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  • Question 1 - A 6 year old Somalian boy is admitted to the emergency department with...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old Somalian boy is admitted to the emergency department with dyspnoea. He looks distressed and has a heart rate of 180 bpm and a blood pressure of 130/90 mmHg. His respiratory rate is 37/min and his O2 saturation is 83% in room air. His temperature is 38C. His mother cannot speak English and neither does the child. The doctors observe that the boy has marked recession and a tracheal tug. He is crying and holding his chest. You immediately put the child on high flow oxygen, perform a chest X-ray and blood tests. The x-ray reveals bilateral pulmonary infiltrates. The blood results show:Hb:6g/dl, MCV:85fl, MCHC:36.0g/dl, WBC:19.6x109/l, neutrophils:15.3x109/l, PLT:350x109/l, CRP:50. His mother shows you that the child has been taking folic acid, hydroxyurea and Penicillin V daily, by pulling some tablets from her bag. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: HIV with chest infection

      Correct Answer: Sickle cell chest crisis

      Explanation:

      The child is suffering from acute sickle cell crisis, a complication of sickle cell disease. It is characterised by a new segmental pulmonary infiltrate consistent with consolidation together with one or more new respiratory symptoms.The mainstay of treatment is oxygen support, (ventilation if required), hydration, antibiotics and analgesia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 2 - A 12-year-old boy presented with jaundice and fatigue for the last two weeks....

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy presented with jaundice and fatigue for the last two weeks. He complains of intermittent pain in his epigastrium. He is otherwise healthy with no history of vomiting, diarrhoea, loss of appetite or weight. History revealed that he has had fatigue all his life leading to him missing out on sports at regular intervals at school. His mother reports that he had two episodes of hepatitis at ages 5 and 7 years. There is no family history of jaundice. He has no significant travel history.On physical examination, yellow sclera were observed. Additionally, on abdominal examination, the splenic tip was palpable at 3 cm with some tenderness of the right upper quadrant. He was found to have mild tachycardia with normal blood pressure and no fever.Blood results:- Hb: 12.6 g/dl- MCV: 104 fL- MCHC: 38 g/dL- WBC Count: 10 x 109/L- Reticulocyte count: 148 x 109/L (Normal Range 20-100 x 109/L)- Bilirubin: 34 μmol/L- LDH: 600 lμ/L (Normal Range 230-450 lμ/l)- Direct Coomb's test: NegativeAbdominal ultrasonography revealed an enlarged spleen measuring 15 cmWhat is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gilbert's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Hereditary spherocytosis

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis based on the scenario provided above is hereditary spherocytosis.While jaundice and abdominal pain might make you think of hepatitis or cholecystitis in the first instance, the lack of fever suggests otherwise. The apyrexial presentation is against acute cholecystitis, and the past medical history reveals a chronic type of fatigue and two previous episodes of hepatitis. Furthermore, it is unlikely that the child has contracted infective hepatitis twice and now a third time! The most common cause of hepatitis in childhood is hepatitis A, however the lack of travel history to endemic areas makes this less likely. Hepatitis A is usually a mild, self-limiting disease that never presents with chronic symptoms. The chronicity of his fatigue and the blood results lead towards a haematological diagnosis. This is further substantiated by his low haemoglobin levels, high MCV and high reticulocyte count. Chronic haemolytic anaemia is the most likely cause, and the negative Coombs excludes autoimmune haemolytic anaemia (AIHA). Thus, leaving us with the answer as hereditary spherocytosis.Hereditary spherocytosis is a disorder that makes the cytoskeleton of red cells more fragile and therefore leads to red cell death and splenomegaly. Gallstones are a result of this red cell destruction and increased haem metabolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 3 - A 10-year-old boy is brought to the hospital by his mother following complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy is brought to the hospital by his mother following complaints of fatigue. Considering a possible diagnosis of iron deficiency anaemia, blood investigations, including a peripheral smear, were ordered. The reports confirmed iron deficiency anaemia. Which of the following abnormal red cell types is likely to be seen in the peripheral smear of this patient?

      Your Answer: Rouleaux

      Correct Answer: Pencil cells

      Explanation:

      A peripheral blood film in iron deficiency anaemia can reveal the following morphologically variant RBCs:- Microcytic cells- Hypochromic cells- Pencil cells- Target cellsOther options:- Schistocytes can be caused by mechanical heart valves. – Rouleaux can be seen in chronic liver disease and malignant lymphoma. – Tear-drop poikilocytes can be seen in myelofibrosis. – Acanthocytes can be seen in liver disease and McLeod blood group phenotype.Pathological red cell forms include:- Target cells: Sickle-cell/thalassaemia, iron-deficiency anaemia, hyposplenism, and liver disease.- Tear-drop poikilocytes: Myelofibrosis- Spherocytes: Hereditary spherocytosis and autoimmune haemolytic anaemia- Basophilic stippling: Lead poisoning, thalassaemia, sideroblastic anaemia, and myelodysplasia- Howell-Jolly bodies: Hyposplenism- Heinz bodies: G6PD deficiency and alpha-thalassaemiaSchistocytes (‘helmet cells’): Intravascular haemolysis, mechanical heart valve, and disseminated intravascular coagulation- Pencil poikilocytes: Iron deficiency anaemia- Burr cells (echinocytes): Uraemia and pyruvate kinase deficiency – Acanthocytes: Abetalipoproteinemia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 4 - A 12-year-old boy is brought to the hospital following a road traffic accident....

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy is brought to the hospital following a road traffic accident. A diagnosis of splenic laceration was made, and a splenectomy was performed. Which among the following blood film findings is not a feature associated with hyposplenism?

      Your Answer: Acanthocytes

      Correct Answer: Thrombocytopenia

      Explanation:

      Hyposplenism is associated with thrombocytosis. Other features of hyposplenism are: – Howell-Jolly bodies and acanthocytosis, occurring secondary to haemolysis.- Pappenheimer bodies: These are granular deposits of iron found within the RBCs.- Lymphocytosis and monocytosis.Causes for hyposplenism include:- Congenital asplenia- Iatrogenic splenectomy: Following trauma or treatment for ITP, thalassemia or spherocytosis).- Autosplenectomy: Secondary to sickle cell anaemia, coeliac disease, dermatitis herpetiformis, essential thrombocythemia or splenic arterial thrombosis).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 5 - Which of the following changes can be seen on a blood film post-splenectomy?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following changes can be seen on a blood film post-splenectomy?

      Your Answer: Target cells

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis of a post-splenectomy/hyposplenism blood picture can be made reliably by identifying Howell Jolly bodies in routine Wright-Giemsa stained blood and target cells. These are round basophilic bodies in red blood cells that represent residual nuclear material from marrow nucleated red cell precursors that are usually culled out by the spleen.These do not occur in individuals with normally functioning splenic tissue and their presence indicates either 1) an asplenic state or 2) hypofunctioning splenic tissue as might be seen in a patient with late-stage sickle cell anaemia. Their presence in an individual with splenomegaly leads to a narrow differential diagnosis and their absence in a splenectomised individual indicates accessory splenic Heinz bodies and poikilocytosis typically increase in a splenectomised individual and care must be taken not to overdiagnose haemolysis in such an individual.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 6 - A 4 year old boy presented with bruises on bilateral buttocks and thighs....

    Incorrect

    • A 4 year old boy presented with bruises on bilateral buttocks and thighs. His mother denied any history of trauma. The boy had a sore throat a few weeks ago. What is the most appropriate management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Inform police

      Correct Answer: Coagulation profile

      Explanation:

      This history is suggestive of Henoch-Schönlein Purpura following a respiratory infection. A typical rash involving thighs and buttocks is often seen in this age group. Coagulation profile is the suitable answer from the given answers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 7 - A 14 year old girl suffers from haemophilia A and chronic knee pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 14 year old girl suffers from haemophilia A and chronic knee pain with progressive swelling and deformity over the last 4 years. Test results reveal a significantly reduced factor VIII activity. Which of the following is seen in the knee joint space after an acute painful episode?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cholesterol crystals

      Explanation:

      Due to breakdown of the red blood cell membrane in haemophilic patients, cholesterol crystals are formed by the lipids. On the other hand lipofuscin deposition does not occur in haemolysis or haemorrhage. Neutrophil accumulation suggests acute inflammation. Anthracotic pigment is an exogenous carbon pigment that deposits in the lung from dust. Russell bodies are intracellular accumulations of immunoglobins in plasma cells. Curschmann’s spirals and Charcot Leyden crystals are pathognomonic of asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 8 - A 6 year old boy presented in the emergency department with a cough...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old boy presented in the emergency department with a cough and knee swelling after falling on the road. He had a non-blanching rash on his buttocks and investigations revealed: PT=13, APTT=71, Hgb=11, WBC=8, Plt=200. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemophilia

      Explanation:

      From the options mentioned here, the closest diagnosis is haemophilia. This is a mixed picture, as a purpuric rash on the buttocks does not correlate with this diagnosis. However, the most appropriate diagnosis is haemophilia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 9 - An 11-year-old boy presents with complaints of deep pain in his right leg...

    Incorrect

    • An 11-year-old boy presents with complaints of deep pain in his right leg for the past four weeks. His mother describes him as ‘being off-colour’ of late. The physical examination of the child revealed no findings. Blood investigations reveal: Hb: 11.5 g/dL (13-18) WBC Count: 2.0 x 109/L (4-11) Differential Count: Neutrophils: 0.5 x 109/L (1.5-7.0) Lymphocytes: 1.4 x 109/L (1.5-4.0) Platelet count: 160 x 109/L (150-400) Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate: 50 mm in the 1st hourUrea and electrolytes were found to be within the normal range. An MRI showed diffuse uptake in both femurs, which are highly suggestive of tumour infiltration. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

      Explanation:

      The clinical features and the presentation of this child and the MRI findings are highly suggestive of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia.Anaemia and neutropenia, with a borderline platelet count as well as the tumour infiltration on both femurs on the MRI scan, are suggestive of a widespread Marrow disorder. Based on the age of the patient, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia is more appropriate as it is more common than acute myeloid leukaemia in children and can present with bony pain in this age group.Other options:- Acute myeloid leukaemia: Although this is the most common leukaemia that is seen in adults, it rarely presents in children. – Ewing’s sarcoma: This would usually present in a more unilateral manner, and would only be associated with cytopenia if there was direct bone marrow involvement.- HIV infection: It would be very rare in this group. HIV infection can cause a wide array of signs and symptoms, but we are told that the MRI scan is highly suggestive of tumour infiltration, which would be uncommon in this condition. – Juvenile arthritis: It is much less common. There is also nothing to find on examination, such as swollen or painful joints, which would usually be seen in this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 10 - A 5-year-old child was found to have orchidomegaly and splenomegaly. Blood tests show...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old child was found to have orchidomegaly and splenomegaly. Blood tests show a WBC = 1.7 X 104/L, Hb = 7.1 g/dl and platelets = 44 X 104g/dl. His parents mention that he suffers from fatigue while at presentation he looks pale and has a fever. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is an aggressive type of blood and bone marrow cancer which can appear in childhood. Signs of childhood ALL include: Fever, Easy bruising, Petechiae, Bone or joint pain, Painless lumps in multiple areas of the body, Weakness, fatigue or paleness, and Loss of appetite. Blood tests may show elevated white blood cells, decreased values of red blood cells and low platelet count.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 11 - A 16-year-old boy presents to the physician with a history of easy bruising...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy presents to the physician with a history of easy bruising and epistaxis since childhood. He recently had a dental extraction after which the bleeding lasted for 30 hours. His labs are sent and the reports are as follows: APTT: 36 secondsPT: 15 secondsFibrinogen: 2.5 g/lFactor VIIIC: 0.4 iu/ml (normal range 0.5-1.5)vWF antigen: 0.35 iu/ml (normal range 0.45-1.4)vWF ristocetin co-factor: 0.05 iu/ml (normal 0.45-1.35)PLT: 230 x 109/lBleeding time: 12 mins (normally up to 8 mins). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: von Willebrand disease type II

      Explanation:

      Von Willebrand disease (VWD), a congenital bleeding disorder caused by deficient or defective plasma von Willebrand factor (VWF), may only become apparent on haemostatic challenge, and bleeding history may become more apparent with increasing age. Type 1 VWD (,30% of VWD) typically manifests as mild mucocutaneous bleeding. Type 2 VWD accounts for approximately 60% of VWD. Type 2 subtypes include: Type 2A, which usually manifests as mild-to-moderate mucocutaneous bleeding| Type 2B, which typically manifests as mild-to-moderate mucocutaneous bleeding that can include thrombocytopenia that worsens in certain circumstances| Type 2M, which typically manifests as mild-moderate mucocutaneous bleeding| Type 2N, which can manifest as excessive bleeding with surgery and mimics mild haemophilia A. Type 3 VWD (<10% of VWD) manifests with severe mucocutaneous and musculoskeletal bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 12 - A 16-year-old female presents to the emergency department with recurrent epistaxis and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old female presents to the emergency department with recurrent epistaxis and a history of menorrhagia. The physician suspects Von Willebrand disease and requests for blood tests. Lab investigations reveal a prolonged bleeding time and thrombocytopenia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bernard - Soulier syndrome

      Explanation:

      Bernard- Soulier Syndrome results from a deficiency of platelet glycoprotein protein Ib, which mediates the initial interaction of platelets with the subendothelial components via the von Willebrand protein. It is a rare but severe bleeding disorder. Platelets do not aggregate to ristocetin. The platelet count is low, but, characteristically, the platelets are large, often the size of red blood cells, and may be missed on complete blood counts because most automatic counters do not count them as platelets.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 13 - A 15 month old girl from Greece presents with pallor. Her mother complains...

    Incorrect

    • A 15 month old girl from Greece presents with pallor. Her mother complains that she always seems tired. However, she has no problems with eating and has a fairly balanced diet. She was born in a rural part of the Greece and just recently moved to the UK with her parents. She hasn’t had any previous blood tests or investigations done since her birth. She has been on the second centile since her first check up in the UK, but has not lost any weight. The following are the results of her investigations. Hb 5.5g/dlMCV 62 flWBC 4.3 x 109/lPLT 430 x 109/lReticulocyte count 490 x 109/l (normal range 20-100 x 109/lFerritin 260 ng/ml (normal range: 20-300 ng/ml)Blood film: hypochromic microcytic red cells, polychromasia, fragmented red cells, nucleated red cellsWhat is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thalassaemia

      Explanation:

      The differentials of the child’s condition are likely to include an Iron deficiency anaemia, or a hemoglobinopathy such as sickle cell disease or thalassemia based on the presentation of pallor, growth failure and easy fatiguability. While the full blood count and film present a hypochromic microcytic anaemia with reticulocytosis, the normal serum ferritin levels rule out iron deficiency anaemia. Thalassemia is to be suspected over sickle cell disease as the patient comes from the Mediterranean region known for a high incidence of thalassemia. Sickle cell anaemia also tends to present with normocytic normochromic red blood cells, with many sickled cells. Vitamin B12 deficiency and Aplastic anaemia are ruled out as they present with a macrocytic anaemia, and a decrease in white blood cells, platelets and red blood cells respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 14 - A male had a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in his left calf. After...

    Incorrect

    • A male had a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in his left calf. After investigation, it was discovered that this was caused by a genetic disease and his children may be affected.What is the most common heritable cause of DVT?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Factor V Leiden

      Explanation:

      Based on the studies, genetic factors are responsible for approximately 60 % DVT cases. Factor V (FV) Leiden which is the most common cause of inherited thrombophilia, predisposes patients to DVT because of resistance to protein C.The heritable causes of deep vein thrombosis, from most to least common are:Factor V LeidenProthrombin G20210A variantProtein C deficiencyProtein S deficiencyAntithrombin deficiencyVon Willebrand disease and thalassaemia are not causes of DVT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 15 - Which of the given statements is correct regarding carbon monoxide? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the given statements is correct regarding carbon monoxide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CO combines with haemoglobin to form carboxyhaemoglobin

      Explanation:

      Carbon monoxide is a colourless gas, which is toxic to animals. It has a high affinity for haemoglobin (around 250 times greater than oxygen). It combines with haemoglobin forming carboxyhaemoglobin, which decreases the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, leading to a left-shift in the oxygen-dissociation curve. CO is produced endogenously in limited amounts (0.4ml per hour), but the toxic levels are higher.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 16 - A 14 year old girl suffers from haemophilia A and chronic knee pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 14 year old girl suffers from haemophilia A and chronic knee pain with progressive swelling and deformity over the last 4 years. Test results reveal a significantly reduced factor VIII activity. Which of the following is seen in the knee joint space after an acute painful episode?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cholesterol crystals

      Explanation:

      Due to breakdown of the red blood cell membrane in haemophilic patients, cholesterol crystals are formed by the lipids. On the other hand lipofuscin deposition does not occur in haemolysis or haemorrhage. Neutrophil accumulation suggests acute inflammation. Anthracotic pigment is an exogenous carbon pigment that deposits in the lung from dust. Russell bodies are intracellular accumulations of immunoglobins in plasma cells. Curschmann’s spirals and Charcot Leyden crystals are pathognomonic of asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 17 - A pathologist is examining a histological section and identifies Hassall's corpuscles.With what are...

    Incorrect

    • A pathologist is examining a histological section and identifies Hassall's corpuscles.With what are they most commonly associated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Medulla of the thymus

      Explanation:

      Hassall’s corpuscles are groups of epithelial cells within the thymic medulla. The physical nature of these structures differs between mammalian species. Although Hassall’s corpuscles have been proposed to act in both the removal of apoptotic thymocytes and the maturation of developing thymocytes within the thymus, the function of Hassall’s corpuscles has remained an enigma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 18 - A 12-year-old boy presents with severe abdominal pain, bloody faeces, haematuria and painful,...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy presents with severe abdominal pain, bloody faeces, haematuria and painful, swollen joints. Physical examination revealed petechiae on his legs. Blood investigations were found to be normal.What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Henoch–Schönlein purpura

      Explanation:

      The presentation of the child is highly suggestive of Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP). It is an IgA-mediated, autoimmune hypersensitivity vasculitis that targets the small vessels of the skin, GI tract, kidneys, and joints.It is most commonly seen in children aged 3 – 6 years old and is twice as common in boys than girls. Preceding viral URTI with low-grade pyrexia is common. The most common organism associated with HSP is, however, Group A streptococcal infection.A purpuric rash is seen on the back of the legs and buttocks and can less frequently affect the arms. Arthralgia is common (usually knees/ankles) in these patients.Abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea may occur. And half of the children with HSP have renal involvement. Rarely, it can lead to end-stage renal failure.Treatment includes adequate hydration, occasionally steroids, and other immunosuppressants. The disease can recur in 1 in 3 children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 19 - A child with jaundice and pale stools would most likely be evaluated by...

    Incorrect

    • A child with jaundice and pale stools would most likely be evaluated by which of the following tests?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: US

      Explanation:

      Blood tests do not help in the diagnosis of jaundice except of course by telling the level of jaundice (bilirubin) and providing some corroborative evidence such as autoantibodies, tumour markers or viral titres in the case of hepatitis. Classifying causes of jaundice on the basis of ultrasound provides a quick and easy schema for diagnosing jaundice which is applicable in primary care as well as hospital based practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 20 - A 14 year-old girl is found to have haemophilia B. What pathological problem...

    Incorrect

    • A 14 year-old girl is found to have haemophilia B. What pathological problem does she have?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Deficiency of factor IX

      Explanation:

      Haemophilia B (also known as Christmas disease) is due to a deficiency in factor IX. Haemophilia A is due to a deficiency in factor VIII.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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