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Question 1
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Infrared radiation is absorbed by asymmetric, polyatomic polar molecules like carbon dioxide (CO2).
When measuring CO2 in gas samples, mainstream capnography uses this physical principle.
Which of the following gases is most likely to interfere with carbon dioxide's absorption spectrum?Your Answer: Nitrous oxide
Explanation:Carbon dioxide absorbs the most infrared (IR) light between the wavelengths of 4.2-4.4m (4.26m is ideal).
Nitrous oxide absorbs infrared light at wavelengths of 4.4-4.6m (very similar to CO2) and less so at 3.9m.
At a frequency of 4.7m, carbon monoxide absorbs the most IR light.
At 3.3 m and throughout the ranges 8-12 m, the volatile agents have strong absorption bands.
Although oxygen does not absorb infrared light, it collides with CO2 molecules, interfering with absorption. The absorption band is widened as a result of this (so called collision or pressure broadening). A drop of 0.5 percent in measured CO2 can be caused by 95% oxygen.
Nitrous oxide causes a greater inaccuracy of 0.1 percent per ten percent of nitrous oxide.
Water vapour absorbs infrared light as well, resulting in absorption band overlap, collision broadening, and partial pressure dilution. Water traps and water permeable tubing are used to reduce inaccuracies.
Collision broadening is compensated for in modern gas multi-gas analysers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A bolus of alfentanil has a faster onset of action than an equal dose of fentanyl.
Which of the following statements most accurately describes the difference?Your Answer: The volume of distribution of alfentanil is less than fentanyl
Correct Answer: The pKa of alfentanil is less than that of fentanyl
Explanation:Unionised molecules are more likely than ionised molecules to cross membranes (such as the blood-brain barrier).
Because alfentanil and fentanyl are weak bases, the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation says that the ratio of ionised to unionised molecules is determined by the parent compound’s pKa in relation to physiological pH.
Alfentanil has a pKa of 6.5, while fentanyl has a pKa of 8.4.
At a pH of 7.4, 89 percent of alfentanil is unionised, whereas 9% of fentanyl is.As a result, alfentanil has a faster onset than fentanyl.
Fentanyl is 83% plasma protein bound
Alfentanil is 90% plasma protein bound.Alfentanil’s pharmacokinetics are affected by its higher plasma protein binding. Because alfentanil has a low hepatic extraction ratio (0.4), clearance is determined by the degree of protein binding rather than the time it takes to take effect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 33-year old man was referred to you because of difficulty moving his limbs.
History revealed that he was placed under anaesthesia for a major surgery 12 hours prior to the referral. Other symptoms were noted such as anxiousness, agitation, and fever of 38°C. Upon physical examination, he was tachycardic at 119 beats per minute. Moreover, his medical history showed that he was on Fluoxetine for clinical depression.
The nurses reported that, because of his frequent complaints of axillary pain, he was given tramadol with paracetamol.
Which of the following is responsible for his clinical features?Your Answer: Tramadol
Explanation:Tramadol is weak agonist at the mu receptor. It inhibits the neuronal reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine, and inhibits pain neurotransmission. It is given for moderate pain, chronic pain syndromes, and neuropathic pain.
Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). It inhibits the neuronal reuptake of serotonin by inhibiting the serotonin transporter (SERT). It is the drug of choice for major depressive disorder, and is given for other psychiatric disorders such as anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, post-traumatic stress, and phobias.
When tramadol is given with SSRIs, serotonin syndrome may occur. Serotonin syndrome is characterized by fever, agitation, tremors, clonus, hyperreflexia and diaphoresis. The onset of symptoms may occur within a few hours, and the first-line treatment is sedation, paralysis, intubation and ventilation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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With regards to arterial oxygen content, which of the following contributes most from a quantitative perspective?
Your Answer: Partial pressure of oxygen in plasma
Correct Answer: Haemoglobin concentration
Explanation:The amount of oxygen carried by 100 ml of blood is called the arterial oxygen content (CaO2)and is normally 17-24 ml/dL and can be determined by this equation:
CaO2 = oxygen bound to haemoglobin + oxygen dissolved in plasma
CaO2 = (1.34 × Hgb × SaO2 × 0.01) + (0.003 × PaO2)
where:
1.34 = Huffner’s constant (D) – Huffner’s constant does not change and its magnitude relatively small.
Hgb is the haemoglobin level in g/dL and SaO2 is the percent oxyhaemoglobin saturation of arterial blood
PaO2 is (0.0225 = ml of O2 dissolved per 100 ml plasma per kPa, or 0.003 ml per mmHg).Quantitatively, the amount of oxygen dissolved in plasma is 0.3 mL/dL.
Henry’s law states that at constant temperature, the amount of gas dissolved at equilibrium in a given quantity of a liquid is proportional to the pressure of the gas in contact with the liquid.
Given a haemoglobin concentration of 15 g/dL and a SaO2 of 100% and a PaO2 of 13.3 kPa, the amount of oxygen bound to haemoglobin is 20.4 mL/100mL.
Cardiac output is an important determinant of oxygen delivery but does not influence the oxygen content of blood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Anaesthetic awareness is most probable in general anaesthesia for which surgical operation?
Your Answer: Elective inguinal hernia surgery
Correct Answer: Emergency surgery for major trauma
Explanation:Awareness during general anaesthesia is a frightening experience, which may result in serious emotional injury and post-traumatic stress disorder.
The incidence of awareness during general anaesthesia with current anaesthetic agents and techniques has been reported as 0.2-0.4% in nonobstetric and noncardiac surgery, as 0.4% during caesarean section, and as 1.5% in cardiac surgery.
The incidence during major trauma surgery is higher. Incidence of recall has been reported to be as high as 11-43% in major trauma cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true with regards to 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG)?
Your Answer: It causes an increase in the affinity of the haemoglobin molecule for oxygen
Correct Answer: Production is increased in heart failure
Explanation:During glycolysis, 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG) is
created in erythrocytes by the Rapoport-Luebering shunt.The production of 2,3-DPG increases for several conditions
in the presence of decreased peripheral tissue O2 availability.
Some of these conditions include hypoxaemia, chronic lung
disease anaemia, and congestive heart failure. Thus,
2,3-DPG production is likely an important adaptive mechanism.High levels of 2,3-DPG cause a shift of the curve to the right.
Low levels of 2,3-DPG cause a shift of the curve to the left,
as seen in states such as septic shock and hypophosphatemia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Regarding the anatomical relations of the first rib, one of the following is right
Your Answer: The upper trunk of the brachial plexus grooves the upper surface
Correct Answer: The subclavius muscle attaches to the upper surface
Explanation:The first rib is an atypical rib. It is short, wide, and flattened and lies in an oblique plane.
It has a small scalene tubercle on its medial border which marks the point of attachment of scalenus anterior. The lower surface lies on the pleura and is smooth.
The tubercle on the upper surface separates an anterior groove for the subclavian vein and a posterior groove for the subclavian artery and lower trunk of the brachial plexus.
Scalenus medius is attached to a roughened area posterior to the groove for the subclavian artery.
The upper surface gives attachment anteriorly to the subclavius muscle and costoclavicular ligament.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old woman with myasthenia gravis is admitted to the ER with type II respiratory failure. There is a suspicion of myasthenic crisis.
She is in a semiconscious state. Her blood pressure is 160/90 mmHg, pulse is 110 beats per minute, temperature is 37°C, and oxygen saturation is 84 percent.
With a PaCO2 of 75 mmHg (10 kPa) breathing air, blood gas analysis confirms she is hypoventilating.
Which of the following values is the most accurate representation of her alveolar oxygen tension (PAO2)?Your Answer: 8.3
Correct Answer: 7.3
Explanation:The following is the alveolar gas equation:
PAO2 = PiO2 − PaCO2/R
Where:
PAO2 is the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli.
PiO2 is the partial pressure of oxygen inhaled.
PaCO2 stands for partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the arteries.
The amount of carbon dioxide produced (200 mL/minute) divided by the amount of oxygen consumed (250 mL/minute) equals R = respiratory quotient. With a normal diet, the value is 0.8.By subtracting the partial pressure exerted by water vapour at body temperature, the PiO2 can be calculated:
PiO2 = 0.21 × (100 kPa − 6.3 kPa)
PiO2 = 19.8Substituting:
PAO2 = 19.8 − 10/0.8
PAO2 = 19.8 − 12.5
PAO2 = 7.3k Pa -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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The ED95 of muscle relaxants is the dose required to reduce twitch height by 95% in half of the target population. The dose of non-depolarizing muscle relaxants used for intubation is 2-3 times the ED95.
For procedures that need a short duration of muscle relaxation and abrupt recovery, the short-acting drug Mivacurium is given at less than 2 times the ED95. What is the explanation for Mivacurium being an exception to this rule?Your Answer: It is metabolised more slowly than succinylcholine via plasma cholinesterase
Correct Answer: Dose related histamine release occurs which frequently leads to tachycardia and hypotension
Explanation:Mivacurium, when administered at doses greater than 0.2 mg/kg,increases the risk for hypotension, tachycardia, and erythema. This is due to the ability of mivacurium to release histamine with increasing dose. Contrary to this fact, anaphylaxis is rare for mivacurium because of the short duration of histamine release.
The effective dose 50 (ED50) of mivacurium is between 0.08-0.15 mg/kg. It is administered slowly to prevent and decrease the risk of developing adverse effects.
Mivacurium has a high potency thus a longer duration of action, however this is not the answer that we are looking for.
Although drug metabolism takes longer for mivacurium than succinylcholine, it has no effect on the dose required for intubation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 89-year old male has hypertension, with a blood pressure of 170/68 mmHg and has been admitted to the hospital. He is on no regular medications. His large pulse pressure can be accounted for by which of the following?
Your Answer: Reduced circulating volume
Correct Answer: Reduced aortic compliance
Explanation:Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate
Left ventricular ejection fraction = (stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume ) x 100%
Stroke volume = end diastolic LV volume – end systolic LV volume
Pulse pressure = Systolic Pressure – Diastolic Pressure
Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output
Factors that increase pulse pressure include:
-a less compliant aorta (this tends to occur with advancing age)
-increased stroke volume -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 11
Correct
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Substitution at different positions of the barbituric ring give rise to different pharmacologic properties.
Substitution with and at which specific site of the ring affects lipid solubility the most?Your Answer: Sulphur atom at position 2
Explanation:Barbiturates are derived from barbituric acid, which itself is nondepressant, but appropriate side-chain substitutions result in CNS depressant activity that varies in potency and duration with carbon chain length, branching, and saturation.
Oxybarbiturates retain an oxygen atom on number 2-carbon atom of the barbituric acid ring.
Thiobarbiturates replace this oxygen atom with a sulphur atom, which confers greater lipid solubility. Generally speaking, a substitution such as sulphuration that increases lipid solubility is associated with greater hypnotic potency and more rapid onset, but shorter duration of action.
Addition of a methyl group to the nitrogen atom of the barbituric acid ring, as with oxybarbiturate methohexital, also results in a compound with a short duration of action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Out of the following, which is NOT a part of the contents of the porta hepatis?
Your Answer: Portal vein
Correct Answer: Cystic duct
Explanation:The porta hepatis is a fissure in the inferior surface of the liver. All the neurovascular structures that enter and leave the porta hepatis are:
1. hepatic portal vein
2. hepatic artery
3. hepatic ducts
4. hepatic nerve plexus (It contains the sympathetic branch to the liver and gallbladder and the parasympathetic, hepatic branch of the vagus nerve.)These structures supply and drain the liver. Only the hepatic vein is not part of the porta hepatis.
The porta hepatis is also surrounded by lymph nodes, that may enlarge to produce obstructive jaundice.
These structures divide immediately after or within the porta hepatis to supply the functional left and right lobes of the liver.The cystic duct lies outside the porta hepatis and is an important landmark in laparoscopic cholecystectomy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old businesswoman presents to the emergency department complaining of shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain. Her work requires her to travel internationally frequently. The consultant makes a diagnosis and treats her.
Now, the consultant recommends placing a filter that will prevent future incidents. A needle is placed into the femoral vein and passed up into the abdomen to insert the filter.
What is true regarding the organ where the filter is placed for this patient's condition?Your Answer: It is attached to the liver via multiple ligaments
Correct Answer: It is located posteriorly to the peritoneum
Explanation:The patient likely suffers from pulmonary embolism due to her history of frequent international travels. A filter is placed in the inferior vena cava to decrease the risk of future episodes of pulmonary embolism. The IVC filter is a small, wiry device that can catch blood clots and stop them from going into the heart and lungs. Your IVC is a major vessel that brings deoxygenated blood from the lower body to the heart, from where it is pumped into the lungs.
The filter is placed via a thin catheter inserted into the femoral vein in the groin. The catheter is gently moved up into your IVC, and a filter is introduced.
The IVC is a retroperitoneal organ.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy is undergoing investigations for coeliac disease. Tissue biopsies were taken from both the small and large intestinal linings.
Which of the following is found in the small intestine lining but not in that of the large intestine in a normal biopsy?Your Answer: Muscularis mucosae
Correct Answer: Villi
Explanation:The small and large intestinal walls are composed of the following common layers:
1. Mucosa
2. Submucosa
3. Muscularis Externa
4. AdventitiaIntestinal villi are highly vascular projections of the mucosal surface that cover the entire small intestinal mucosa. They increase the lumen’s surface area, which aids in absorption and digestion, the primary functions of the small intestine. Villi are large and most abundant in the duodenum and jejunum.
In both the small and large intestines, the muscularis mucosae are found within the mucosa. The myenteric nerve plexus is found innervating the muscularis externa. The mucosa is lined with columnar epithelial cells, and goblet cells may be present to secrete mucins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 15
Correct
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The Fick principle can be used to determine the blood flow to any organ of the body.
At rest, which one of these organs has the highest blood flow (ml/min/100g)?Your Answer: Thyroid gland
Explanation:After the carotid body, the thyroid gland is the second most richly vascular organ in the body.
The global blood flow to the thyroid gland can be measured using:
1. Colour ultrasound sonography
2. Quantitative perfusion maps using MRI of the thyroid gland using an arterial spin labelling (ASL) method.This table shows the blood flow to various organs of the body at rest:
Organ Blood Flow(ml/minute/100g)
Hepatoportal 58
Kidney 420
Brain 54
Skin 13
Skeletal muscle 2.7
Heart 87
Carotid body 2000
Thyroid gland 560 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Among the following options, which one can not be the value of Pearson's correlation coefficient?
Your Answer: 1
Correct Answer: 1.5
Explanation:The correlation coefficient gives us the idea about relation between two parameters. i.e. to what extent change in parameter A could prompt a change in parameter B. The numerical value of correlation coefficient could not be greater than 1.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A patient has a myocardial infarction with anterior ST elevation. There are the following observations:
Cardiac output 2.0 L/min
Blood pressure 80/60 mmHg
CVP 20 mmHg
SpO2 91% on 4 L/min oxygen
What is the most logical physiological explanation for these findings?Your Answer: An increase in systemic vascular resistance
Correct Answer: Biventricular failure
Explanation:The occlusion of the left anterior descending (LAD) coronary artery causes anterior ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). It has the worst prognosis of all the infarct locations due to its larger infarct size. It has a higher rate of total mortality (27 percent versus 11 percent), heart failure (41 percent versus 15 percent), and a lower ejection fraction on admission than an inferior myocardial infarction (38 percent versus 55 percent ).
The LAD artery supplies the majority of the interventricular septum, as well as the anterior, lateral, and apical walls of the left ventricle, as well as the majority of the right and left bundle branches and the bicuspid valve’s anterior papillary muscle (left ventricle).
The left or right ventricle’s end-diastolic volume (EDV) is the volume of blood in each chamber at the end of diastole before systole. Preload is synonymous with the EDV.
120 mL is a typical left ventricular EDV (range 65-240 mL). The EDV of the right ventricle in a typical range is (100-160 mL).
With an ejection fraction (EF) of less than 45 percent, the patient is most likely suffering from systolic dysfunction. Increases in right and left ventricular end-diastolic pressures and volumes are likely with a reduced EF because the ventricles are not adequately emptied. The left atrium and the pulmonary vasculature are affected by the increased pressures on the left side of the heart.
By causing an imbalance of the Starling forces acting across the capillaries, increased hydrostatic pressure in the pulmonary circulation favours the development of pulmonary oedema. With cardiogenic pulmonary oedema, capillary permeability is likely to remain unchanged.
Biventricular failure will result as a result of the pressure changes being transmitted to the right side of the circulation. The patient’s systemic vascular resistance is likely to be elevated as well, but it is not the most likely cause of his symptoms. The patient is suffering from cardiogenic shock as a result of biventricular failure. The patient has low cardiac output and is hypotensive. Right ventricular filling pressures are elevated, indicating right ventricular dysfunction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Gag reflex was assessed as a part of brain stem death in a 22-year-old man with severe traumatic brain injury.
Which of the following nerves forms the afferent limb of this reflex?Your Answer: Trigeminal nerve
Correct Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve
Explanation:The gag reflex is a protective mechanism that prevents any foreign material to enter the aerodigestive tract.
This reflex has afferent (sensory) and effect (motor) components.
– Glossopharyngeal nerve form the afferent limb
– Vagus nerve form the efferent limb -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Regarding thermocouple, which of the following best describes its properties?
Your Answer: Can be used as a switch in a thermostat
Correct Answer: The electromotive force at the measuring junction is proportional to temperature
Explanation: -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which of the following causes the right-sided shift of the oxygen haemoglobin dissociation curve?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic iron deficiency anaemia
Explanation:With respect to oxygen transport in cells, almost all oxygen is transported within erythrocytes. There is limited solubility and only 1% is carried as solution. Thus, the amount of oxygen transported depends upon haemoglobin concentration and its degree of saturation.
Haemoglobin is a globular protein composed of 4 subunits. Haem is made up of a protoporphyrin ring surrounding an iron atom in its ferrous state. The iron can form two additional bonds – one is with oxygen and the other with a polypeptide chain.
There are two alpha and two beta subunits to this polypeptide chain in an adult and together these form globin. Globin cannot bind oxygen but can bind to CO2 and hydrogen ions.
The beta chains are able to bind to 2,3 diphosphoglycerate. The oxygenation of haemoglobin is a reversible reaction. The molecular shape of haemoglobin is such that binding of one oxygen molecule facilitates the binding of subsequent molecules.The oxygen dissociation curve (ODC) describes the relationship between the percentage of saturated haemoglobin and partial pressure of oxygen in the blood.
Of note, it is not affected by haemoglobin concentration.Chronic anaemia causes 2, 3 DPG levels to increase, hence shifting the curve to the right
Haldane effect – Causes the ODC to shift to the left. For a given oxygen tension there is increased saturation of Hb with oxygen i.e. Decreased oxygen delivery to tissues.
This can be caused by:
-HbF, methaemoglobin, carboxyhaemoglobin
-low [H+] (alkali)
-low pCO2
-ow 2,3-DPG
-ow temperatureBohr effect – causes the ODC to shifts to the right = for given oxygen tension there is reduced saturation of Hb with oxygen i.e. Enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues. This can be caused by:
– raised [H+] (acidic)
– raised pCO2
-raised 2,3-DPG
-raised temperature -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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