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  • Question 1 - The normal location of the major duodenal papilla: ...

    Correct

    • The normal location of the major duodenal papilla:

      Your Answer: Descending part of the duodenum

      Explanation:

      The major duodenal papilla is on the descending portion of the duodenum on the medial side, about 7-10cm from the pylorus. The pancreatic ducts and the common bile ducts unite and open by a common orifice on the summit of the duodenal papilla.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      2.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 49-year-old man, smoker, complains of a persisting and worsening cough over the...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old man, smoker, complains of a persisting and worsening cough over the past few months. He also has noted blood in his sputum. The patient has no other major health conditions. Which of the following investigative procedures should be done first?

      Your Answer: Sputum cytology

      Explanation:

      Sputum cytology is a diagnostic test used for the examination of sputum under a microscope to determine if abnormal cells are present. It may be used as the first diagnostic procedure to help detect a suspected lung cancer or certain non-cancerous lung conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Respiratory
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - When a penile tumour invades the subepithelial connective tissue of the penis, what...

    Correct

    • When a penile tumour invades the subepithelial connective tissue of the penis, what is its stage?

      Your Answer: T1

      Explanation:

      The TNM staging used for penile cancer is as follows:

      TX: primary tumour cannot be assessed

      T0: primary tumour is not evident

      Tis: carcinoma in situ is present

      Ta: non-invasive verrucous carcinoma is present

      T1: tumour is invading subepithelial connective tissue

      T2: tumour is invading the corpora spongiosum or cavernosum

      T3: tumour invading the urethra or prostate

      T4: tumour invading other adjacent structures.

      In this case, the patient has a T1 tumour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Urology
      1.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following organelles have the capacity to regenerate and spontaneously replicate?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following organelles have the capacity to regenerate and spontaneously replicate?

      Your Answer: Mitochondrion

      Explanation:

      A mitochondria is a membrane bound organelle found in eukaryotic cells. They are called the powerhouse of the cell and are the place where ATP is formed from energy generated through metabolism. They are capable of replication as well as repair and regeneration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      1.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - The glossopharyngeal nerve provides the parasympathetic innervation of the: ...

    Correct

    • The glossopharyngeal nerve provides the parasympathetic innervation of the:

      Your Answer: Parotid salivary gland

      Explanation:

      The glossopharyngeal nerve provides parasympathetic innervation for the parotid salivary gland via the auriculotemporal nerve. The facial nerve supplies the parasympathetic innervation of the lacrimal, nasal, sublingual and submandibular glands.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck; Neurology
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - When at rest, which of the following will be higher in a marathon...

    Correct

    • When at rest, which of the following will be higher in a marathon runner compared to an untrained individual?

      Your Answer: Cardiac stroke volume

      Explanation:

      Cardiac muscle hypertrophy is seen in trained athletes as compared to the normal population. This hypertrophy results in higher stroke volume at rest and increased cardiac reserve (maximum cardiac output during exercise). However, the cardiac output at rest is almost the same in both trained and untrained people. This is because in trained athletes, the heart rate is slower, even up to 40-50 beats/min. There is minimal affect of athletic training on oxygen consumption and respiratory rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 65-year old patient with altered bowl movement experienced the worsening of...

    Correct

    • A 65-year old patient with altered bowl movement experienced the worsening of shortness of breath and exertional chest pains over the course of 8 weeks. Examination shows pallor and jugular venous distension. Furthermore, a test of the stool for occult blood is positive. Laboratory studies show:

      Haemoglobin 7.4 g/dl

      Mean corpuscular volume 70 fl Leukocyte count 5400/mm3

      Platelet count 580 000/mm3 Erythrocyte sedimentation 33 mm/h

      A blood smear shows hypochromic, microcytic RBCs with moderate poikilocytosis. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Iron deficiency anaemia

      Explanation:

      Iron deficiency anaemia is the most common type of anaemia. It can occur due to deficiency of iron due to decreased intake or due to faulty absorption. An MCV less than 80 will indicated iron deficiency anaemia. On the smear the RBC will be microcytic hypochromic and will also show piokilocytosis. iron profiles tests are important to make a diagnosis. Clinically the patient will be pale and lethargic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      1.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 7-month-old abandoned baby with congenital non-communicating hydrocephalus is hosted by a clinic...

    Correct

    • A 7-month-old abandoned baby with congenital non-communicating hydrocephalus is hosted by a clinic at its new-born hostel. A CT scan of the baby's brain reveals what might be a blockage of the ventricular system between the third and the fourth ventricles. Which of the following is the most likely blocked structure?

      Your Answer: Cerebral aqueduct

      Explanation:

      The drainage of cerebral spinal fluid from the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle is carried out by the cerebral aqueduct. The cerebral aqueduct is the narrowest passageway in the entire ventricular system and thus forms the most common site of blockage of flow of cerebrospinal fluid. The interventricular foramen allows passage of CSF to the third ventricle. The foramen of Luschka and Magendie are located on the fourth ventricle and allow passage of CSF to the subarachnoid space from the ventricular system. The pontine cistern is a space located on the ventral aspect of the pons. The cisterna magna is an opening on the subarachnoid space between the pia matter and the arachnoid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Work of breathing (WOB) is the energy expended to inhale and exhale a breathing gas. Normally, maximal amount of work...

    Correct

    • Work of breathing (WOB) is the energy expended to inhale and exhale a breathing gas. Normally, maximal amount of work of breathing is required to overcome:

      Your Answer: Elastic lung compliance

      Explanation:

      The forces of elastance (compliance), frictional resistance and inertia have been identified as the forces that oppose lung inflation and deflation. The normal relaxed state of the lung and chest is partially empty. Further exhalation requires muscular work. Inhalation is an active process requiring work. About 60–66% of the total work performed by the respiratory muscles is used to overcome the elastic or compliance characteristics of the lung–chest cage, 30–35% is used to overcome frictional resistance and only 2–5% of the work is used for inertia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following is most likely to cause hypovolaemic hypernatremia: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is most likely to cause hypovolaemic hypernatremia:

      Your Answer: Hyperalimentation

      Explanation:

      Hypernatremia, characterised by a high serum sodium concentration, is rarely associated with volume overload (hypervolemia). A hypovolaemic hypernatremia may be seen during excessive administration of hypertonic sodium bicarbonate, hypertonic saline or hyperalimentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 25 year old male patient who had sustained a stab wound in...

    Correct

    • A 25 year old male patient who had sustained a stab wound in the middle of the posterior aspect of the left thigh, was discharged from hospital after dressing and antibiotic prophylaxis. Later on the patient developed bleeding through the wound and upon review, the source was discovered to be an artery that is the direct source of the medial and lateral circumflex arteries. Which is this artery that was injured?

      Your Answer: Profunda femoris artery

      Explanation:

      The medial and lateral circumflex arteries are direct branches of the Profunda femoris artery otherwise also known as the deep artery of the thigh. The Profunda femoris artery arises from the femoral artery just below the inguinal ligament (approximately 2-5cm below it).

      The following are the branches of the deep artery of the thigh:

      Lateral circumflex femoral artery

      Medial circumflex femoral artery

      Perforating arteries

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following nerves has its terminal branch at the supratrochlear nerve?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following nerves has its terminal branch at the supratrochlear nerve?

      Your Answer: Frontal

      Explanation:

      The supratrochlear nerve is a branch of the frontal nerve which comes from the ophthalmic division of cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve). It passes above the superior oblique nerve and its descending filaments join the infratrochlear branch of the nasociliary nerve. From the orbit, it exits between the supraorbital foramen and the pulley of the superior oblique. It then curves up to the forehead beneath the corrugator supercilli and frontalis muscle. It further divides into branches that supply sensory innervation to the bridge of the nose, medial part of the upper eyelid and medial forehead.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - One sensitive indicator of heavy alcohol dependence is: ...

    Correct

    • One sensitive indicator of heavy alcohol dependence is:

      Your Answer: Elevated serum gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase

      Explanation:

      Elevated serum gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) may be the only laboratory abnormality in patients who are dependent on alcohol. Heavy drinkers may also have an increased MCV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Physiology
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Some substances, such as Chromium-51 and Technetium-99, are freely filtered but not secreted...

    Correct

    • Some substances, such as Chromium-51 and Technetium-99, are freely filtered but not secreted or absorbed by the kidney. In these cases, their clearance rate is equal to:

      Your Answer: Glomerular filtration rate

      Explanation:

      If a substance passes through the glomerular membrane with perfect ease, the glomerular filtrate contains virtually the same concentration of the substance as does the plasma and if the substance is neither secreted nor reabsorbed by the tubules, all of the filtered substance continues on into the urine. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) describes the flow rate of filtered fluid through the kidney.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following malignancies is associated with the development of Lambert-Eaton myasthenic...

    Correct

    • Which of the following malignancies is associated with the development of Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome?

      Your Answer: Lung cancer

      Explanation:

      Lambert–Eaton myasthenic syndrome is a rare disorder of the neuromuscular junction. It can occur as a solitary diagnosis but it can also occur as a paraneoplastic syndrome associated with lung cancer, particularly small-cell histology. It can also be associated with other cancers such as lymphoma, non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, T-cell leukaemia, non-small-cell lung cancer, prostate cancer and thymoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Following nerve injury, paralysis of the quadriceps femoris muscle occurs. Which of the...

    Correct

    • Following nerve injury, paralysis of the quadriceps femoris muscle occurs. Which of the following movements will be affected?

      Your Answer: Extension of the leg

      Explanation:

      The quadriceps muscle is a great extensor of the thigh. Therefore, following nerve injury or cutting nerve supply to the quadriceps will affect extension of the thigh

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following arteries is the posterior branch of the external carotid...

    Correct

    • Which of the following arteries is the posterior branch of the external carotid artery?

      Your Answer: Superficial temporal

      Explanation:

      The external carotid artery is a branch of the common carotid artery that supplies parts of the neck, head and face. It branches off from the common carotid artery at the level of the thyroid cartilage. The external carotid, at the level of the mandible divides into the maxillary artery and the superficial temporal. The superficial temporal artery is the posterior branch of these two arteries. It starts off, somewhat, as a continuation of the external carotid artery at the substance of the parotid gland. Anterior cerebral and middle cerebral arteries are branches of the internal carotid artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 45-year old farmer was referred to the surgical clinic with complaints of...

    Correct

    • A 45-year old farmer was referred to the surgical clinic with complaints of pain in his right hypochondrium. Investigations confirmed the diagnosis of hepatocellular carcinoma with malignant ascites. According to you, what is the most likely cause of HCC in this patient?

      Your Answer: Aflatoxin

      Explanation:

      Aflatoxins are naturally occurring toxins produced by the Aspergillus fungus (most often, A. flavus and A. parasiticus). These organisms are common and their native habitat is soil, decaying vegetation and grains. They can contaminate the grain before harvest or after storage, more likely in high-humidity (at least 7%) or high temperature environment of after stressful conditions like drought. Aflatoxins are mycotoxins and also carcinogenic. They get metabolized in the liver to an epoxide, aflatoxin M1. High exposure can lead to acute necrosis, cirrhosis or liver carcinoma. These substances can cause haemorrhage, acute liver damage, oedema, and alteration in digestion, absorption and/or metabolism of nutrients. Although humans are susceptible to these toxins like all other animals, they have a high tolerance level and hence, rarely develop acute aflatoxicosis. However, children are particularly susceptible to exposure leading to growth impairment and delayed development. Chronic exposure carries a high risk of hepatic cancer, due to intercalation of its metabolite aflatoxin M1 into the DNA and alkylation of the bases because of its epoxide moiety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary
      • Pathology
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What is the mostly likely cause of prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (aPPT)...

    Correct

    • What is the mostly likely cause of prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (aPPT) ?

      Your Answer: Heparin therapy

      Explanation:

      The partial thromboplastin time (PTT) or activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is an indicator for measuring the efficacy of both the intrinsic and common coagulation pathway. Prolonged aPTT may indicate: use of heparin, antiphospholipid antibody and coagulation factor deficiency (e.g., haemophilia). Deficiencies of factors VIII, IX, XI and XII and rarely von Willebrand factor (if causing a low factor VIII level) may lead to a prolonged aPTT correcting on mixing studies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Cranial nerve XII, the hypoglossal nerve, innervates which one of the following muscles...

    Correct

    • Cranial nerve XII, the hypoglossal nerve, innervates which one of the following muscles in the list?

      Your Answer: Hyoglossus

      Explanation:

      The cranial nerve XII, hypoglossal nerve, innervates all the intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue except the palatoglossus. The muscles of the tongue innervated by this nerve include the extrinsic muscles; hyoglossus, styloglossus, genioglossus and the intrinsic muscles; superior longitudinal, inferior longitudinal, vertical and transverse muscles. The salpingopharyngeus, palatoglossus and the palatopharyngeus muscles are innervated by the vagus nerve. The stylopharyngeus muscle is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX). The mylohyoid muscle is innervated by the inferior alveolar nerve, a branch of the mandibular nerve. Finally, the geniohyoid muscle is innervated by the olfactory nerve (CN I) via the hypoglossal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      2.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Abdomen (1/1) 100%
Anatomy (8/8) 100%
Pathology (5/5) 100%
Respiratory (2/2) 100%
Urology (1/1) 100%
General (3/3) 100%
Physiology (7/7) 100%
Head & Neck; Neurology (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Head & Neck (4/4) 100%
Fluids & Electrolytes (2/2) 100%
Lower Limb (2/2) 100%
Hepatobiliary (1/1) 100%
Neoplasia (1/1) 100%
Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary (1/1) 100%
Passmed