    • Concerning surface anatomy, where is the apex beat found?

      Your Answer: 5th intercostal space mid clavicular line

      Explanation:

      The location of the apex beat may vary but it is mostly found in the left 5th intercostal space 6 cm from the anterior median line or in the mid clavicular line.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 49 year old female presents to the clinic complaining of pain in...

    Correct

    • A 49 year old female presents to the clinic complaining of pain in her left elbow that is localized to the left lateral epicondyle. She has spent the weekend painting her house. A diagnosis of lateral epicondylitis is suspected. The pain would characteristically worsen on which of the following movements?

      Your Answer: Resisted wrist extension with the elbow extended

      Explanation:

      Lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) is an overuse injury of the hand and finger extensor tendons that originate in the lateral humeral epicondyle that occurs following repeated or excessive pronation/supination and extension of the wrist (e.g., in racquet sports). Clinical features include pain and tenderness over the lateral epicondyle and along extensor muscles, thickening of the tendons. The examiner holds the patient’s hand with the thumb placed over the lateral epicondyle – The patient makes a fist, supinates the forearm, deviates radially, and extends the fist against the examiner’s resistance which results in pain over the lateral epicondyle. Conservative treatment includes rest, physiotherapy and orthotic braces. If this fails corticosteroids and lidocaine injections are employed. Surgery is indicated in patients with persistent symptoms despite 6 months of conservative treatment. Excision of abnormal tendon tissue; longitudinal incisions (tenotomies) in scarred and fibrotic areas to promote healing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      35.6
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which vagus nerve mainly supplies the AV node? ...

    Correct

    • Which vagus nerve mainly supplies the AV node?

      Your Answer: Left vagus

      Explanation:

      As the AV node develops from the left side of the embryo It is supplied by the left vagus nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which of the following conditions is associated with eosinophilia? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following conditions is associated with eosinophilia?

      Your Answer: Ascaris

      Explanation:

      Eosinophilia can be idiopathic (primary) or, more commonly, secondary to another disease. In the Western World, allergic or atopic diseases are the most common causes, especially those of the respiratory or integumentary systems. In the developing world, parasites are the most common cause e.g. Ascaris

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Coronary arteries fill up during ...

    Correct

    • Coronary arteries fill up during

      Your Answer: Diastole

      Explanation:

      During contraction of the ventricular myocardium (systole), the subendocardial coronary vessels (the vessels that enter the myocardium) are compressed due to the high ventricular pressures. This compression results in momentary retrograde blood flow (i.e., blood flows backward toward the aorta) which further inhibits perfusion of myocardium during systole. However, the epicardial coronary vessels (the vessels that run along the outer surface of the heart) remain open. Because of this, blood flow in the sub endocardium stops during ventricular contraction. As a result, most myocardial perfusion occurs during heart relaxation (diastole) when the subendocardial coronary vessels are open and under lower pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - The predominant site in the lymph node where T lymphocytes are found is:...

    Incorrect

    • The predominant site in the lymph node where T lymphocytes are found is:

      Your Answer: Cortex

      Correct Answer: Paracortex

      Explanation:

      Paracortex is found between the cortex and the medulla and it is composed of a non-nodular type of arrangement that is mostly made up of T cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - Presence of which of the following indicates a worse prognosis in rheumatoid arthritis?...

    Correct

    • Presence of which of the following indicates a worse prognosis in rheumatoid arthritis?

      Your Answer: Anti-CCP antibodies

      Explanation:

      Rheumatoid arthritis is both common and chronic, with significant consequences for multiple organ systems. Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) antibody testing is particularly useful in the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis, with high specificity, presence early in the disease process, and ability to identify patients who are likely to have severe disease and irreversible damage. However, its sensitivity is low, and a negative result does not exclude disease. Anti-CCP antibodies have not been found at a significant frequency in other diseases to date, and are more specific than rheumatoid factor for detecting rheumatoid arthritis. The other factors that are mentioned do not play a key prognostic role.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - What is the primary problem of achalasia ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary problem of achalasia

      Your Answer: Neuronal death in lower oesophageal sphincter

      Correct Answer: Deficiency of myenteric plexus at the lower oesophageal sphincter

      Explanation:

      Oesophageal achalasia is an oesophageal motility disorder involving the smooth muscle layer of the oesophagus is characterized by the failure of the lower oesophageal sphincter (LES) relaxation and aperistalsis, caused primarily by the loss of the inhibitory innervation of the oesophageal myenteric plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      30.3
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - Following an action potential, cytosolic Ca2+ is increased. The binding of free Ca2+...

    Correct

    • Following an action potential, cytosolic Ca2+ is increased. The binding of free Ca2+ to troponin C results in all of the following except:

      Your Answer: Weakening of the troponin i interaction with actin

      Explanation:

      At rest, troponin i is bound to actin and tropomyosin and covers the site where the myosin head interacts with actin. When Calcium enters into the muscle, it binds with troponin C and cause a structural change in troponin i which moves out of the myosin binding site and causes the cross bridges between the actin and myosin filaments to occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 50-year-old woman under treatment for manic-depressive psychosis presents in an unconscious state...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman under treatment for manic-depressive psychosis presents in an unconscious state after an episode of seizure on the street. Her husband who accompanied her into the ER reported that they argued about 6-7 hours ago. On examination, she is found to be hypertonic with a GCS of 8, BP: 90/60 mmHg and a pulse of 105 bpm. Blood investigations revealed a lithium level of 3.2 mmol/L. She was intubated and ventilated. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate management in this case?

      Your Answer: N saline should be started iv

      Explanation:
      1. Normal saline (N saline) should be started IV: Intravenous normal saline is recommended to enhance renal excretion of lithium. Adequate hydration is crucial because lithium is primarily excreted by the kidneys, and maintaining good urine output can help reduce lithium levels.
      2. Dialysis: This is considered the most effective treatment for severe lithium toxicity, especially when serum levels are significantly elevated (typically >2.5 mmol/L) and the patient presents with severe symptoms such as seizures, altered mental status, or renal impairment. Given the patient’s lithium level of 3.2 mmol/L and her critical condition, dialysis is necessary to rapidly reduce lithium levels.

      The other options are less appropriate or ineffective in this context:

      • Gastric lavage should be considered: This is not typically recommended for lithium poisoning because lithium is rapidly absorbed and lavage is unlikely to be effective several hours post-ingestion.
      • Activated charcoal is likely to be effective: Activated charcoal does not effectively bind lithium and is not recommended for lithium poisoning.
      • 5% dextrose should be started IV: While maintaining hydration is important, normal saline is preferred over dextrose solutions in this context to promote renal excretion of lithium.
      • Dialysis is not normally required unless levels are above 5 mmol/L: This statement is incorrect. Dialysis is often required at lower levels, particularly in cases of severe toxicity or if the patient is symptomatic, as seen in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - The transport of the di- and tri-peptides into enterocytes is by: ...

    Incorrect

    • The transport of the di- and tri-peptides into enterocytes is by:

      Your Answer: Cl- dependent peptide transporter 2

      Correct Answer: H+ dependent peptide transporter 1

      Explanation:

      Peptides longer that four amino acids are not absorbed. There is abundant absorption of di and tri peptidases in the small intestine. They are absorbed into the epithelial cell of the small intestine via a transporter called Peptide Transporter 1 by co transport with H+ ions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 14-year-old girl presents with short stature, webbed neck and primary amenorrhoea.Given the...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl presents with short stature, webbed neck and primary amenorrhoea.Given the likely clinical diagnosis, which hormone replacement is most crucial over the longer term?

      Your Answer: Progesterone

      Correct Answer: Oestrogen

      Explanation:

      This girl most likely has Turner syndrome (TS) also known as 45,X, a condition in which a female is partly or completely missing an X chromosome. Signs and symptoms vary among those affected. Often, a short and webbed neck, low-set ears, low hairline at the back of the neck, short stature, and swollen hands and feet are seen at birth. Typically, they are without menstrual periods, do not develop breasts, and are unable to have children. Heart defects, diabetes, and low thyroid hormone occur more frequently. Most people with TS have normal intelligence. Many, however, have troubles with spatial visualization such as that needed for mathematics. Vision and hearing problems occur more often. Turner syndrome is not usually inherited from a person’s parents. No environmental risks are known and the mother’s age does not play a role. As a chromosomal condition, there is no cure for Turner syndrome. However, much can be done to minimize the symptoms including prescribing growth hormone, either alone or with a low dose of androgen, and oestrogen replacement therapy which is crucial long term for maintaining good bone integrity, cardiovascular health and tissue health

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - Which serotonergic receptor is associated with vomiting? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which serotonergic receptor is associated with vomiting?

      Your Answer: 5ht2c

      Correct Answer: 5ht3

      Explanation:

      5ht3 is a receptor strongly associated with vomiting, present in vagal afferents, the solitary tract nucleus (STN), and the area posterior. For this reason, 5ht3 antagonists are commonly used as antiemetic drugs. They include ondansetron, tropisetron, and granisetron.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - An 80-year-old woman with advanced COPD has been admitted to the medicine ward...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman with advanced COPD has been admitted to the medicine ward in an unconscious state. She appears to have an acute lower respiratory tract infection. After consulting with an anaesthesiologist it was concluded that she was not a candidate for intensive care unit admission and thus, a decision was made to start the patient on doxapram therapy. Which of the following best fits the characteristics of doxapram?

      Your Answer: It is contraindicated in hyperthyroidism

      Explanation:

      The two statements that fit the characteristics of doxapram are, epilepsy is a contraindication for doxapram use and concurrent use with theophylline may increase agitation.Doxapram is a central respiratory stimulant. In clinical practice, doxapram is usually used for patients who have an acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who are unsuitable for admission to the intensive therapy unit for ventilatory support. Doxapram infusion may buy an extra 24 h to allow for recovery.Contraindications include: ischaemic heart disease, epilepsy, cerebral oedema, acute stroke, asthma, hypertension, hyperthyroidism, and pheochromocytoma. The infusion may worsen agitation and dyspnoea and lead to hypertension, nausea, vomiting and urinary retention.Drug interactions:Concomitant administration of doxapram and aminophylline (theophylline) can cause increased skeletal muscle activity, agitation, and hyperactivity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - Glucose transport in the brain is mediated by: ...

    Incorrect

    • Glucose transport in the brain is mediated by:

      Your Answer: GLUT 4

      Correct Answer: GLUT 1

      Explanation:

      The facilitative glucose transporter mediates the transport of glucose from blood into neurons and glia in the brain. The primary isoforms in the brain are GLUT1 detected at high concentrations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - The oligosaccharidases responsible for further digestion of starch after breakdown by the above...

    Incorrect

    • The oligosaccharidases responsible for further digestion of starch after breakdown by the above mentioned enzymes is located where?

      Your Answer: Colon

      Correct Answer: Brush border of small intestine

      Explanation:

      The final step in digestion of carbohydrates, which is conversion of disaccharides to absorbable monosaccharides occurs on the small intestinal epithelial cells. The enzymes responsible for this final stage of digestion are not freely found in the intestinal lumen, but they are found as integral membrane proteins in the plasma membrane of the epithelial cell. The apical plasma membrane of the intestinal epithelial cell has numerous microvilli known as the brush border. Thus, the enzymes embedded in those microvilli are referred to as brush border enzymes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - In the cardiac cycle, all of the following are true except: ...

    Incorrect

    • In the cardiac cycle, all of the following are true except:

      Your Answer: The left ventricular pressure is maximal just before the aortic valve opens

      Correct Answer: Mitral valve is closed by contraction of papillary muscles

      Explanation:

      Mitral valve is closed by contraction of papillary muscles: This statement is incorrect. The mitral valve closes due to the pressure difference between the left ventricle and the left atrium at the onset of ventricular systole. The papillary muscles contract to prevent prolapse of the valve into the atrium but do not cause the valve to close.

      The left ventricular volume is maximal at the end of atrial systole: This statement is true. At the end of atrial systole, the atria have pushed the remaining blood into the ventricles, making the ventricular volume maximal (end-diastolic volume).

      The left ventricular pressure is maximal just before the aortic valve opens: This statement is true. Left ventricular pressure peaks just before the aortic valve opens, as the ventricle contracts to overcome the pressure in the aorta.

      The ejection fraction is about 55%: This statement is true. The ejection fraction, which is the percentage of blood ejected from the ventricles with each contraction, is typically around 55%.

      The ‘a’ wave is due to atrial systole: This statement is true. The ‘a’ wave on the venous pressure curve corresponds to atrial systole, reflecting the increased pressure from atrial contraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - Concerning the functional unit of the liver, which segment is most susceptible to...

    Incorrect

    • Concerning the functional unit of the liver, which segment is most susceptible to hypoxic damage?

      Your Answer: Zone 1

      Correct Answer: Zone 3

      Explanation:

      From a metabolic perspective, the functional unit is the hepatic acinus (terminal acinus), each of which is centred on the line connecting two portal triads and extends outwards to the two adjacent central veins. The periportal zone I is nearest to the entering vascular supply and receives the most oxygenated blood, making it least sensitive to ischemic injury while making it very susceptible to viral hepatitis. Conversely, the centrilobular zone III has the poorest oxygenation, and will be most affected during a time of ischemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - The primary auditory cortex is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The primary auditory cortex is:

      Your Answer: Brodmann area 17

      Correct Answer: Brodmann area 41

      Explanation:

      A Brodmann area in the brain is defined by cytoarchitecture, histology and organization of cells:Primary Sensory 3,1,2Primary Motor 4Premotor 6Primary Visual 17Primary Auditory 41Brocas 44

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - An 82 year old man arrives at the clinic with painful right upper...

    Incorrect

    • An 82 year old man arrives at the clinic with painful right upper arm that he has been experiencing for the last few months. The pain is gradually worsening and often wakes him up at night. He is a known case of Paget's disease involving his lumbar spine and pelvis and is currently taking oral bisphosphonates. On examination, shoulder movements are intact. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his arm pain?

      Your Answer: Osteonecrosis

      Correct Answer: Osteosarcoma

      Explanation:

      Paget’s accelerates the remodelling process with old bone breaking down more quickly which disrupts the normal growth process. New bone development eventually adjusts to the faster pace and speeds up on its own. The pace is too fast for healthy bone growth, and the regrowth ends up softer and weaker than normal. The effect of this accelerated process causes bone pain, fractures, and deformities. Since osteosarcoma is a type of bone cancer linked to abnormal bone growth, this makes it a rare but possible complication of Paget’s disease although the chances of developing osteosarcoma are minimal. Fractures are painful and restrict movement whereas this patients pain is gradually developing. Pain associated with osteoarthritis is usually mild to moderate and worsens as the day progresses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      23.8
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - Which of the following is a product of D cells ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a product of D cells

      Your Answer: Somatostatin

      Explanation:

      Somatostatin is secreted by D cells, HCL and intrinsic factor secreted by parietal cells. Trefoil peptides are secreted by mucus secreting goblet cells and gastrin releasing peptide (grp) by post-ganglionic fibers of the vagus nerve (which innervate the G cells of the stomach).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      2.5
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 64 year old female presents with sudden onset pain, swelling and stiffness...

    Correct

    • A 64 year old female presents with sudden onset pain, swelling and stiffness in her right knee. Her medical history is significant for osteoarthritis affecting her hand joints and diet controlled diabetes mellitus. On examination, the right knee is swollen, erythematous and tender. Which of the following tests would be most useful in the diagnosis of this case?

      Your Answer: Aspiration and examination of the synovial fluid

      Explanation:

      Arthrocentesis should usually be done when there is a suspicion of pseudogout or septic arthritis as in this case which leads to an early diagnosis and prompt treatment. Polarized microscopy demonstrates weakly positively birefringent rhomboid crystals which are blue when parallel to light and yellow when perpendicular to light. Elevated serum uric acid levels that cause gout are usually found after large consumption of alcohol or meat, or post surgery. Autoimmune diseases like SLE, RA etc require an autoimmune screen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - H+ ions used in the production of acid by parietal cells is produced...

    Incorrect

    • H+ ions used in the production of acid by parietal cells is produced with the help of which enzyme?

      Your Answer: Pepsinogen

      Correct Answer: Carbonic anhydrase ii

      Explanation:

      Carbonic anhydrase enzyme catalyses the rapid interconversion of carbon dioxide and water to bicarbonate and protons (or vice versa). This is a reversible reaction that takes place in the gastric parietal cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - What is found in the posterior cavity of the eye? ...

    Correct

    • What is found in the posterior cavity of the eye?

      Your Answer: Vitreous humor

      Explanation:

      The eye ball contains an anterior cavity and a posterior cavity. The anterior cavity once again is divided into the anterior chamber and posterior chamber. The anterior cavity is filled with aqueous humor whereas the posterior cavity contains vitreous humor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - Which of the following is true of the Natriuretic hormones? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is true of the Natriuretic hormones?

      Your Answer: They are released in response to hypervolemia

      Explanation:

      Natriuretic hormones are vasodilators released in response to hypervolemia.

      Natriuretic hormones (NH) include three groups of compounds: the natriuretic peptides NPs (ANP, BNP and CNP), the gastrointestinal peptides (guanylin and uroguanylin), and endogenous cardiac steroids. These substances induce the kidney to excrete sodium and therefore participate in the regulation of sodium and water homeostasis, blood volume, and blood pressure (BP). In addition to their peripheral functions, these hormones act as neurotransmitters or neuromodulators in the brain.

      Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) plays a crucial role in blood pressure regulation by inducing natriuresis and diuresis in the kidney, inhibiting renin secretion, aldosterone production, and promoting vasorelaxation.  Two paracrine factors derived from endothelial cells play important roles in modulating ANP secretion. Endothelin, a potent vasoconstrictor, stimulates ANP secretion and augments stretch induced ANP secretion. The dramatic increase in ANP release produced by cardiac ischemia appears to be mediated in part by endothelin. Nitric oxide (NO), an important vasodilator, is also produced by endothelial cells and inhibits ANP secretion.

      Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) shares ANP’s receptor but is primarily associated with antifibrotic effects in ventricular remodeling, serving as a biomarker for heart failure and myocardial infarction.

      C-type natriuretic peptide (CNP) acts locally in an autocrine/paracrine manner, exerting potent cardiovascular effects, including vasorelaxation and vascular remodeling post-injury. NPs also demonstrate diverse effects beyond cardiovascular and renal systems, such as bronchodilation, anti-inflammatory actions, and metabolic effects on adipose tissue and long bones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - The parasympathetic function of the facial nerve is: ...

    Correct

    • The parasympathetic function of the facial nerve is:

      Your Answer: Secretion of tears from lacrimal glands, secretion of saliva from the sublingual and submandibular salivary glands.

      Explanation:

      Facial nerve (Cranial Nerve VII) has both sensory and motor components so it is a mixed nerve. It carries axons of:General somatic afferent – to skin and the posterior earGeneral visceral efferent – which innervate sublingual, submandibular and lacrimal glands and the mucosa of the nasal cavity.General visceral afferent – provide sensation to soft palate and parts of the nasal cavity.Special visceral efferent – innervate muscles of facial expression and stapedius, the posterior belly of the digastric and the stylohyoid musclesSpecial visceral afferent – provide taste to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue via chorda tympani.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - Calcium needed for cardiac muscle contraction is made available during which phase of...

    Correct

    • Calcium needed for cardiac muscle contraction is made available during which phase of the action potential?

      Your Answer: 2

      Explanation:

      It is made available during the plateau phase of the action potential i.e. phase 2. During the plateau phase of the action potential, Calcium from the extracellular fluid enters through the L type of calcium channels. This entry triggers the release of more calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum via the ryanodine receptors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - Which of the following does not contribute to increased stroke volume during exercise?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following does not contribute to increased stroke volume during exercise?

      Your Answer: Increased length of filling time during diastole

      Explanation:

      Prolonged aerobic exercise training may also increase stroke volume, which frequently results in a lower (resting) heart rate. Reduced heart rate prolongs ventricular diastole (filling), increasing end-diastolic volume, and ultimately allowing more blood to be ejected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - The following products of the vascular endothelium produce vasodilation except: ...

    Correct

    • The following products of the vascular endothelium produce vasodilation except:

      Your Answer: Endothelin

      Explanation:

      Endothelin: This is incorrect in the context of vasodilation. Endothelin is actually a potent vasoconstrictor produced by the endothelium, leading to the narrowing of blood vessels and increased blood pressure.

      Nitrous oxide (Nitric oxide): This is correct for vasodilation. Nitric oxide is a powerful vasodilator produced by the endothelium, which helps relax and widen blood vessels.

      Prostacyclin: This is correct for vasodilation. Prostacyclin (PGI2) is a vasodilator and inhibits platelet aggregation, helping to maintain blood flow and reduce clot formation.

      Endothelial-derived hyperpolarizing factor (EDHF): This is correct for vasodilation. EDHF causes vasodilation by hyperpolarizing the smooth muscle cells of blood vessels.

      Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF): This is correct for vasodilation. VEGF primarily promotes the growth of new blood vessels but also has vasodilatory effects through nitric oxide production.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - Which substance has the lowest taste threshold concentration, in other words which substance...

    Correct

    • Which substance has the lowest taste threshold concentration, in other words which substance can be present in the lowest concentration before taste buds will respond?

      Your Answer: Strychnine hydrochloride (bitter)

      Explanation:

      The lowest concentration of a gustatory stimulus to which the taste buds respond is considered to be the threshold concentration for that substance. The threshold concentration for strychnine is 0.0001 mm; this is because it allows the body to detect potentially dangerous substances (bitter plant components) at lower concentrations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - A 55 year old cardiac patient is comfortable at rest but heavy housework...

    Correct

    • A 55 year old cardiac patient is comfortable at rest but heavy housework results in fatigue, palpitations or dyspnoea. What New York Heart Association class best describes the severity of their disease?

      Your Answer: NYHA Class II

      Explanation:

      New York Heart Association functional classification:

      Class I: no limitation is experienced in any activities; there are no symptoms from ordinary activities.

      Class II: slight, mild limitation of activity; the patient is comfortable at rest or with mild exertion.

      Class III: marked limitation of any activity; the patient is comfortable only at rest.

      Class IV: any physical activity brings on discomfort and symptoms occur at rest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - A 32 year old man presents with blistering and hyperpigmentation on his face...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old man presents with blistering and hyperpigmentation on his face and hands, after a beach holiday with friends. Tests reveal high levels of uroporphyrinogen in the urine. The most likely diagnosis is:

      Your Answer: Porphyria cutanea tarda

      Explanation:

      Porphyria cutanea tarda (PCT) is the most common of the porphyries. It is characterised by fragility and blistering of exposed skin. Typically, patients who are ultimately diagnosed with PCT first seek treatment following the development photosensitivities in the form of blisters and erosions on commonly exposed areas of the skin. This is usually observed in the face, hands, forearms, and lower legs. It heals slowly and with scarring. Though blisters are the most common skin manifestations of PCT, other skin manifestations like hyperpigmentation (as if they are getting a tan) and hypertrichosis (mainly on top of the cheeks) also occur. Risk factors for the development of PCT include alcohol and sun.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - The predominant receptors in the hearts conduction system are? ...

    Correct

    • The predominant receptors in the hearts conduction system are?

      Your Answer: Β1

      Explanation:

      All of the components of the intrinsic conduction system contain autorhythmic cells that spontaneously depolarize. In the absence of extrinsic neural or hormonal influences, the SA node pacing rate would be about 100 beats per minute (bpm). The heart rate and cardiac output, however, must vary in response to the needs of the body’s cells for oxygen and nutrients under varying conditions. In order to respond rapidly to changing requirements of the body’s tissues, the heart rate and contractility are regulated by the autonomic nervous system (ANS), hormones, and other factors. The ANS has two interacting systems: the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems.

      Sympathetic receptors: There are two types of adrenergic receptors: β and α. In the cardiovascular system there are β1, β2, α1, and α2 adrenergic receptors. β1 adrenergic receptors are expressed in the heart conduction system (in the SA node, AV node, and on atrial and ventricular cardiomyocytes). The activation of β1 receptors increases heart rate (via the SA node), and contractility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - The brainstem contains which of the following structures? ...

    Correct

    • The brainstem contains which of the following structures?

      Your Answer: The midbrain, pons and medulla

      Explanation:

      Brain stem is the base of the brain that connects the brain to the spinal cord. It consists of the mid brain, pons and medulla oblongata.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - Which of the following describes a principal action of insulin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following describes a principal action of insulin?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of protein degradation

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of phosphorylase and gluconeogenic enzymes

      Explanation:

      Insulin stimulates glycolysis and lipogenesis, but inhibits gluconeogenesis. Insulin promotes the dephosphorylating of glycogen phosphorylase, therefore suppressing glycogenolysis. Insulin also inhibits FOX3, FOX4, and FOX6 and their ability to promote hepatic gluconeogenesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - Which of the following is not true regarding mitochondrial chromosome disorders? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not true regarding mitochondrial chromosome disorders?

      Your Answer: Because mitochondrial chromosomes have no introns in their genes, any point mutation has a low likelihood of having an effect.

      Explanation:

      Any point mutation in any part of the mitochondrial DNA will lead to a mutated mitochondria and will likewise have its ill effect on the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - Which of the following forms the language areas of the cerebral cortex? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following forms the language areas of the cerebral cortex?

      Your Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      Broca’s area, Wernicke’s area, the submarginal sulcus and the angular gyrus all form the language areas of the cerebral cortex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - A 22-year-old female comes to you for counselling regarding the initiation of combined...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old female comes to you for counselling regarding the initiation of combined oral contraceptive pill. Which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: She will still be protected against pregnancy if she takes amoxicillin for a lower respiratory tract infection while on the combined pill

      Explanation:

      The true statement among the given options is that she will still be protected against pregnancy if she takes amoxicillin for a lower respiratory tract infection while on the combined pill.Other than enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin, antibiotics do not reduce the efficacy of the combined oral contraceptive pill.It was previously advised that barrier methods of contraception should be used if taking an antibiotic while using the contraceptive pill, due to concerns that antibiotics might reduce the absorption of the pill. This is now known to be untrue. However, if the absorptive ability of the gut is compromised for another reason, such as severe diarrhoea or vomiting, or bowel disease, this may affect the efficacy of the pill.The exception to the antibiotic rule is that hepatic enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin and rifaximin do reduce the efficacy of the pill. Other enzyme-inducing drugs, such as phenytoin, phenobarbital, carbamazepine or St John’s Wort can also reduce the effectiveness of the pill.Other options:The combined pill is often prescribed for women with heavy periods as it can make them lighter and less painful. There is no evidence that women on the combined pill put on any significant weight, although they may experience bloating at certain times in the course. Women on the pill require monitoring of their blood pressure. There are multiple different types of combined pills.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      172.8
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - The Plateau phase in myocyte action potentials does all of the following except:...

    Correct

    • The Plateau phase in myocyte action potentials does all of the following except:

      Your Answer: It allows early reactivation of the myocytes

      Explanation:

      The presence of the plateau in the action potential causes ventricular contraction to last as much as 15 times longer in cardiac muscle as in skeletal muscle. The plateau phase which follows is unique to myocytes and results from a small, but sustained inward calcium current through L-type calcium channels lasting 200-400 ms. This calcium influx is caused by a combined increase in permeability of the cell and especially the sarcolemmal membranes to calcium. This plateau (refractory) phase prevents early reactivation of the myocytes and directly determines the strength of contraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      82
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - With regard to X-linked disorders which of the following are true: ...

    Incorrect

    • With regard to X-linked disorders which of the following are true:

      Your Answer: They are relatively common but their expression is variable

      Correct Answer: X linked recessive disorders usually present in males and only very rarely present in homozygous females

      Explanation:

      X linked disorders are more common in males as they only need one mutated copy of the X chromosome to manifest the disease with full severity while the females need two X chromosomes to manifest the disease, even with one defected X chromosome the severity is less than that seen in males.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - One function of the liver is synthesis and storage of protein. Which of...

    Correct

    • One function of the liver is synthesis and storage of protein. Which of the following will result in hypoalbuminemia?

      Your Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      Both trauma and sepsis cause an acute inflammatory response causing plasma leakage of albumin. Nephropathy causes leakage of albumin from glomeruli and excretion of albumin in urine known as albuminuria. A hypercatabolic state is characterized by increased circulating catabolic hormones and increase break down of proteins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - Which of the following is false with regard to the following statement: Proto-...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is false with regard to the following statement: Proto- oncogenes can be transformed to oncogenes in the following ways.

      Your Answer: Mutations in the genomic DNA

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of P53

      Explanation:

      Proto oncogenes cannot be transformed into oncogenes due to inhibition of P53 gene. There has to be a mutation in the proto oncogene. All the other options are true.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - A 33 year old female presents with dyspnoea, myalgia, arthralgia and a skin...

    Correct

    • A 33 year old female presents with dyspnoea, myalgia, arthralgia and a skin rash. The presence of which of the following antibodies would be the most specific for SLE?

      Your Answer: Anti-Sm

      Explanation:

      Anti-Sm antibodies are essential for diagnosis of SLE, especially in anti-dsDNA-negative patients. ANA are also found in 95% of the patients with SLE but they may also occur with other conditions like Juvenile inflammatory arthritis, chronic activity hepatitis, and Sjogren’s syndrome. Anti-Ro, although also found with SLE are more characteristic of Sjogren Syndrome. RF is usually associated with rheumatoid arthritis and cANCA with Wegener’s granulomatosis, Churg Strauss, and microscopic polyangiitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - Periodic fevers occur in humans with mutations in the gene for pyrin. Pyrin...

    Correct

    • Periodic fevers occur in humans with mutations in the gene for pyrin. Pyrin is a protein found in which one of the following cells?

      Your Answer: Neutrophils

      Explanation:

      Pyrin, also known as marenostrin or TRIM20, is a protein encoded by the Mediterranean fever (MEFV) gene, causing the autoinflammatory disease familial Mediterranean fever (FMF). Pyrin produces an increased sensitivity to intracellular signals. It is produced mainly in neutrophils, which display an increased ratio of cells entering apoptosis when exposed to pyrin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - A 50-year-old woman diagnosed with non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma is about to be started on...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman diagnosed with non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma is about to be started on the CHOP regimen (cyclophosphamide, hydroxydaunorubicin, vincristine, and prednisolone). Her pre-chemotherapy blood investigations show:Hb: 11.8 g/dlPlatelets: 423 x 109/lWBC: 11.2 x 109/lNa+: 143 mmol/lK+: 3.9 mmol/lUrea: 6.2 mmol/lCreatinine: 78 μmol/lUric acid: 0.45 mmol/lCiprofloxacin is prescribed in addition to the CHOP regimen to reduce the risk of neutropenic sepsis. Which of the following drugs should be added to lower the risk of other complications?

      Your Answer: Allopurinol

      Explanation:

      Tumour lysis syndrome (TLS) occurs most notably in patients with haematological malignancies including, Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma (NHL) and Acute Lymphocytic Leukaemia (ALL).Risk factors for TLS include:• Large tumour burden• Sensitivity of the tumour to chemotherapy• Rapid tumour growth rateTLS is characterized by:• Hyperuricemia• Hyperkalaemia• Hyperphosphatemia• HypocalcaemiaTreatment of TLS:• Allopurinol: It is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor, it reduces the conversion of nucleic acid by-products to uric acid. Thus, it prevents urate nephropathy and subsequent oliguric renal failure. Note: dose reduction is essential in renal failure or if given along with mercaptopurine or azathioprine.Alternatives to Allopurinol: Febuxostat; Rasburicase are useful in patients with hyperuricemia.• Hydration• Diuresis: Should be considered in well hydrated patients with insufficient urine output. Furosemide to be considered in normo-volemic patients with hyperkalaemia. Urine alkalization can be considered for promoting alkaline diuresis.• Treatment of electrolyte imbalances including hyperkalaemia, hyperphosphatemia, and hypocalcaemia.• Dialysis can be considered in refractory cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - Which coronary artery supplies the right atria? ...

    Correct

    • Which coronary artery supplies the right atria?

      Your Answer: Right coronary

      Explanation:

      The left coronary artery distributes blood to the left side of the heart, the left atrium and ventricle, and the interventricular septum. The circumflex artery arises from the left coronary artery and follows the coronary sulcus to the left. Eventually, it will fuse with the small branches of the right coronary artery. The right coronary artery proceeds along the coronary sulcus and distributes blood to the right atrium, portions of both ventricles, and the heart conduction system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - Which mechanism of action do Quinolones use? ...

    Correct

    • Which mechanism of action do Quinolones use?

      Your Answer: Inhibit DNA gyrase

      Explanation:

      The quinolones are a family of synthetic broad-spectrum antibiotic drugs. Quinolones exert their antibacterial effect by preventing bacterial DNA from unwinding and duplicating.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - Which afferent information is carried by the dorsal column? ...

    Correct

    • Which afferent information is carried by the dorsal column?

      Your Answer: Proprioception/ discriminative touch

      Explanation:

      The posterior grey column (dorsal column) is responsible for carrying the sensation of proprioception, two-point discrimination, and vibration to the nucleus proprius, situated anterior to the substantia gelatinosa throughout the spinal cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - Which of the following associations is false? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following associations is false?

      Your Answer: Facial nerve – stylomastoid foramen

      Correct Answer: Mandibular nerve – foramen lacerum

      Explanation:

      – The olfactory nerves pass through the cribriform plate- The maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve passes through the foramen rotundum- The facial nerve passes through the stylomastoid foramen- The mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve pass through the foramen ovale- The glossopharyngeal nerve passes through the jugular foramen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - In a knockout mouse model the process used to combine the new DNA...

    Incorrect

    • In a knockout mouse model the process used to combine the new DNA sequence and the stem cells is known as:

      Your Answer: Recombination

      Correct Answer: Insertion

      Explanation:

      Chimerisation is also known as the formation of recombinant DNA. When a foreign DNA sequence is inserted into a plasmid or other DNA sequence, this process is known as insertion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - Vasodilatation of coronary arteries is caused by: ...

    Correct

    • Vasodilatation of coronary arteries is caused by:

      Your Answer: Hypoxia

      Explanation:

      The heart is highly metabolically active and boasts the highest oxygen consumption by mass of any organ. This demand for oxygen is met by the coronary circulation, which is responsible for delivering blood to the myocardium and represents approximately 5% of cardiac output. Vasodilation may be due to the local effect of hypoxia on coronary vessels, or local metabolic vasodilation, or the activation of β-adrenoceptors or some combination of these mechanisms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - In ventricular fibrillation (VF), the first defibrillation attempt (with a biphasic defibrillator) should...

    Incorrect

    • In ventricular fibrillation (VF), the first defibrillation attempt (with a biphasic defibrillator) should be made at:

      Your Answer: 100 J

      Correct Answer: 200 J

      Explanation:

      Defibrillation is a common treatment for life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias and ventricular fibrillation. If the patient is in Ventricular tachycardia (VT) or ventricular fibrillation (VF) on the monitor, immediately apply the pads and shock the patient with 120-200 Joules on a biphasic defibrillator or 360 Joules on a monophasic defibrillator.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - Which of the following cancers is responsible in producing osteoblastic bone metastases instead...

    Correct

    • Which of the following cancers is responsible in producing osteoblastic bone metastases instead of osteolytic?

      Your Answer: Prostate adenocarcinoma

      Explanation:

      Osteoblastic (or sclerotic) bone metastases, characterized by deposition of new bone, present in prostate cancer, carcinoid, small cell lung cancer, Hodgkin lymphoma or medulloblastoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - Wernicke’s area: ...

    Incorrect

    • Wernicke’s area:

      Your Answer: Is concerned with processing information from words that are read

      Correct Answer: Is concerned with comprehension of auditory and visual information

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s area is located in the categorical hemisphere or left hemisphere in about 95% of right handed individuals and 60% of left handed individuals. It is involved in the comprehension or understanding of written and spoken language. In contrast Broca’s area is involved in production of language.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - Which of the following may be a feature of primary hyperaldosteronism? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following may be a feature of primary hyperaldosteronism?

      Your Answer: Hyponatraemia

      Correct Answer: Muscular weakness

      Explanation:

      Primary hyperaldosteronism or Conn’s syndrome is characterised by hypertension which may cause poor vision or headaches. Occasionally there may be muscular weakness, muscle spasms, tingling sensations, or excessive urination. Complications include cardiovascular disease such as stroke, myocardial infarction, kidney failure, and abnormal heart rhythms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - The majority of corticospinal tract fibers decussate in the: ...

    Correct

    • The majority of corticospinal tract fibers decussate in the:

      Your Answer: Medulla

      Explanation:

      The corticospinal tract is a descending motor path way that begins in the cerebral cortex and decussates in the pyramids of the medulla.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - A 23 year old man presents with a painful right elbow and left...

    Incorrect

    • A 23 year old man presents with a painful right elbow and left Achilles tendon. He also gives history of dysuria, fever and conjunctivitis. Examination reveals macules and pustules on his hands. He has returned from a trip to Far East 3 weeks ago and admits to having unprotected sex. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gonococcal arthritis

      Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      Reactive arthritis, (formerly known as Reiter’s syndrome), is an autoimmune condition that occurs after a bacterial infection of the gastrointestinal or urinary tract. It is categorized as a seronegative spondylarthritis because of its association with HLA-B27. Reactive arthritis primarily affects young men and usually presents with musculoskeletal or extra‑articular symptoms. The characteristic triad consists of arthritis, conjunctivitis, and urethritis. The diagnosis is based on clinical features such as patient history and physical examination; there are no specific tests for reactive arthritis. Treatment is primarily symptomatic and consists of the administration of NSAIDs, as most patients recover spontaneously. extraarticular dermatologic manifestations include skin lesions of the glans resembling psoriasis (balanitis circinata); hyperkeratinisation of the palms and soles (keratoderma blenorrhagicum), oral ulcers. Other STDs including HIV, syphilis have different presentations. Psoriatic arthritis is not commonly associated with urethritis and conjunctivitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      24.7
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - The initial rapid depolarization in the action potential of cardiac muscle cells is...

    Correct

    • The initial rapid depolarization in the action potential of cardiac muscle cells is due to:

      Your Answer: Opening of voltage-gated Na+ channels

      Explanation:

      The initial depolarization of the action potential in a cardiac muscle cell is due to the sodium current generated by opening of the voltage gated sodium channels leading to an influx of sodium ions into the cell and raising the membrane potential towards threshold.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - An example of cholinergic autonomic neurons are: ...

    Correct

    • An example of cholinergic autonomic neurons are:

      Your Answer: Sympathetic postganglionic neurons that innervate sweat glands.

      Explanation:

      All preganglionic neurons in both the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system secrete acetylcholine. The postganglionic neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic nervous system in all neurons is acetylcholine. Postganglionic fibers of the sympathetic nervous system mainly secrete Noradrenalin and Adrenalin but at sweat glands and erector pili muscles the postganglionic neurotransmitter is acetylcholine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - In which cell would you find a Nissl body? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which cell would you find a Nissl body?

      Your Answer: Schwann cell

      Correct Answer: Bipolar neuron

      Explanation:

      Nissl bodies are the structures of protein synthesis in neurones. They are granular bodies of Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum and ribosomes. Astrocytes, Microglia, Schwann cell, oligodendrocytes are collectively known as glia or supporting cells of the nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - In the gastric mucosa, which of the following cells is known to secrete...

    Correct

    • In the gastric mucosa, which of the following cells is known to secrete gastric lipase?

      Your Answer: Chief cell

      Explanation:

      Chief cells produce pepsinogen and gastric lipase. Parietal cells produce stomach acid and intrinsic factor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - Which of the following statements is true about chromosomes? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true about chromosomes?

      Your Answer: The centromere divides the chromosome into the long (q) and short (p) arms

      Correct Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      All of the above mentioned statements are true regarding chromosomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - Select the correct statement regarding terminal bronchioles: ...

    Correct

    • Select the correct statement regarding terminal bronchioles:

      Your Answer: Terminal bronchioles form part of the conducting zone

      Explanation:

      Bronchioles divide into even smaller bronchioles, called terminal bronchioles, which are 0.5mm or less in diameter. Terminal bronchioles in turn divide into smaller respiratory bronchioles which divide into alveolar ducts. Terminal bronchioles mark the end of the conducting division of air flow in the respiratory system while respiratory bronchioles are the beginning of the respiratory division where actual gas exchange takes place. Terminal bronchioles are lined with simple cuboidal epithelium containing club cells. Terminal bronchioles contain a limited number of ciliated cells and no goblet cells. Club cells are non-ciliated, rounded protein secreting cells. Their secretions are a non-stick, proteinaceous compound (surfactant) to maintain the airway in the smallest bronchioles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Respiratory
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - Which of the following would provide relief from nausea and vomiting? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following would provide relief from nausea and vomiting?

      Your Answer: Bromocriptine

      Correct Answer: Cannabinoids

      Explanation:

      Ondansetron, chlorpromazine and haloperidol are effective antiemetic agents. Corticosteroids, cannabinoids, and benzodiazepines, alone or in combination with 5-HT3 and D2 antagonists, are also useful in the treatment of vomiting produced by chemotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - Where does the pituitary gland lie? ...

    Correct

    • Where does the pituitary gland lie?

      Your Answer: In a pocket of the sphenoid bone at the base of the brain

      Explanation:

      The pituitary lies in a small depression in the sphenoid bone, known as the sella turcica or Turkish saddle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - The spleen underlies which ribs? ...

    Correct

    • The spleen underlies which ribs?

      Your Answer: 9 through 11

      Explanation:

      The spleen lies between the 9th and 11th ribs on the left hand side.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      2.1
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - All of the following are consistent with the indicator dilution method except--- ...

    Correct

    • All of the following are consistent with the indicator dilution method except---

      Your Answer: In thermodilution, the indicator used is warm saline

      Explanation:

      In thermodilution, the indicator used is cold saline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - Which statement is incorrect regarding nociceptor C fibers… ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is incorrect regarding nociceptor C fibers…

      Your Answer: They conduct at low rates (0.5-2 m/s)

      Correct Answer: They are thinly myelinated

      Explanation:

      Group C nerve fibers are unmyelinated and have a small diameter, which means they conduct impulses at a low velocity. They carry sensory information and nociception.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - Within the hypothalamus, the dopamine-secreting neurones of the intrahypothalamic system have their cell...

    Correct

    • Within the hypothalamus, the dopamine-secreting neurones of the intrahypothalamic system have their cell bodies in which nuclei?

      Your Answer: Arcuate

      Explanation:

      Arcuate nucleus dopaminergic neurons consist of a single group of neurons that project to the median eminence where they release dopamine into the hypophyseal portal circulation to inhibit pituitary prolactin secretion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - As assessed by immunocytochemistry and electron microscopy, the anterior pituitary gland contains how...

    Correct

    • As assessed by immunocytochemistry and electron microscopy, the anterior pituitary gland contains how many different types of cells?

      Your Answer: 5

      Explanation:

      The pituitary is divided into three sections

      -the anterior lobe which constitute the majority of the pituitary mass and is composed primarily of five hormone-producing cell types (thyrotropes, lactotropes, corticotropes, somatotropes and gonadotropes) each secreting thyrotropin, prolactin, ACTH, growth hormone and gonadotropins (FSH and LH) respectively.

      There is also a sixth cell type in the anterior lobe -the non-endocrine, agranular, folliculostellate cells.

      The intermediate lobe produces melanocyte-stimulating hormone and endorphins, whereas the posterior lobe secretes anti-diuretic hormone (vasopressin) and oxytocin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - Which statement is correct about the clinical state of methemoglobinemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is correct about the clinical state of methemoglobinemia?

      Your Answer: Methaemoglobin, present in the circulation in small quantities, can resemble cyanosis.

      Correct Answer: May arise due to a hereditary deficiency of NADH.

      Explanation:

      Methaemoglobin is a form of haemoglobin that contains ferric [Fe3+] iron and has a decreased ability to bind oxygen. Spontaneously formed methaemoglobin is normally reduced by protective enzyme systems, e.g., NADH methaemoglobin reductase, hence a deficiency of NADH may result in increased levels of methaemoglobin

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - The small opening in the cochlea through which the upper scala vestibuli and...

    Correct

    • The small opening in the cochlea through which the upper scala vestibuli and lower scala tympani communicates is called the:

      Your Answer: Helicotrema

      Explanation:

      The helicotrema is the part of cochlear labyrinth where the scala tympani and the scala vestibuli meet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - On a mountain the atmospheric pressure is 700 mmHg and the humidity close...

    Correct

    • On a mountain the atmospheric pressure is 700 mmHg and the humidity close to zero, the partial pressure of oxygen is:

      Your Answer: 147 mmHg

      Explanation:

      Natural air includes approximately 21% of oxygen. If humidity is zero, the partial pressure of oxygen is 700 × 21% = 147 mmHg

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Respiratory
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - Which one of the following nerve fibers has the fastest conduction velocity? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following nerve fibers has the fastest conduction velocity?

      Your Answer: α fiber

      Explanation:

      α nerve fibers are characterized by being highly myelinated, which confers them with fast conduction properties. They innervate extrafusal skeletal muscle fibers, and their conduction velocity is between 80-120 m/s.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - The transporter responsible for most glucose absorption in the lumen of the small...

    Incorrect

    • The transporter responsible for most glucose absorption in the lumen of the small intestine is called?

      Your Answer: GLUT 1

      Correct Answer: SGLT 1

      Explanation:

      GLUT = Glucose transporter. GLUT are a family of proteins of different types. GLUT 1 is mainly expressed in erythrocytes, whereas GLUT 2 is mainly expressed by, liver cells and renal tubular cells. GLUT 5 is a sucrose transporter in enterocytes. SGLT- Sodium-dependent glucose cotransporter or sodium-glucose linked transporter are a family of proteins of different types. SGLT1 transporter is found in the intestinal mucosa of the small intestine and SGLT2 in the proximal tubule of the nephron.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - Cells responsible for completely renewing the epithelium of the intestine are located: ...

    Incorrect

    • Cells responsible for completely renewing the epithelium of the intestine are located:

      Your Answer: In the lamina propria

      Correct Answer: At the base of the crypts

      Explanation:

      Epithelial cells are renewed every 4-5 days through a process of renewal and migration. Renewal relies on proliferative cells or stem cells that reside at the crypt base of the intestinal glands. Crypts are epithelial invasions into the underlying connective tissue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      6.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Immunology (2/3) 67%
Medicine (64/100) 64%
Genetics (3/8) 38%
Haematology (4/6) 67%
Cardiovascular (21/24) 88%
Pharmacology (5/6) 83%
Hepatobiliary (1/2) 50%
Endocrinology (5/8) 63%
Neurology (11/18) 61%
Gastrointestinal (3/11) 27%
Connective Tissue (5/8) 63%
Cell Biology (0/1) 0%
Respiratory (2/3) 67%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Passmed