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  • Question 1 - In relation to ketamine, which of the following statements is TRUE: ...

    Incorrect

    • In relation to ketamine, which of the following statements is TRUE:

      Your Answer: It is contraindicated in children.

      Correct Answer: It is usually associated with tachycardia, increased blood pressure and increased cardiac output.

      Explanation:

      Ketamine has hypnotic, analgesic and local anaesthetic properties. Major adverse effects include Hypertension, Increased cardiac output, Increased ICP, Tachycardia, Tonic-clonic movements, Visual hallucinations and Vivid dreams.
      Ketamine is mostly utilized in paediatric anaesthesia, especially when repeated dosing is necessary (such as for serial burns dressings). Ketamine has little effect on respiratory drive, and protective airway reflexes are unaffected. Ketamine is also a bronchial smooth muscle relaxant, hence it plays a unique function in the treatment of severe asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      17
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - Regarding Clostridium difficile, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding Clostridium difficile, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: It produces tetanolysin toxin.

      Correct Answer: It is normally found in gut flora.

      Explanation:

      C. difficile is normally found in the gut flora but its growth is normally suppressed by more dominant anaerobes. It has exotoxin-mediated effects causing profuse diarrhoea. Oral clindamycin (a broad spectrum antibiotic) is commonly implicated in precipitating C. difficile colitis; first line treatment is with oral metronidazole. Tetanolysin is a toxin produced by Clostridium tetani bacteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      12.8
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - Which of the following decreases activation of vitamin D: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following decreases activation of vitamin D:

      Your Answer: A diet low in calcium

      Correct Answer: Chronic renal failure

      Explanation:

      Calcium deficiency (low Ca2+ diet or hypocalcemia) activates 1-alpha-hydroxylase in the cells of the renal proximal tubule which catalyses the conversion of vitamin D to its active form, 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol. Increased parathyroid hormone (PTH) and hypophosphatemia also stimulate the enzyme. Chronic renal failure is associated with a constellation of bone diseases, including osteomalacia caused by failure of the diseased renal tissue to produce the active form of vitamin D.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      45.4
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - A 30-year-old woman is transfused following a diagnosis of anaemia secondary to heavy...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman is transfused following a diagnosis of anaemia secondary to heavy vaginal bleeding. She complains of feeling hot and cold during transfusion of the second unit and her temperature is 38.5ºC. Prior to the transfusion, her temperature was 37ºC. She has no other symptoms.

      Which of these transfusions reactions most likely occurred?

      Your Answer: Allergic reaction

      Correct Answer: Febrile transfusion reaction

      Explanation:

      Febrile transfusion reactions presents with an unexpected temperature rise (≥ 38ºC or ≥ 1ºC above baseline, if baseline ≥ 37ºC) during or shortly after transfusion. It is usually an isolated finding and the fever is accompanied by chills and malaise occasionally.

      Allergic reaction is commonly caused by foreign plasma proteins but may be due to anti-IgA. Allergic type reactions usually present with urticaria, pruritus, hives. Associations include laryngeal oedema or bronchospasm.

      Acute haemolytic reaction aka immediate haemolytic transfusion reaction presents with fever, chills, pain at transfusion site, nausea, vomiting, dark urine and feeling of ‘impending doom’. Often, it occurs due to ABO incompatibility.

      Transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO) presents as acute or worsening respiratory distress within 6 hours of transfusion of a large volume of blood. It is common in patients with diminished cardiac reserve or chronic anaemia. Elderly patients, infants and severely anaemic patients are particularly susceptible. Clinical features of TACO include: Acute respiratory distress, Tachycardia, Hypertension, Acute/worsening pulmonary oedema on chest X-ray. The BNP is usually raised to at least 1.5 times the pre-transfusion baseline.

      Transfusion-related lung injury (TRALI) is a form of acute respiratory distress caused by the donor plasma containing antibodies against the patient’s leukocytes. It is defined as hypoxia and bilateral pulmonary oedema that occurs within 6 hours of a transfusion in the absence of other causes of acute lung injury. Clinical features include Breathlessness, cough, frothy sputum, hypertension or hypotension, hypoxia and fever. Chest X-ray shows multiple perihilar nodules with infiltration of the lower lung fields.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      9.7
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - How does abciximab mediate its antiplatelet effect: ...

    Incorrect

    • How does abciximab mediate its antiplatelet effect:

      Your Answer: It is a vitamin K antagonist.

      Correct Answer: It is a GPIIb/IIIa inhibitor.

      Explanation:

      Abciximab, eptifibatide and tirofiban are GPIIb/IIIa inhibitors, inhibiting platelet aggregation by preventing the binding of fibrinogen, von Willebrand factor and other adhesive molecules.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      17.3
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - Which of the following pathogens is most commonly implicated in croup: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following pathogens is most commonly implicated in croup:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Parainfluenza

      Explanation:

      Parainfluenza virus is the most commonly implicated infectious agent in croup.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - Pancreatic ductal alkaline fluid secretion is mainly stimulated by which of the following hormones:...

    Incorrect

    • Pancreatic ductal alkaline fluid secretion is mainly stimulated by which of the following hormones:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Secretin

      Explanation:

      Pancreatic exocrine secretion is controlled by:
      Parasympathetic stimulation which enhances secretion of both the enzyme and aqueous components
      Sympathetic stimulation which inhibits pancreatic secretion
      Secretin which stimulates secretion of the alkaline-rich fluid from ductal cells
      Cholecystokinin which stimulates secretion of the enzyme-rich fluid from acinar cellsSomatostatin which inhibits secretion from both acinar and ductal cells
      Gastrin which stimulates pancreatic acinar cells to secrete digestive enzymes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - What is nimodipine used predominantly in the treatment of? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is nimodipine used predominantly in the treatment of?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prevention and treatment of vascular spasm following subarachnoid haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Nimodipine is a smooth muscle relaxant that is related to nifedipine, but the effects preferentially act on cerebral arteries. It is exclusively used for the prevention and treatment of vascular spasm after an aneurysmal subarachnoid haemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 9 - Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect associated with warfarin therapy:...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect associated with warfarin therapy:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neutropenia

      Explanation:

      Adverse effects of warfarin:
      The most common adverse effect of warfarin is bleeding

      Other common adverse effects of warfarin include nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, jaundice, hepatic dysfunction, pancreatitis, pyrexia, alopecia, purpura, and rash

      Skin necrosis is a rare but serious adverse effect of warfarin; treatment with warfarin should be stopped if warfarin related skin necrosis is suspected

      Calciphylaxis is a rare, but a very serious condition that causes vascular calcification and cutaneous necrosis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - A 32-year-old woman with a history of bipolar disorder exhibits lithium toxicity symptoms.

    Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman with a history of bipolar disorder exhibits lithium toxicity symptoms.

      Which of the following is the MOST LIKELY feature to be present?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clonus

      Explanation:

      Lithium toxicity manifests itself in the following ways:
      Ataxia
      Clonus
      Coma
      Confusion
      Convulsions
      Diarrhoea
      Increased muscle tone
      Nausea and vomiting
      Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
      Renal failure
      Tremor

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • CNS Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 11 - The extensor digitorum longus is supplied by which nerve? ...

    Incorrect

    • The extensor digitorum longus is supplied by which nerve?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Deep peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      The extensor digitorum longus is innervated by the deep fibular nerve (L5, S1), a branch of the common fibular nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 12 - Which of the following is NOT a typical feature of benzodiazepine toxicity: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a typical feature of benzodiazepine toxicity:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyperventilation

      Explanation:

      Features of benzodiazepine toxicity include: drowsiness, ataxia, dysarthria, nystagmus, occasionally respiratory depression and coma

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 13 - Identify the type of graph described below:

    This graph is a scatter plot of...

    Incorrect

    • Identify the type of graph described below:

      This graph is a scatter plot of the effect estimates from individual studies against some measure of each study's size or precision.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Funnel plot

      Explanation:

      A funnel plot is a scatter plot of the effect estimates from individual studies against some measure of each study’s size or precision. The standard error of the effect estimate is often chosen as the measure of study size and plotted on the vertical axis with a reversed scale that places the larger, most powerful studies towards the top. The effect estimates from smaller studies should scatter more widely at the bottom, with the spread narrowing among larger studies. In the absence of bias and between study heterogeneity, the scatter will be due to sampling variation alone and the plot will resemble a symmetrical inverted funnel. A triangle centred on a fixed effect summary estimate and extending 1.96 standard errors either side will include about 95% of studies if no bias is present and the fixed effect assumption (that the true treatment effect is the same in each study) is valid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 14 - A patient is complaining of painless jaundice. His bilirubin levels are abnormally high.

    Which...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is complaining of painless jaundice. His bilirubin levels are abnormally high.

      Which of the following statements about bile is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bile acids are amphipathic

      Explanation:

      The liver produces bile on a constant basis, which is then stored and concentrated in the gallbladder. In a 24-hour period, around 400 to 800 mL of bile is generated.

      Bile is involved in the following processes:
      Fats are broken down into fatty acids.
      Waste products are eliminated.
      Cholesterol homeostasis is the balance of cholesterol in the body.

      The enteric hormones cholecystokinin and secretin are primarily responsible for bile secretion. When chyme from an unprocessed meal enters the small intestine, they are released, and they play the following function in bile secretion and flow:

      Cholecystokinin promotes gallbladder and common bile duct contractions, allowing bile to reach the intestine.
      Secretin enhances the secretion of bicarbonate and water by biliary duct cells, increasing the amount of bile and its flow into the gut.

      Bile acids have a hydrophobic and hydrophilic area, making them amphipathic. Bile acids’ amphipathic nature allows them to perform the following crucial functions:

      Emulsification of lipid aggregates increases the surface area of fat and makes it easier for lipases to digest it.
      Lipid solubilization and transport: solubilizes lipids by creating micelles, which are lipid clumps that float in water.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal Physiology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 15 - For the treatment of his atrial fibrillation, a 67-year-old man is about to...

    Incorrect

    • For the treatment of his atrial fibrillation, a 67-year-old man is about to begin taking warfarin. He also takes a number of other medications.

      Which of the following medications will prevent warfarin from working?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      Many medications, including warfarin, require cytochrome P450 enzymes for their metabolism. When co-prescribing cytochrome p450 enzyme inducers and inhibitors with warfarin, it’s critical to be cautious.

      Inhibitors of the cytochrome p450 enzyme inhibit the effects of warfarin, resulting in a lower INR. To remember the most commonly encountered cytochrome p450 enzyme inducers, use the mnemonic PC BRASS:

      P– Phenytoin
      C– Carbamazepine
      B– Barbiturates
      R– Rifampicin
      A– Alcohol (chronic ingestion)
      S– Sulphonylureas
      S– Smoking

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 16 - Which of these immunoglobulin molecules can cross the placenta? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these immunoglobulin molecules can cross the placenta?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IgG

      Explanation:

      An important mechanism that provides protection to the foetus is placental transfer of maternal IgG antibodies while his/her humoral response is inefficient. The only antibody class that significantly crosses the human placenta is IgG.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 17 - Which of the following causes increased aldosterone secretion: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following causes increased aldosterone secretion:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreased blood volume

      Explanation:

      Decreased blood volume stimulates the secretion of renin (because of decreased renal perfusion pressure) and initiates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone cascade. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors block the cascade by decreasing the production of angiotensin. Hyperosmolarity stimulates antidiuretic hormone (ADH) [not aldosterone] secretion. Hyperkalaemia, not hypokalaemia, directly stimulates aldosterone secretion by the adrenal cortex. ANP inhibits renin secretion, thereby inhibiting the production of angiotensin and aldosterone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 18 - What is the main mechanism of action of metoclopramide: ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the main mechanism of action of metoclopramide:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dopamine antagonist

      Explanation:

      Metoclopramide is a dopamine-receptor antagonist. Blockade of inhibitory dopamine receptors in the GI tract may allow stimulatory actions of ACh at muscarinic synapses to predominate. Metoclopramide also blocks dopamine D2-receptors within the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ). At high doses, it is also thought to have some 5-HT3antagonist activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 19 - Which of the following drugs is first line treatment for a stable regular...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following drugs is first line treatment for a stable regular broad-complex tachycardia:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amiodarone

      Explanation:

      A regular broad-complex tachycardia is likely to be ventricular tachycardia or a regular supraventricular rhythm with bundle branch block. A ventricular tachycardia (or broad-complex tachycardia of uncertain origin) should be treated with amiodarone 300 mg IV over 10 – 60 min, followed by an infusion of 900 mg over the next 24 hours. If previously confirmed as SVT with bundle branch block, the patient should be treated as for narrow-complex tachycardia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 20 - A 33-year-old heavily muscled man presents with left-sided chest pain. After taking part...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old heavily muscled man presents with left-sided chest pain. After taking part in a powerlifting competition, he felt a painful snap at the front of his shoulder and chest. There is also the presence of bruising and swelling over the left side of his chest. A ruptured pectoralis major muscle was suspected upon examining the injured area.

      Which of the following statements regarding the surface markings of the pectoralis major muscle is considered correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It inserts into the lateral lip of the bicipital groove of the humerus

      Explanation:

      The pectoralis major is the superior most and largest muscle of the anterior chest wall. It is a thick, fan-shaped muscle that lies underneath the breast tissue and forms the anterior wall of the axilla.

      Its origin lies anterior surface of the medial half of the clavicle, the anterior surface of the sternum, the first 7 costal cartilages, the sternal end of the sixth rib, and the aponeurosis of the external oblique of the anterior abdominal wall.
      The insertion of the pectoralis major is at the lateral lip of the intertubercular sulcus of the humerus. There are 2 heads of the pectoralis major, the clavicular and the sternocostal, which reference their area of origin.
      The function of the pectoralis major is 3-fold and dependent on which heads of muscles are involved:
      – Flexion, adduction and medial rotation of the arm at the glenohumeral joint
      – Clavicular head causes flexion of the extended arm
      – Sternoclavicular head causes extension of the flexed arm

      Arterial supply of the pectoralis major, the pectoral artery, arises from the second branch of the axillary artery, the thoracoacromial trunk.

      The 2 heads of the pectoralis major have different nervous supplies. The clavicular head derives its nerve supply from the lateral pectoral nerve. The medial pectoral nerve innervates the sternocostal head. The lateral pectoral nerve arises directly from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus, and the medial pectoral nerve arises from the medial cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 21 - Which of these organisms is commonly spread by droplet transmission? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these organisms is commonly spread by droplet transmission?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neisseria meningitidis

      Explanation:

      Droplets are airborne particles greater than 5 µm in size. Droplet transmission occurs during talking, coughing and sneezing where respiratory droplets are generated.

      Examples of organisms transmitted by the droplet route include:
      Neisseria meningitidis
      Respiratory syncytial virus
      Parainfluenza virus
      Bordetella pertussis
      Influenza virus

      Poliovirus and Rotavirus are transmitted by the faeco-oral route

      Hepatitis B is transmitted by Sexual route

      Staphylococcus aureus is transmitted by direct contact

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles Of Microbiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 22 - Which of the following is NOT a typical clinical feature of hypoglycaemia: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a typical clinical feature of hypoglycaemia:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polyuria

      Explanation:

      Clinical features of hypoglycaemia:
      Autonomic  symptoms: Sweating, feeling hot, anxiety/agitation, palpitations, shaking, paraesthesia, dizziness
      Neuroglycopaenic symptoms: Weakness, blurred vision, difficulty speaking, poor concentration, poor coordination, drowsiness, confusion, seizures, coma
      Other symptoms: Nausea, fatigue, hunger

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 23 - A 61-year-old patient experiences a spontaneous rupture of his Achilles tendon following a...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old patient experiences a spontaneous rupture of his Achilles tendon following a course of antibiotics

      Which of the antibiotics listed below is MOST likely to be the cause? 

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Tendinopathy and spontaneous tendon rupture are caused by fluoroquinolones, which are an uncommon but well-known cause. Tendon problems caused by fluoroquinolones are expected to affect 15 to 20 people per 100,000. Patients over the age of 60 are most likely to develop them.

      It usually affects the Achilles tendon, but it has also been described in cases involving the quadriceps, peroneus brevis, extensor pollicis longus, long head of biceps brachii, and rotator cuff tendons. The exact aetiology is uncertain, although the fluoroquinolone medication is thought to obstruct collagen activity and/or cut off blood supply to the tendon.

      Other factors linked to tendon rupture spontaneously include:
      Gout
      Treatment with corticosteroids
      Hypercholesterolaemia
      Long-term dialysis
      Kidney transplant
      Rheumatoid arthritis 

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 24 - Eosinophils comprise what percentage of circulating white cells: ...

    Incorrect

    • Eosinophils comprise what percentage of circulating white cells:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 - 3%

      Explanation:

      Eosinophils comprise 1 – 3% of circulating white cells. Eosinophils are similar to neutrophils, except that the cytoplasmic granules are coarser and more deeply red staining, and there are rarely more than three nuclear lobes. They are less motile, but longer lived. They enter inflammatory exudates and have a special role in allergic responses, defence against parasites and removal of fibrin formed during inflammation. Thus they play a role in local immunity and tissue repair.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 25 - Disease specific immunoglobulin is available for all of the following infectious diseases EXCEPT...

    Incorrect

    • Disease specific immunoglobulin is available for all of the following infectious diseases EXCEPT for:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis A

      Explanation:

      Disease specific immunoglobulins are available for:
      hepatitis B
      rabies
      tetanus
      varicella-zoster
      Normal immunoglobulin can be used to confer protection against hepatitis A.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunoglobulins And Vaccines
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 26 - A 70 year old man who has a previous history of small cell...

    Incorrect

    • A 70 year old man who has a previous history of small cell lung cancer was found to have severe hyponatraemia on a recent blood test and he is sent to the emergency room. In the nephron, where is the likely cause of this abnormality?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Distal nephron

      Explanation:

      In the cancer patient, hyponatremia is usually caused by the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). This develops more frequently with small cell lung cancer (SCLC) than with other malignancies. The pathogenesis of this is as a result of the process whereby ADH binds V2 receptors on renal principal cells in the late distal tubule and collecting ducts, resulting in elevation of cAMP levels. Increased cAMP levels cause fusion of intracellular vesicles with the apical membrane. There are water channels called aquaporins in their membranes of these vesicles, and these increase the water permeability, thus facilitating increased water reabsorption and urine concentration. Thus, by increasing water retention, ADH causes blood to be diluted, which then decreases the concentration of solutes like sodium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 27 - A 33-year-old woman demonstrates right-sided superior homonymous quadrantanopia upon visual field testing. A...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old woman demonstrates right-sided superior homonymous quadrantanopia upon visual field testing. A diagnosis of a brain tumour has been established.

      Which of the following anatomical points in the visual pathway has the lesion occurred?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lower optic radiation

      Explanation:

      Homonymous quadrantanopia is not a disease; it is a clinical finding that points towards a lesion of the optic radiations coursing through the temporal lobe.
      Homonymous superior quadrantanopia is caused by damage to the contralateral inferior parts of the posterior visual pathway: the inferior optic radiation (temporal Meyer loop), or the inferior part of the occipital visual cortex below the calcarine fissure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 28 - What is the correct adrenaline dose for a patient with pulseless ventricular tachycardia?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct adrenaline dose for a patient with pulseless ventricular tachycardia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 10 ml of 1 in 10,000 adrenaline solution

      Explanation:

      Ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia (VF/VT) are referred to as shockable rhythm.

      IV adrenaline 1 mg (10 mL of 1:10,000 solution) should be administered after 3 shocks and every 3 – 5 minutes/after alternate shocks thereafter for a shockable rhythm.

      For a non-shockable rhythm, 1 mg IV adrenaline should be administered as soon as IV access is obtained, and then every 3 – 5 minutes/after alternate shocks thereafter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 29 - Regarding the glomerular filtration barrier, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the glomerular filtration barrier, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The main factor determining whether a substance is filtered or not is molecular weight.

      Explanation:

      Molecular weight is the main factor in determining whether a substance is filtered or not – molecules < 7 kDa in molecular weight are filtered freely e.g. glucose, amino acids, urea, ions but larger molecules are increasingly restricted up to 70 kDa, above which filtration is insignificant. Negatively charged molecules are further restricted, as they are repelled by negative charges, particularly in the basement membrane. Albumin has a molecular weight of 69 kDa and is negatively charged, thus only very small amounts are filtered (and all of the filtered albumin is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule), whereas small molecules such as ions, glucose, amino acids and urea pass the filter without hindrance. This means that ultrafiltrate is virtually protein free, but otherwise has an identical composition of that of plasma. The epithelial lining of the Bowman's capsule consists of a single layer of cells called podocytes. The glomerular capillary endothelium is perforated by pores (fenestrations) which allow plasma components with a molecular weight of < 70 kDa to pass freely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 30 - For which of the following infections is phenoxymethylpenicillin (penicillin V) primarily used? ...

    Incorrect

    • For which of the following infections is phenoxymethylpenicillin (penicillin V) primarily used?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Streptococcal tonsillitis

      Explanation:

      Phenoxymethylpenicillin (penicillin V) is less active than benzylpenicillin but both have similar antibacterial spectrum. Because penicillin V is gastric-acid stable, it is suitable for oral administration, but should not be used for serious infections as absorption can be unpredictable and plasma concentrations can be variable.
      Its uses are:
      1. mainly for respiratory tract infections in children
      2. for streptococcal tonsillitis
      3. for continuing treatment after one or more injections of benzylpenicillin when clinical response has begun.
      4. for prophylaxis against streptococcal infections following rheumatic fever and against pneumococcal infections following splenectomy or in sickle-cell disease.

      It should not be used for meningococcal or gonococcal infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Microbiology (0/1) 0%
Pathogens (0/1) 0%
Endocrine (0/1) 0%
Physiology (0/1) 0%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Pathology (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular (1/2) 50%
Pharmacology (1/2) 50%
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