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  • Question 1 - A 41-year-old male experiences hand tremors that are absent at rest, but aggravated...

    Correct

    • A 41-year-old male experiences hand tremors that are absent at rest, but aggravated on extension and continuous with movement. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Benign essential tremor

      Explanation:

      Tremors that linger on movement, seen on an outstretched hand, and absent on rest are called benign essential tremors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      20.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 25-year-old male presented with an episode of syncope. His examination findings were...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old male presented with an episode of syncope. His examination findings were normal. He gave a history of sudden cardiac death of a close relative. His ECG showed incomplete right bundle-branch block and ST-segment elevations in the anterior precordial leads. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Brugada syndrome

      Explanation:

      Brugada syndrome is an autosomal dominant disorder characterized by sudden cardiac death. The positive family history and characteristic ECG findings are in favour of Brugada syndrome. Usually the physical findings are normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A woman with severe renal failure undergoes a kidney transplant. However, after a...

    Incorrect

    • A woman with severe renal failure undergoes a kidney transplant. However, after a few hours, she develops fever and anuria. The doctors are suspecting hyperacute organ rejection. Which are the cells primarily responsible for hyperacute organ rejection?

      Your Answer: Helper T Cells

      Correct Answer: B Cells

      Explanation:

      Hyperacute rejection appears in the first minutes following transplantation and occurs only in vascularized grafts. This very fast rejection is characterized by vessel thrombosis leading to graft necrosis. Hyperacute rejection is caused by the presence of antidonor antibodies existing in the recipient before transplantation. These antibodies induce both complement activation and stimulation of endothelial cells to secrete Von Willebrand procoagulant factor, resulting in platelet adhesion and aggregation. The result of these series of reactions is the generation of intravascular thrombosis leading to lesion formation and ultimately to graft loss. Today, this type of rejection is avoided in most cases by checking for ABO compatibility and by excluding the presence of antidonor human leukocyte antigen (HLA) antibodies by cross-match techniques between donor graft cells and recipient sera. This type of rejection is also observed in models of xenotransplantation of vascularized organs between phylogenetically distant species when no immunosuppressive treatment is given to the recipients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A patient was admitted due to vomiting for further investigations. He noticed blood...

    Incorrect

    • A patient was admitted due to vomiting for further investigations. He noticed blood in his vomit and the physicians decided to perform an esophagogastroduodenoscopy which revealed haemorrhage in the lesser curvature of the stomach. Which artery is responsible for the bleeding?

      Your Answer: Pancreaticoduodenal artery

      Correct Answer: Right gastric artery

      Explanation:

      The right gastric artery arises from the hepatic artery or the left hepatic artery and supplies the pylorus, traveling along the lesser curvature of the stomach anastomosing with the left gastric artery.
      The pancreaticoduodenal artery supplies mainly the upper and lower duodenum and the head of the pancreas.
      The gastro-omental arteries supply the greater curvature of the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      33.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 85-year-old male with a history of hypertension presented with a couple of...

    Incorrect

    • A 85-year-old male with a history of hypertension presented with a couple of pre-syncopal episodes. He describes these episodes as him having felt as if he was going to faint and he has had to sit down. There were no precipitating factors, associated chest pain or palpitations. He doesn't have chest pain, shortness of breath on exertion, orthopnoea or paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea. On examination he looked well. Blood pressure was 140/80 mmHg and pulse rate was 78 bpm which was irregular. His lungs were clear and heart sounds were normal. ECG showed sinus rhythm with occasional ventricular ectopic beats. Which of the following is an indication for permanent pacemaker implantation?

      Your Answer: Sinus pauses of >3.0 s

      Correct Answer: Second-degree block associated with symptoms

      Explanation:

      Indications for permanent pacemaker implantation

      -Sinus node dysfunction
      -Acquired Atrioventricular(AV) block (Complete third-degree AV block with or without symptoms, Symptomatic second degree AV block, Mobitz type I and II, Exercise-induced second or third degree AV block in the absence of myocardial infarction, Mobitz II with widened QRS complex)
      -Chronic bifascicular block
      -After acute phase of myocardial infarction
      -Neurocardiogenic syncope and hypersensitive carotid sinus syndrome
      -Post cardiac transplantation
      -Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
      -Pacing to detect and terminate tachycardia
      -Cardiac resynchronization therapy in patients with severe systolic heart failure
      -Patients with congenital heart disease

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      49.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - An soccer player suddenly collapsed on the field and started coughing along with...

    Correct

    • An soccer player suddenly collapsed on the field and started coughing along with shortness of breath. The investigation of choice in this case would be?

      Your Answer: Chest x-ray

      Explanation:

      Exercise induced asthma is characterised by sudden onset wheezing, cough and shortness of breath while performing hectic physical activity. The best investigation to perform is a chest X-ray.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - An 86-year-old woman accidentally inhaled her hearing aid due to her advanced Alzheimer's...

    Correct

    • An 86-year-old woman accidentally inhaled her hearing aid due to her advanced Alzheimer's dementia. Upon clinical examination, her respiratory rate is found to be 35, and thus a bronchoscopy is recommended. According to which of the following would you obtain consent for this patient?

      Your Answer: The procedure does not require a written consent

      Explanation:

      This is an emergency case regarding a patient with impaired cognitive functioning. This is why the procedure does not require a written consent. In any other case where the patient has a normal mental capacity, the consent would be obtained as an informed written consent. In this case however, the suggested procedure is almost a matter of life and death, the doctor being required to act on behalf of the patient to her optimal advantage. Under English law no other person can consent to treatment on behalf of an adult, though it is desirable that next of kin are consulted before treating an adult without consent. Recent legislation gives legal authority to people appointed by the patient, or by the state, or a relative or carer, to consent (or refuse) on behalf of the patient. A mini-mental score may not adequately identify those unable to give consent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatric Medicine
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 60-year old male presented to the OPD with a complaint of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year old male presented to the OPD with a complaint of a rusty-coloured sputum along with a cough for 3 days. His has a history of smoking for 40 years, and a history of significant weight loss. His chest X-ray revealed solid nodules in both lungs and bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. Out of the following, which one is the most appropriate investigation?

      Your Answer: Pleural fluid cytology

      Correct Answer: LN biopsy

      Explanation:

      The patient’s age, a history of long-term smoking, and bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy are strong indications of malignancy. Lymph node biopsy would be essential in order to check the degree of metastasis in the mediastinal lymph nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      29.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 33-year-old man presents with recurrent episodes of abdominal pain associated with weakness...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old man presents with recurrent episodes of abdominal pain associated with weakness of his arms and legs.

      Which one of the following urine tests would best indicate lead toxicity?

      Your Answer: Coproporphyrin

      Explanation:

      Lead poisoning is characterised by abdominal pain, fatigue, constipation, peripheral neuropathy (mainly motor), and blue lines on gum margin in 20% of the adult patients (very rare in children).

      For diagnosis, the level of lead in blood is usually considered with levels greater than 10 mcg/dL being significant. Furthermore, the blood film shows microcytic anaemia and basophilic stippling of red blood cells. Urinary coproporphyrin is increased (urinary porphobilinogen and uroporphyrin levels are normal to slightly increased). Raised serum and urine levels of delta-aminolaevulinic acid may also be seen, making it sometimes difficult to differentiate from acute intermittent porphyria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A young woman is concerned that she has put on weight since she...

    Correct

    • A young woman is concerned that she has put on weight since she was a medical student, as she now no longer finds time to exercise. She decides to try various weight loss tablets temporarily.
      After 2 months, she is successfully losing weight but also has trouble with increased stool frequency, difficulty in climbing stairs and getting up out of chairs. However, she has no problems walking on the flat.
      She also has difficulty in sleeping at the moment but puts that down to the increased frequency of headaches for the past 2 months.

      Which one of the following is the most likely cause of her weakness?

      Your Answer: She is abusing thyroxine tablets

      Explanation:

      Exogenous thyroid hormone use has been associated with episodes of thyroid storm as well as thyrotoxic periodic paralysis.
      It presents with marked proximal muscle weakness in both upper and lower limbs, hypokalaemia and signs of hyperthyroidism.
      Hyperthyroidism generally presents with tachycardia, hypertension, hyperthermia, and cardiac arrhythmias

      Laxatives and diuretics can result in electrolyte abnormalities.
      Medical complications associated with laxatives include chronic diarrhoea which disrupts the normal stool electrolyte concentrations that then leads to serum electrolyte shifts; acutely, hypokalaemia is most typically seen. The large intestine suffers nerve damage from the chronic laxative use that renders it unable to function properly. The normal peristalsis and conduction are affected; the disorder is thought to be secondary to a degeneration of Auerbach’s Plexi. However, it does not cause muscle weakness.

      Insulin tends to cause weight gain, not weight loss.
      Metformin does not cause muscle weakness but can cause headaches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      41
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 23-year-old male medical student presents to the A&E department with pleuritic chest...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old male medical student presents to the A&E department with pleuritic chest pain. He does not have productive cough nor is he experiencing shortness of breath. He has no past medical history. A chest x-ray which was done shows a right-sided pneumothorax with a 1 cm rim of air and no mediastinal shift.

      What is the most appropriate treatment option?

      Your Answer: Discharge with outpatient chest x-ray

      Explanation:

      Primary spontaneous pneumothorax is an abnormal accumulation of air in the space between the lungs and the chest cavity (called the pleural space) that can result in the partial or complete collapse of a lung. This type of pneumothorax is described as primary because it occurs in the absence of lung disease such as emphysema. Spontaneous means the pneumothorax was not caused by an injury such as a rib fracture. Primary spontaneous pneumothorax is likely due to the formation of small sacs of air (blebs) in lung tissue that rupture, causing air to leak into the pleural space. Air in the pleural space creates pressure on the lung and can lead to its collapse. A person with this condition may feel chest pain on the side of the collapsed lung and shortness of breath. Patients are typically aged 18-40 years, tall, thin, and, often, are smokers.

      In small pneumothoraxes with minimal symptoms, no active treatment is required. These patients can be safely discharged with early outpatient review and should be given written advice to return if breathlessness worsens. Patients who have been discharged without intervention should be advised that air travel should be avoided until a radiograph has confirmed resolution of the pneumothorax.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      31.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 50-year-old heavy drinker is brought to the A&E in a drowsy state....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old heavy drinker is brought to the A&E in a drowsy state. He is responding to questions however on examination he has nystagmus and hyper-reflexia. His MCV is 103fL.What is the most likely cause for his cognitive impairment?

      Your Answer: Alcohol withdrawal

      Correct Answer: B1 Deficiency

      Explanation:

      Thiamine deficiency is very common with alcoholism. It manifests by Wernicke-Korsakoff encephalopathy. The patient is usually agitated, with an abnormal gait and amnesia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      24.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 26-year-old patient, previously fit and well, is admitted with fluctuating confusion and...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old patient, previously fit and well, is admitted with fluctuating confusion and frank haematuria. He has recently been complaining of generalised malaise and joint pains. Examination reveals jaundice, splenomegaly, and petechiae. His blood pressure is 155/84 mmHg, temperature 37.9oC.
       
      Initial investigations reveal:

      Haemoglobin 9.5 g/dl
      White cell count 12 × 109/l
      Platelets 40 × 109/l
      Creatinine 142 μmol/l
      Sodium 139 mmol/l
      Potassium 4.5 mmol/l
      Urea 9.2 mmol/l
      Lactate dehydrogenase 495 U/l (10-250)
      Urinalysis Protein ++, blood +++
      Blood film shows schistocytes

       
      What treatment should NOT be given to this patient?

      Your Answer: Platelet transfusion

      Explanation:

      There is a strong suspicion of Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP) in this patient as he presents with neurological changes (from confusion to convulsions and coma), fever, haemolysis, thrombocytopenia, and renal failure. Additionally, TTP cases may present with jaundice, splenomegaly, and hypertension as seen in this patient. With a diagnosis of TTP, recent studies have shown that platelet transfusion is not recommended in this case because it has been shown to increase the risk for arterial thrombosis and mortality possibly due to increased aggregations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      55.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A clinical trial is conducted to study the benefits of a new oral...

    Correct

    • A clinical trial is conducted to study the benefits of a new oral medication to improve the symptoms of patients with asthma. In the trial 400 patients with asthma, half were given the new medication and half a placebo. Three months later they are asked to rate their symptoms using the following scale: much improved, slight improvement, no change, slight worsening, significantly worse. What is the most appropriate statistical test to see whether the new medication is beneficial?

      Your Answer: Mann-Whitney U test

      Explanation:

      The type of significance test used depends on whether the data is parametric (can be measured, usually normally distributed) or non-parametric.
      Parametric tests:
      Student’s t-test – paired or unpaired*
      Pearson’s product-moment coefficient – correlation

      Non-parametric tests:
      Mann-Whitney U test – unpaired data
      Wilcoxon signed-rank test – compares two sets of observations on a single sample
      chi-squared test – used to compare proportions or percentages
      Spearman, Kendall rank – correlation.

      The outcome measured is not normally distributed, i.e. it is non-parametric. This excludes the Student’s t-tests. We are not comparing percentages/proportions so the chi-squared test is excluded. The Mann-Whitney U test is a nonparametric test of the null hypothesis that it is equally likely that a randomly selected value from one sample will be less than or greater than a randomly selected value from a second sample.
      This test can be used to investigate whether two independent samples were selected from populations having the same distribution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      34.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A patient presents with occasionally severe retrosternal chest pain and dysphagia for both...

    Correct

    • A patient presents with occasionally severe retrosternal chest pain and dysphagia for both solids and liquids. What would be the best management option if the barium swallow showed a dilated oesophagus which tapers to a fine distal end?

      Your Answer: Dilatation of the LES

      Explanation:

      Dysphagia for both solids and liquids indicates either obstruction or impaired oesophageal peristalsis which is usually due to neuromuscular causes such as achalasia. Achalasia is the failure of smooth muscle fibres to relax, which can cause the lower oesophageal sphincter to remain closed. The lower part of the oesophagus is more narrow than normal and presents as a birds beak appearance on barium swallow. If dysphagia was present only on solid food consumption, a benign or malignant tumour must be suspected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 17-year-old girl presented with fever, headache and photophobia. Cerebrospinal fluid examination reveals:

    Opening...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old girl presented with fever, headache and photophobia. Cerebrospinal fluid examination reveals:

      Opening pressure 260 mm H20 (50-180)
      Total protein 0.8 g/l (0.15-0.45)
      Glucose 4.2 mmol/l (3.3-4.4)
      White cell count 60 per ml (<5)
      Lymphocytes 90%
      Plasma glucose 6.4 mmol/l (3.0-6.0)

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tuberculosis meningitis

      Correct Answer: Viral meningitis

      Explanation:

      Normal cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) glucose together with lymphocytosis, an increased opening pressure and raised CSF protein are typical of a viral meningitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      34.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 27-year-old woman is admitted on the medical intake. She is 10 weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman is admitted on the medical intake. She is 10 weeks postpartum and has been generally unwell for two weeks with malaise, sweating and anxiety.
      On examination, she is hemodynamically stable and clinically euthyroid.
      TFTs show the following:
      Free T4 33 pmol/L (9-23)
      Free T3 8 nmol/L (3.5-6)
      TSH <0.02 mU/L (0.5-5)

      What is the appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Carbimazole 40 mg/day

      Correct Answer: Propranolol 20 mg tds

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely to have Postpartum thyroiditis which goes through 2 phases; hypothyroid and a hyperthyroid phase.
      The hyperthyroid phase of postpartum thyroiditis occurs between 2 and 10 months postpartum. Most commonly, it presents at 3 months. Symptoms more common in women with hyperthyroid postpartum thyroiditis include palpitations, fatigue, heat intolerance, and irritability/nervousness. The frequency of asymptomatic hyperthyroidism is 33%.
      Untreated, the hyperthyroidism resolves spontaneously within 2-3 months. This phase is diagnosed by the combination of a low serum TSH concentration in the presence of thyroid peroxidase antibodies, in women who are TSH receptor antibody-negative. Free T4 levels are typically elevated but may be normal.
      Treatment of hyperthyroidism, when necessary, is based on symptom severity and should be a joint decision of patient and physician. Beta-blockers such as propranolol are given to alleviate palpitations, irritability, and nervousness. The morbidity associated with treatment is the side effects of beta-blockade. The downside of withholding treatment is allowing the woman to remain symptomatic. Antithyroid medicines (thioureas) are not a potential treatment alternative, because the hyperthyroidism is caused by destructive thyroiditis resulting in the release of preformed thyroid hormone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      40.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 15-year-old boy was admitted to the ED with a history of sudden...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy was admitted to the ED with a history of sudden onset chest pain and difficulty in breathing after strenuous exercise. On examination, there was reduced breath sounds on the right side but he was not cyanosed. He maintained oxygen sats of 93% on air. What is the single most appropriate investigation?

      Your Answer: CXR

      Explanation:

      The history and examination is suggestive of a spontaneous pneumothorax. The best investigation that can be performed at this stage is a CXR. Spontaneous primary pneumothorax occurs in the absence of a known lung pathology. Proposed risk factors shown to predispose patients to primary spontaneous pneumothorax (PSP) include smoking, family history, Marfan syndrome, homocystinuria, and thoracic endometriosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      23.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 66-year-old woman comes to you with a tender lump near the anal...

    Correct

    • A 66-year-old woman comes to you with a tender lump near the anal opening and a fever. She has history of T1DM for the last 20 years. What treatment should she get?

      Your Answer: I&D + antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Surgical incision and drainage is the most common treatment for anal abscesses. About 50% of patients with an anal abscess will develop a complication called a fistula. Diabetes is a risk factor for an anal abscess.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      24.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 72-year-old female presents with tiredness and weakness. On examination, she is pale...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old female presents with tiredness and weakness. On examination, she is pale and has a haemoglobin of 72 g/L with an MCV of 68 fL. Which nail changes may be seen in association with this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Koilonychia

      Explanation:

      Koilonychia, known as spoon nails, is a condition of the nails bending inwards, taking the shape of a spoon. This is a strong indication of iron-deficiency anaemia (IDA). The rest of the patient’s symptoms further indicate IDA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • The Skin
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Pulmonary aspiration is the side effect of which analgesic or anaesthetic agent? ...

    Correct

    • Pulmonary aspiration is the side effect of which analgesic or anaesthetic agent?

      Your Answer: General anaesthetic

      Explanation:

      During general anaesthesia, due to the relaxation of the respiratory muscles, the protective gag reflex is also lost. These changes increase the chances of pulmonary aspiration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 25-year-old farmer presents with a fever, headache, malaise and neck stiffness. The...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old farmer presents with a fever, headache, malaise and neck stiffness. The first line empirical antibiotic is?

      Your Answer: Ceftriaxone

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis is meningitis which requires admission and iv antibiotics. The drug of choice is a 3rd generation cephalosporin. In patients older than 55 , ampicillin cefotaxime combination is used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 75-year-old male with rheumatoid arthritis underwent a colectomy 2 days ago for...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old male with rheumatoid arthritis underwent a colectomy 2 days ago for colon cancer. He was put on a prophylactic dose of low molecular weight heparin postoperatively as well as prednisolone. Now he complains of central chest pain and his ECG revealed an acute ST elevation myocardial infarction. He was given aspirin and oxygen as the initial treatment. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: IV diamorphine + arrange echocardiogram urgently to exclude pericardial tamponade

      Correct Answer: IV diamorphine + arrange percutaneous coronary intervention

      Explanation:

      There is a high risk of bleeding due to recent surgery and heparin. So thrombolysis is not an option. The most appropriate management is percutaneous coronary intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      63.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 44-year-old woman is investigated for hot flushes and night sweats. Her blood...

    Correct

    • A 44-year-old woman is investigated for hot flushes and night sweats. Her blood tests show a significantly raised FSH level and her symptoms are attributed to menopause. Following discussions with the patient, she elects to have hormone replacement treatment. What is the most significant risk of prescribing an oestrogen-only preparation rather than a combined oestrogen-progestogen preparation?

      Your Answer: Increased risk of endometrial cancer

      Explanation:

      The use of hormone replacement therapy (HRT) based on unopposed oestrogen increases the risk of endometrial cancer, and uterine hyperplasia or cancer.
      Evidence from randomized controlled studies showed a definite association between HRT and uterine hyperplasia and cancer. HRT based on unopposed oestrogen is associated with this observed risk, which is unlike the increased risk of breast cancer linked with combined rather than unopposed HRT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 25-year-old female presented with multiple small genital ulcers, which are painful following...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female presented with multiple small genital ulcers, which are painful following a sexual intercourse with an unknown man. Which of the following can be used topically for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Acyclovir

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis is Herpes Simplex infection. Topical Acyclovir can be used in early stages.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      24.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 73-year-old female is being reviewed in the osteoporosis clinic. She had a...

    Correct

    • A 73-year-old female is being reviewed in the osteoporosis clinic. She had a fracture of her left hip 5 years ago and was started on alendronate. Following the development of persistent musculoskeletal pain, alendronate was replaced with risedronate, which was also stopped for similar reasons. Strontium ranelate was therefore started but was also stopped due to the development of deep vein thrombosis in the right leg. Her current T-score is -4.1. A decision is made to start a trial of denosumab. What is the mechanism of action of denosumab?

      Your Answer: Inhibits RANK ligand, which in turn inhibits the maturation of osteoclasts

      Explanation:

      The principal mechanism by which strontium inhibits osteoclast activity is by enhancing the secretion of osteoprotegerin (OPG) and by reducing the expression of the receptor activator of nuclear factor κB ligand (RANKL) in osteoblasts.

      Osteoporosis is defined as low bone mineral density caused by altered bone microstructure ultimately predisposing patients to low-impact, fragility fractures.

      Management:
      Vitamin D and calcium supplementation should be offered to all women unless the clinician is confident they have adequate calcium intake and are vitamin D replete
      Alendronate is the first-line treatment. Around 25% of patients cannot tolerate alendronate, usually due to upper gastrointestinal problems. These patients should be offered risedronate or etidronate.
      Strontium ranelate and raloxifene are recommended if patients cannot tolerate bisphosphonates.
      Other medications that are useful in the treatment of osteoporosis are denosumab, teriparatide, raloxifene, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      35.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following is correct regarding post-menopausal hormone replacement therapy (HRT) according...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is correct regarding post-menopausal hormone replacement therapy (HRT) according to randomised clinical studies ?

      Your Answer: Increases plasma LDL concentrations

      Correct Answer: Increases plasma triglycerides

      Explanation:

      Oestrogen therapy reduces plasma levels of LDL cholesterol and increases levels of HDL cholesterol. It can improve endothelial vascular function, however, it also has adverse physiological effects, including increasing the plasma levels of triglycerides (small dense LDL particles). Therefore, although HRT may have direct beneficial effects on cardiovascular outcomes, these effects may be reduced or balanced by the adverse physiological effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      44.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - An 82-year-old man is reviewed in the haematology clinic. He has been referred...

    Correct

    • An 82-year-old man is reviewed in the haematology clinic. He has been referred due to weight loss, lethargy, and a significantly elevated IgM level.

      His recent blood results show:
      Hb: 13.8 g/dL
      Plts: 127 x 10^9/L
      ESR: 45 mm/hr
      IgM: 2150 mg/dL (50-330 mg/dL)

      Given the probable diagnosis, which one of the following complications is he most likely to develop?

      Your Answer: Hyperviscosity syndrome

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely suffering from Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia in which IgM paraproteinemia is found. Hyperviscosity syndrome can occur in the patients accounting for 10-15% of the cases.

      Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia (also called lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma) is an uncommon type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma seen in older people. It is a lymphoplasmacytoid malignancy characterised by the secretion of a monoclonal IgM paraprotein. Its features include monoclonal IgM paraproteinemia; hyperviscosity syndrome leading to bilateral central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) and hence, visual disturbances; weight loss and lethargy; hepatosplenomegaly and lymphadenopathy; and cryoglobulinemia. It is not, however, associated with bone pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      25.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of the following enzymes are involved in Phase I drug metabolism? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following enzymes are involved in Phase I drug metabolism?

      Your Answer: N-acetyl transferases

      Correct Answer: Alcohol dehydrogenase

      Explanation:

      Drug metabolism can be broadly classified into:
      Phase I (functionalization) reactions: also termed non-synthetic reactions, they include oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis, cyclization and de-cyclization. The most common and vital reactions are oxidation reactions. (Of the given enzymes only Alcohol dehydrogenase is involved in phase I drug metabolism. Succinate dehydrogenase, is a vital enzyme involved in the Kreb’s cycle and the mitochondrial electron transport chain). They are mainly catalysed by Cytochrome P-450 enzyme.

      Phase II (conjugation) reactions: occur following phase I reactions, they include reactions: glucuronidation and sulphate conjugation, etc. They are mostly catalysed by UDP-glucuronosyltransferase enzyme. Other phase II enzymes include: sulfotransferases, N-acetyltransferases, glutathione S-transferases and methyltransferases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A number of tests have been ordered for a 49-year-old male who has...

    Incorrect

    • A number of tests have been ordered for a 49-year-old male who has systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). He was referred to the clinic because he has increased shortness of breath. One test in particular is transfer factor of the lung for carbon monoxide (TLCO), which is elevated. Which respiratory complication of SLE is associated with this finding?

      Your Answer: Respiratory muscle weakness

      Correct Answer: Alveolar haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Alveolar haemorrhage (AH) is a rare, but serious manifestation of SLE. It may occur early or late in disease evolution. Extrapulmonary disease may be minimal and may be masked in patients who are already receiving immunosuppressants for other symptoms of SLE.

      DLCO or TLCO (diffusing capacity or transfer factor of the lung for carbon monoxide (CO)) is the extent to which oxygen passes from the air sacs of the lungs into the blood.
      Factors that can increase the DLCO include polycythaemia, asthma (can also have normal DLCO) and increased pulmonary blood volume as occurs in exercise. Other factors are left to right intracardiac shunting, mild left heart failure (increased blood volume) and alveolar haemorrhage (increased blood available for which CO does not have to cross a barrier to enter).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      58.6
      Seconds

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