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Question 1
Incorrect
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Which of the following methods is not utilized to diagnose narcolepsy?
Your Answer: Sleep deprived EEG
Correct Answer: HLA testing
Explanation:In addition to conducting a thorough medical history and physical examination, healthcare providers typically order a series of tests to aid in the diagnosis of narcolepsy. These tests may include a multiple sleep latency test (MSLT) and a polysomnogram (PSG). The MSLT measures the time it takes for a person to fall asleep during the day, while the PSG records various physiological parameters during sleep, such as brain waves, eye movements, and muscle activity. These tests can help confirm the presence of narcolepsy and rule out other sleep disorders.
Sleep Disorders
The International Classification of Sleep Disorders (ISCD) categorizes sleep disorders into several main categories and subclasses. Dyssomnias are intrinsic sleep disorders that include narcolepsy, psychopsychologic insomnia, idiopathic hypersomnia, restless leg syndrome, periodic limb movement disorder, and obstructive sleep apnea. Extrinsic sleep disorders include inadequate sleep hygiene and alcohol-dependent sleep disorder. Circadian rhythm disorders consist of jet lag syndrome, shift work sleep disorder, irregular sleep-wake pattern, delayed sleep phase syndrome, and advanced sleep phase disorder. Parasomnias include arousal disorders such as sleepwalking and sleep terrors, sleep-wake transition disorders such as rhythmic movement disorder, sleep talking, and nocturnal leg cramps, and parasomnias associated with REM sleep such as nightmares and sleep paralysis. Sleep disorders associated with medical/psychiatric disorders and proposed sleep disorders are also included in the classification.
Narcolepsy is a disorder of unknown cause that is characterized by excessive sleepiness, cataplexy, and other REM sleep phenomena such as sleep paralysis and hypnagogic hallucinations. Periodic limb movement disorder is characterized by periodic episodes of repetitive and highly stereotyped limb movements that occur during sleep. Restless legs syndrome is a disorder characterized by disagreeable leg sensations that usually occur prior to sleep onset and that cause an almost irresistible urge to move the legs. Jet lag syndrome consists of varying degrees of difficulties in initiating or maintaining sleep, excessive sleepiness, decrements in subjective daytime alertness and performance, and somatic symptoms following rapid travel across multiple time zones. Shift work sleep disorder consists of symptoms of insomnia of excessive sleepiness that occur as transient phenomena in relation to work schedules. Non 24 hour sleep wake syndrome consists of a chronic steady pattern comprising one to two hour daily delays in sleep onset and wake times in an individual living in society. Sleepwalking consists of a series of complex behaviors that are initiated during slow-wave sleep and result in walking during sleep. Sleep terrors are characterized by a sudden arousal from slow wave sleep with a piercing scream of cry, accompanied by autonomic and behavioral manifestations of intense fear. Rhythmic movement disorder comprises a group of stereotyped, repetitive movements involving large muscles, usually of the head and neck. Sleep starts are sudden, brief contractions of the legs, sometimes also involving the arms and head, that occur at sleep onset. Nocturnal leg cramps are painful sensations of muscular tightness of tension, usually in the calf but occasionally in the foot, that occur during the sleep episode. Nightmares are frightening dreams that usually awaken the sleeper from REM sleep. Sleep paralysis is a common condition characterized by transient paralysis of skeletal muscles which occurs when awakening from sleep of less often while falling asleep.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 2
Correct
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How can Thomas Szasz's views be best represented?
Your Answer: Mental illness is not a disease
Explanation:Throughout his career, Szasz contended that mental illness is merely a metaphor for difficulties in human existence, and that mental illnesses lack the objective reality of physical ailments like cancer. He opposed many aspects of the contemporary psychiatric system in developed countries.
Antipsychiatry is a movement that emerged in the 1960s and challenges the traditional medical model of mental illness. It argues that mental illnesses are not biological of medical conditions but rather social constructs that reflect deviations from social norms. The movement has been associated with several famous figures, including Thomas Szasz, R.D. Laing, Michel Foucault, and Franco Basaglia. These individuals have criticized the psychiatric profession for its use of involuntary hospitalization, medication, and other forms of coercion in the treatment of mental illness. They have also advocated for alternative approaches to mental health care, such as community-based care and psychotherapy. Despite its controversial nature, the antipsychiatry movement has had a significant impact on the field of mental health and continues to influence the way we think about and treat mental illness today.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 3
Correct
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Which term is commonly associated with Goffman?
Your Answer: Total institution
Explanation:Goffman coined the term ‘total institution’ in relation to asylums, which were responsible for fulfilling all the patients’ requirements, thereby hindering their rehabilitation.
D.W. Winnicott – Good enough mother, transitional object: Winnicott believed that a good enough mother is one who provides a secure and nurturing environment for her child, allowing them to develop a sense of self and independence. He also introduced the concept of the transitional object, such as a teddy bear of blanket, which helps a child transition from the mother’s care to the outside world.
Carl Jung – Collective unconscious, archetype, anima, animus: Jung believed in the existence of a collective unconscious, a shared pool of knowledge and experience that all humans possess. He also introduced the concept of archetypes, universal symbols and patterns that are present in the collective unconscious. The anima and animus are archetypes representing the feminine and masculine aspects of the psyche.
Melanie Klein – Paranoid-schizoid position, depressive position, splitting: Klein introduced the concept of the paranoid-schizoid position, a stage of development in which a child experiences intense anxiety and fear of persecution. She also introduced the depressive position, a stage in which the child learns to integrate positive and negative feelings towards others. Splitting is the defense mechanism in which a person sees things as either all good of all bad.
Sigmund Freud – Free association, transference, ego, super-ego, id, eros, thanatos, defense mechanisms, oedipus Complex, the unconscious: Freud is known for his theories on the unconscious mind, including the id, ego, and super-ego. He also introduced the concepts of eros (the life instinct) and thanatos (the death instinct), as well as defense mechanisms such as repression and denial. The Oedipus complex is a theory about a child’s sexual desire for their opposite-sex parent.
Wilfred Bion – Basic assumption group: Bion introduced the concept of the basic assumption group, a group that forms around a shared fantasy of assumption. He believed that these groups can be helpful of harmful, depending on the assumptions they are based on.
Karen Horney – Womb envy: Horney believed that men experience womb envy, a feeling of inferiority and jealousy towards women due to their inability to bear children. She also introduced the concept of neurotic needs, such as the need for affection and the need for power.
Erving Goffman – Total institution: Goffman introduced the concept of the total institution, a place where people are completely cut off from the outside world and subjected to strict rules and regulations. Examples include prisons and mental hospitals.
Siegfried Foulkes – Foundation matrix: Foulkes introduced the concept of the foundation matrix, a group’s shared history and experiences that shape their current dynamics and interactions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Who wrote the first book on medical ethics?
Your Answer: Hippocrates
Correct Answer: Ishaq bin Ali Rahawi
Explanation:Ishaq bin Ali Rahawi tackled ethical concerns in the field of medicine in his work, Adab al-Tabib (Conduct of a Physician), during the 9th century.
Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.
More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 5
Correct
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What is a characteristic of consequentialist theories?
Your Answer: The moral status of an act is determined by its outcomes
Explanation:The exam will require you to differentiate between the three main ethical principles: consequentialism, virtue theory, and deontology. Consequentialism prioritizes outcomes over intentions, while virtue theory emphasizes character, and deontology focuses on motives. A deep understanding of ethics is not necessary, but a basic comprehension of these principles is required.
Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.
More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 6
Correct
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Whenever a certain student receives a good grade from a teacher, they believe it is because they did well and met high standards. But when the same student receives a bad grade, they assume the teacher must be in a bad mood of doesn't like them. What is this reaction an example of?
Your Answer: Self-serving bias
Explanation:A fundamental attribution error refers to the tendency to overemphasize dispositional factors and underestimate situational factors when explaining other people’s behavior. The correct term for making false assumptions about other people’s behavior is actually the fundamental attribution error.
Attribution Theory: Understanding How We Explain Events
Attribution theory provides a framework for understanding how individuals explain events in their environment. It examines how people use information to arrive at causal explanations for events and what factors influence their judgments. Fritz Heider first proposed a theory of attribution in 1958.
However, attribution is prone to biases such as the Fundamental Attribution Error (FAE), which overemphasizes dispositional factors over situational causes when making attributions about others’ behavior. The Actor-Observer Bias, on the other hand, undervalues dispositional explanations and overvalued situational explanations of our own behavior. Correspondence bias is the tendency to draw inferences about a person’s unique and enduring dispositions from behaviors that can be entirely explained by the situations in which they occur. Self-serving bias refers to people’s tendency to attribute their successes to internal factors but attribute their failures to external factors. Hostile Attribution Bias (HAB) is an interpretive bias where individuals interpret ambiguous behavior as hostile, leading to aggression. Finally, the False Consensus Effect is the tendency for people to project their way of thinking onto others, assuming that everyone else thinks the same way they do.
Overall, attribution theory helps us understand how people make sense of events in their environment, but it is important to be aware of the biases that can influence our judgments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 7
Correct
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Which of the following does not describe a typical trait of narcolepsy?
Your Answer: Anosognosia
Explanation:Narcolepsy is identified by a set of four symptoms, including excessive sleepiness, cataplexy, sleep paralysis, and hallucinations during sleep onset of awakening. While hypnagogic hallucinations have been traditionally linked to narcolepsy, both hypnagogic and hypnopompic hallucinations can occur.
Sleep Disorders
The International Classification of Sleep Disorders (ISCD) categorizes sleep disorders into several main categories and subclasses. Dyssomnias are intrinsic sleep disorders that include narcolepsy, psychopsychologic insomnia, idiopathic hypersomnia, restless leg syndrome, periodic limb movement disorder, and obstructive sleep apnea. Extrinsic sleep disorders include inadequate sleep hygiene and alcohol-dependent sleep disorder. Circadian rhythm disorders consist of jet lag syndrome, shift work sleep disorder, irregular sleep-wake pattern, delayed sleep phase syndrome, and advanced sleep phase disorder. Parasomnias include arousal disorders such as sleepwalking and sleep terrors, sleep-wake transition disorders such as rhythmic movement disorder, sleep talking, and nocturnal leg cramps, and parasomnias associated with REM sleep such as nightmares and sleep paralysis. Sleep disorders associated with medical/psychiatric disorders and proposed sleep disorders are also included in the classification.
Narcolepsy is a disorder of unknown cause that is characterized by excessive sleepiness, cataplexy, and other REM sleep phenomena such as sleep paralysis and hypnagogic hallucinations. Periodic limb movement disorder is characterized by periodic episodes of repetitive and highly stereotyped limb movements that occur during sleep. Restless legs syndrome is a disorder characterized by disagreeable leg sensations that usually occur prior to sleep onset and that cause an almost irresistible urge to move the legs. Jet lag syndrome consists of varying degrees of difficulties in initiating or maintaining sleep, excessive sleepiness, decrements in subjective daytime alertness and performance, and somatic symptoms following rapid travel across multiple time zones. Shift work sleep disorder consists of symptoms of insomnia of excessive sleepiness that occur as transient phenomena in relation to work schedules. Non 24 hour sleep wake syndrome consists of a chronic steady pattern comprising one to two hour daily delays in sleep onset and wake times in an individual living in society. Sleepwalking consists of a series of complex behaviors that are initiated during slow-wave sleep and result in walking during sleep. Sleep terrors are characterized by a sudden arousal from slow wave sleep with a piercing scream of cry, accompanied by autonomic and behavioral manifestations of intense fear. Rhythmic movement disorder comprises a group of stereotyped, repetitive movements involving large muscles, usually of the head and neck. Sleep starts are sudden, brief contractions of the legs, sometimes also involving the arms and head, that occur at sleep onset. Nocturnal leg cramps are painful sensations of muscular tightness of tension, usually in the calf but occasionally in the foot, that occur during the sleep episode. Nightmares are frightening dreams that usually awaken the sleeper from REM sleep. Sleep paralysis is a common condition characterized by transient paralysis of skeletal muscles which occurs when awakening from sleep of less often while falling asleep.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 8
Correct
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Who are the co-authors of the book 'Social origins of depression'?
Your Answer: George Brown
Explanation:The objective of the book ‘Social origins of Depression’ was to identify the societal elements that play a role in the onset of depression, particularly in women.
History of major works in psychiatry
Michel Foucault – Madness and civilization
Sigmund Freud – The interpretation of dreams, Beyond the Pleasure Principle, The Psychopathology of everyday life
Thomas Szasz – The myth of mental illness
Erving Goffman – Asylums, The Presentation of Self in Everyday Life
Ronald Laing – The divided self
Emile Durkheim – Le suicide. Durkheim proposed social causes for suicide. Until his work was published, suicide had been thought of as an individual act only.
Tom Main – The Ailment
Jerome Frank – Persuasion and Healing
George Brown and Tirril Harris – Social origins of depression -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 9
Correct
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The focus of the Tarasoff case was on which of the following?
Your Answer: Duty to warn
Explanation:The therapists in the Tarasoff case were faulted for placing greater importance on maintaining the patient’s confidentiality, thereby prioritizing the principle of beneficence over the rights of the potential victim. As a result, they were deemed to have failed in their duty to consider the principle of non-maleficence.
Double Agentry in Psychiatry
Double agentry is a term used to describe a situation where a psychiatrist’s conflict of interest interferes with their ability to act in the best interests of their patient. Psychiatrists often have to balance the interests of multiple parties, such as the patient, family, society, and hospital commissioners, which is known as multiagency.
The Tarasoff case is a prime example of double agentry in psychiatry. Two therapists failed to warn a woman that their patient had expressed an intention to kill her. They chose not to do so to respect the patient’s confidentiality, but failed to recognize their duty of care to both the patient and the potential victim. Unfortunately, the woman was eventually murdered by the patient.
This case, which occurred in California, led to a change in the law that now requires therapists to have a legal duty to both their patients and potential victims. It highlights the importance of psychiatrists being aware of their responsibilities to all parties involved and ensuring that they act in the best interests of their patients while also fulfilling their duty of care to others.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Who is the well-known British psychiatrist, known for his affiliation with the antipsychiatry movement, and is recognized for his statement that 'Madness does not necessarily have to be a complete breakdown, but can also be a breakthrough'?
Your Answer: Szasz
Correct Answer: Laing
Explanation:Apart from Bleuler who is Swiss, all the other psychiatrists in the list of options are German – Kraepelin and…
Antipsychiatry is a movement that emerged in the 1960s and challenges the traditional medical model of mental illness. It argues that mental illnesses are not biological of medical conditions but rather social constructs that reflect deviations from social norms. The movement has been associated with several famous figures, including Thomas Szasz, R.D. Laing, Michel Foucault, and Franco Basaglia. These individuals have criticized the psychiatric profession for its use of involuntary hospitalization, medication, and other forms of coercion in the treatment of mental illness. They have also advocated for alternative approaches to mental health care, such as community-based care and psychotherapy. Despite its controversial nature, the antipsychiatry movement has had a significant impact on the field of mental health and continues to influence the way we think about and treat mental illness today.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 11
Correct
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What psychological process is referred to by the term 'cocktail party effect'?
Your Answer: Focussed attention in presence of multiple stimuli
Explanation:The term phatic communication is used to describe casual conversation. The ‘cocktail party effect’ is the ability to concentrate on one person’s voice in any setting, such as a classroom, sports game, of coffee shop, even if there is a lot of background noise.
The Cocktail Party Effect: Selective Attention in Noisy Environments
The cocktail party effect is a phenomenon that allows individuals to selectively focus on a single conversation in a noisy environment, while ignoring other competing conversations. This feature of selective attention is particularly useful in social situations, such as parties, where multiple conversations are taking place simultaneously. For instance, if you are conversing with a friend at a noisy party, you can effectively tune out the surrounding noise and concentrate on your friend’s conversation. This ability to filter out irrelevant information and focus on relevant information is a crucial aspect of human cognition. It enables us to navigate complex social environments and engage in meaningful interactions with others.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 12
Correct
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What is the condition being described by a woman who experiences sudden falls upon hearing a loud noise?
Your Answer: Cataplexy
Explanation:Narcolepsy is identified by a set of four symptoms, including excessive sleepiness, hypnagogic hallucinations, sleep paralysis, and cataplexy. Cataplexy is a brief and sudden weakening of muscle control, typically brought on by emotional triggers, and is frequently observed in individuals with narcolepsy.
Sleep Disorders
The International Classification of Sleep Disorders (ISCD) categorizes sleep disorders into several main categories and subclasses. Dyssomnias are intrinsic sleep disorders that include narcolepsy, psychopsychologic insomnia, idiopathic hypersomnia, restless leg syndrome, periodic limb movement disorder, and obstructive sleep apnea. Extrinsic sleep disorders include inadequate sleep hygiene and alcohol-dependent sleep disorder. Circadian rhythm disorders consist of jet lag syndrome, shift work sleep disorder, irregular sleep-wake pattern, delayed sleep phase syndrome, and advanced sleep phase disorder. Parasomnias include arousal disorders such as sleepwalking and sleep terrors, sleep-wake transition disorders such as rhythmic movement disorder, sleep talking, and nocturnal leg cramps, and parasomnias associated with REM sleep such as nightmares and sleep paralysis. Sleep disorders associated with medical/psychiatric disorders and proposed sleep disorders are also included in the classification.
Narcolepsy is a disorder of unknown cause that is characterized by excessive sleepiness, cataplexy, and other REM sleep phenomena such as sleep paralysis and hypnagogic hallucinations. Periodic limb movement disorder is characterized by periodic episodes of repetitive and highly stereotyped limb movements that occur during sleep. Restless legs syndrome is a disorder characterized by disagreeable leg sensations that usually occur prior to sleep onset and that cause an almost irresistible urge to move the legs. Jet lag syndrome consists of varying degrees of difficulties in initiating or maintaining sleep, excessive sleepiness, decrements in subjective daytime alertness and performance, and somatic symptoms following rapid travel across multiple time zones. Shift work sleep disorder consists of symptoms of insomnia of excessive sleepiness that occur as transient phenomena in relation to work schedules. Non 24 hour sleep wake syndrome consists of a chronic steady pattern comprising one to two hour daily delays in sleep onset and wake times in an individual living in society. Sleepwalking consists of a series of complex behaviors that are initiated during slow-wave sleep and result in walking during sleep. Sleep terrors are characterized by a sudden arousal from slow wave sleep with a piercing scream of cry, accompanied by autonomic and behavioral manifestations of intense fear. Rhythmic movement disorder comprises a group of stereotyped, repetitive movements involving large muscles, usually of the head and neck. Sleep starts are sudden, brief contractions of the legs, sometimes also involving the arms and head, that occur at sleep onset. Nocturnal leg cramps are painful sensations of muscular tightness of tension, usually in the calf but occasionally in the foot, that occur during the sleep episode. Nightmares are frightening dreams that usually awaken the sleeper from REM sleep. Sleep paralysis is a common condition characterized by transient paralysis of skeletal muscles which occurs when awakening from sleep of less often while falling asleep.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 13
Correct
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Who is recognized as the originator of the frustration-aggression hypothesis regarding aggression?
Your Answer: Dollard
Explanation:Dollard’s frustration-aggression hypothesis was the precursor to Berkowitz’s model, which posits that aggression arises from the inhibition of frustration of an individual’s goal-directed behavior.
Theories of aggression can be categorized into three main perspectives: psychodynamic, sociological/drive, and cognitive and learning. Psychodynamic theory, proposed by Freud, suggests that aggression arises from a primary instinct called thanatos, which aims for destruction and death. Sociobiological/drive theory, proposed by Lorenz, suggests that aggression is instinctual and necessary for survival, and that stronger genes are selected through aggression. Cognitive and learning theory, proposed by Berkowitz, Rotter, Bandura, and Anderson, suggests that aggression can be learned through observational learning and is influenced by environmental factors. Bandura’s work introduced the concept of reciprocal determinism, which suggests that behavior is influenced by both the environment and the individual’s behavior. Rotter’s social learning theory emphasizes the interaction between the individual and their environment, while Anderson and Bushman’s general aggression model considers the role of social, cognitive, developmental, and biological factors on aggression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 14
Correct
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What is true about global psychogenic amnesia?
Your Answer: It is often associated with fugue states
Explanation:The presence of repetitive questioning is not commonly seen in cases of global psychogenic amnesia and may indicate transient global amnesia instead.
Psychogenic Amnesia: A Non-Neurological Syndrome
Psychogenic amnesia is a rare condition where patients experience severe retrograde amnesia without any known brain injury of disorder. This syndrome is also known as hysterical amnesia, dissociative amnesia, and functional retrograde amnesia. It can be difficult to distinguish from malingered amnesia. There are two types of psychogenic amnesia: global and situation-specific. Global psychogenic amnesia can manifest as psychogenic fugue, psychogenic focal retrograde amnesia, of multiple personality disorder. Situation-specific amnesia refers to a gap in memory for a traumatic incident and can arise in various circumstances, such as PTSD of being the victim of an offense. The amnesia in global psychogenic amnesia often follows a reversed gradient, with earlier memories preferentially affected. Three factors have been identified as predisposing factors for global psychogenic amnesia: a severe precipitating stress, a history of depressed mood and suicidal ideas, and a previous history of a transient neurological amnesia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 15
Correct
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Whilst assessing a woman with schizophrenia you notice she is vague and cannot recall basic details such as what she ate for breakfast of how she traveled to the appointment. She is accompanied by a carer who explains that the patient has not been the same since she had a head injury 8 months ago. The woman has a relatively good memory for aspects of her childhood such as where she was born and what school she attended. Which of the following is suggested?
Your Answer: Anterograde amnesia
Explanation:The head injury resulted in anterograde amnesia, which is characterized by memory loss for events that occurred after the injury.
Understanding Amnesia: Types and Causes
Amnesia is a memory deficit that can be categorized into two types: anterograde and retrograde. Anterograde amnesia refers to the inability to create new memories, while retrograde amnesia refers to the loss of memory for information acquired before the onset of amnesia. The damage to the hippocampus and medial temporal lobe is often associated with amnesia. Source amnesia is the inability to remember where of how previously learned information was acquired. Psychogenic amnesia is characterized by sudden retrograde episodic memory loss, while semantic amnesia affects semantic memory and language use. Transient global amnesia is a condition that affects those over 50 and spontaneously resolves within 24 hours, with no clear cause identified. Understanding the types and causes of amnesia can help in its diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 16
Correct
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Which of the following is not commonly linked to restless legs syndrome?
Your Answer: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Explanation:RLS is not a risk factor for COPD, but COPD is a risk factor for sleep apnoea.
Sleep Disorders
The International Classification of Sleep Disorders (ISCD) categorizes sleep disorders into several main categories and subclasses. Dyssomnias are intrinsic sleep disorders that include narcolepsy, psychopsychologic insomnia, idiopathic hypersomnia, restless leg syndrome, periodic limb movement disorder, and obstructive sleep apnea. Extrinsic sleep disorders include inadequate sleep hygiene and alcohol-dependent sleep disorder. Circadian rhythm disorders consist of jet lag syndrome, shift work sleep disorder, irregular sleep-wake pattern, delayed sleep phase syndrome, and advanced sleep phase disorder. Parasomnias include arousal disorders such as sleepwalking and sleep terrors, sleep-wake transition disorders such as rhythmic movement disorder, sleep talking, and nocturnal leg cramps, and parasomnias associated with REM sleep such as nightmares and sleep paralysis. Sleep disorders associated with medical/psychiatric disorders and proposed sleep disorders are also included in the classification.
Narcolepsy is a disorder of unknown cause that is characterized by excessive sleepiness, cataplexy, and other REM sleep phenomena such as sleep paralysis and hypnagogic hallucinations. Periodic limb movement disorder is characterized by periodic episodes of repetitive and highly stereotyped limb movements that occur during sleep. Restless legs syndrome is a disorder characterized by disagreeable leg sensations that usually occur prior to sleep onset and that cause an almost irresistible urge to move the legs. Jet lag syndrome consists of varying degrees of difficulties in initiating or maintaining sleep, excessive sleepiness, decrements in subjective daytime alertness and performance, and somatic symptoms following rapid travel across multiple time zones. Shift work sleep disorder consists of symptoms of insomnia of excessive sleepiness that occur as transient phenomena in relation to work schedules. Non 24 hour sleep wake syndrome consists of a chronic steady pattern comprising one to two hour daily delays in sleep onset and wake times in an individual living in society. Sleepwalking consists of a series of complex behaviors that are initiated during slow-wave sleep and result in walking during sleep. Sleep terrors are characterized by a sudden arousal from slow wave sleep with a piercing scream of cry, accompanied by autonomic and behavioral manifestations of intense fear. Rhythmic movement disorder comprises a group of stereotyped, repetitive movements involving large muscles, usually of the head and neck. Sleep starts are sudden, brief contractions of the legs, sometimes also involving the arms and head, that occur at sleep onset. Nocturnal leg cramps are painful sensations of muscular tightness of tension, usually in the calf but occasionally in the foot, that occur during the sleep episode. Nightmares are frightening dreams that usually awaken the sleeper from REM sleep. Sleep paralysis is a common condition characterized by transient paralysis of skeletal muscles which occurs when awakening from sleep of less often while falling asleep.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which of the following emphasizes the outcomes resulting from a choice rather than the behaviors leading up to it?
Your Answer: Deontology
Correct Answer: Teleology
Explanation:Teleology, derived from the Greek words for goal and theory, is a moral philosophy that emphasizes the outcomes of actions as the initial consideration in evaluating ethical behavior. This category of theories is also known as consequentialism, as it focuses on the consequences of an action as the basis for determining its morality. Consequentialism evaluates the morality of an action based on the balance of its positive and negative outcomes. Utilitarianism of social consequentialism is the most prevalent form of consequentialism, although it is not the only one.
Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.
More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 18
Correct
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How would you define a term that refers to a mark of shame of dishonor that distinguishes an individual from their peers?
Your Answer: Stigma
Explanation:Stigma refers to a characteristic of behavior that is deemed shameful by society and causes an individual to be viewed as different from others.
Stigma is a term used to describe the negative attitudes and beliefs that people hold towards individuals who are different from them. There are several types of stigma, including discredited and discreditable stigma, felt stigma, enacted stigma, and courtesy stigma. Discredited stigma refers to visible stigmas such as race, gender, of physical disability, while discreditable stigma refers to concealable stigmas such as mental illness of HIV infection. Felt stigma is the shame and fear of discrimination that prevents people from seeking help, while enacted stigma is the experience of unfair treatment by others. Finally, courtesy stigma refers to the stigma that attaches to those who are associated with a stigmatized person.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 19
Correct
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Who is credited with developing the theory of prima facie duties, which played a significant role in establishing the four principles of medical ethics?
Your Answer: Ross
Explanation:Ross proposed the idea of prima facie duties, which were later modified by Beauchamp and Childress to form the four principles approach to medical ethics. The prima facie duties identified by Ross encompassed fidelity, reparation, gratitude, non-injury, harm-prevention, beneficence, self-improvement, and justice.
Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.
More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 20
Correct
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What is the synonym for consequentialism?
Your Answer: Teleology
Explanation:Teleology, derived from the Greek words for goal and theory, is a moral philosophy that emphasizes the outcomes of actions as the initial consideration in evaluating ethical behavior. This category of theories is also known as consequentialism, as it focuses on the consequences of an action as the basis for determining its morality. Consequentialism evaluates the morality of an action based on the balance of its positive and negative outcomes. Utilitarianism of social consequentialism is the most prevalent form of consequentialism, although it is not the only one.
Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.
More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A teenager expresses frustration that when they tell their peers what their parents do for a living, they feel judged and treated differently. What is the term for this type of stigma?
Your Answer: Stigma by proxy
Correct Answer: Courtesy stigma
Explanation:Courtesy stigma, also known as stigma by association, is a genuine type of stigma that targets individuals who are connected to those with mental health issues, such as family members and healthcare providers. The remaining terms are not valid.
Stigma is a term used to describe the negative attitudes and beliefs that people hold towards individuals who are different from them. There are several types of stigma, including discredited and discreditable stigma, felt stigma, enacted stigma, and courtesy stigma. Discredited stigma refers to visible stigmas such as race, gender, of physical disability, while discreditable stigma refers to concealable stigmas such as mental illness of HIV infection. Felt stigma is the shame and fear of discrimination that prevents people from seeking help, while enacted stigma is the experience of unfair treatment by others. Finally, courtesy stigma refers to the stigma that attaches to those who are associated with a stigmatized person.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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What is the term used to describe the inclination of a person to believe that a behavior they witness is indicative of the actor's lasting and unchanging personality traits?
Your Answer: Fundamental Attribution Error
Correct Answer: Correspondence bias
Explanation:While the terms fundamental attribution error (FAE) and correspondence bias are often used interchangeably, they actually have distinct differences. FAE refers to the tendency to attribute others’ behavior to internal causes rather than external ones. On the other hand, correspondence bias takes this a step further by attributing the behavior to the person’s enduring characteristics of personality, assuming that this is always how they are.
Attribution Theory: Understanding How We Explain Events
Attribution theory provides a framework for understanding how individuals explain events in their environment. It examines how people use information to arrive at causal explanations for events and what factors influence their judgments. Fritz Heider first proposed a theory of attribution in 1958.
However, attribution is prone to biases such as the Fundamental Attribution Error (FAE), which overemphasizes dispositional factors over situational causes when making attributions about others’ behavior. The Actor-Observer Bias, on the other hand, undervalues dispositional explanations and overvalued situational explanations of our own behavior. Correspondence bias is the tendency to draw inferences about a person’s unique and enduring dispositions from behaviors that can be entirely explained by the situations in which they occur. Self-serving bias refers to people’s tendency to attribute their successes to internal factors but attribute their failures to external factors. Hostile Attribution Bias (HAB) is an interpretive bias where individuals interpret ambiguous behavior as hostile, leading to aggression. Finally, the False Consensus Effect is the tendency for people to project their way of thinking onto others, assuming that everyone else thinks the same way they do.
Overall, attribution theory helps us understand how people make sense of events in their environment, but it is important to be aware of the biases that can influence our judgments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 23
Correct
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What is an example of an optical illusion that creates the perception of motion?
Your Answer: Phi phenomenon
Explanation:The Hering illusion is an optical illusion where straight and parallel lines appear to be curved of bowed outwards when presented in front of a radial background, such as the spokes of a bicycle wheel.
Gestalt Psychology and the Laws of Perceptual Organization
Gestalt psychology emerged as a response to structuralism, which aimed to break down thoughts into their basic components. Instead, Gestalt psychologists recognized that individual items must be examined together, as they interact and add complexity to the overall picture. Max Wertheimer, Kurt Koffka, and Wolfgang Köhler are important names associated with Gestalt psychology. Wertheimer discovered the phi phenomenon, which explains how rapid sequences of perceptual events create the illusion of motion. The Gestalt laws of perceptual organization explain how we tend to organize parts into wholes. These laws include symmetry and order, similarity, proximity, continuity, closure, and common fate. These laws help us understand how the mind groups similar elements into collective entities of totalities, and how spatial or temporal grouping of elements may induce the mind to perceive a collective of totality. Additionally, the laws explain how points that are connected by straight of curving lines are seen in a way that follows the smoothest path, and how things are grouped together if they seem to complete a picture. Finally, elements with the same moving direction are perceived as a collective of unit.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Which theory can be used to explain the process of a boy overcoming his fear of a new dog through repeated exposure while being comforted by his mother?
Your Answer: Operant conditioning
Correct Answer: Reciprocal inhibition
Explanation:The child’s ability to confront his fear is facilitated by his relaxation while sitting with his mother, which exemplifies the use of reciprocal inhibition in systematic desensitization.
Classical Conditioning: A Learning Theory by Ivan Pavlov
Classical conditioning is a learning theory developed by Ivan Pavlov. It suggests that events that occur together are associated and acquire a similar meaning. Unlike operant conditioning, which focuses on responses to behavior, classical conditioning looks at responses to stimuli. In classical conditioning, animals behave as if they have learned to associate a stimulus with a significant event. Pavlov demonstrated that innate responses, such as a dog salivating when it sees food, can be associated with a neutral stimulus, such as ringing a bell, so that ringing the bell can cause salivation even in the absence of food.
Important terms used in classical conditioning include stimulus generalization and discrimination, higher order conditioning, spontaneous recovery, and aversive conditioning. Extinction is the laboratory analogue of exposure therapy for anxiety disorders, while Counterconditioning involves pairing a feared conditioned stimulus with a positive outcome. Incubation occurs in fear responses, and reciprocal inhibition is a technique that aims to replace an undesired response with a desired one by counterconditioning. Some stimuli are more prone to conditioning than others, which is referred to as stimulus/biological preparedness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 25
Correct
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A child called Jack has developed a fear of dogs after he was chased by a dog in the park. The parent addresses this by exposing Jack to a friendly dog. Initially Jack reacted nervously and cried at the sight of the dog but over a period of 15 minutes, he settled in the company of this dog.
What could be the reason for the improvement in Jack's fear of dogs?Your Answer: Extinction
Explanation:In psychology, the spacing effect suggests that humans are more likely to remember of learn items in a list when they are studied a few times over a long period of time (spaced presentation) rather than repeatedly in a short period of time, which is known as massed practice.
Classical Conditioning: A Learning Theory by Ivan Pavlov
Classical conditioning is a learning theory developed by Ivan Pavlov. It suggests that events that occur together are associated and acquire a similar meaning. Unlike operant conditioning, which focuses on responses to behavior, classical conditioning looks at responses to stimuli. In classical conditioning, animals behave as if they have learned to associate a stimulus with a significant event. Pavlov demonstrated that innate responses, such as a dog salivating when it sees food, can be associated with a neutral stimulus, such as ringing a bell, so that ringing the bell can cause salivation even in the absence of food.
Important terms used in classical conditioning include stimulus generalization and discrimination, higher order conditioning, spontaneous recovery, and aversive conditioning. Extinction is the laboratory analogue of exposure therapy for anxiety disorders, while Counterconditioning involves pairing a feared conditioned stimulus with a positive outcome. Incubation occurs in fear responses, and reciprocal inhibition is a technique that aims to replace an undesired response with a desired one by counterconditioning. Some stimuli are more prone to conditioning than others, which is referred to as stimulus/biological preparedness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 26
Correct
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Which option below is not considered a theory of emotion?
Your Answer: Maslow's theory
Explanation:The concept proposed by Maslow is centered around a pyramid of needs.
Theories of Emotion
In membership exams, four main theories of emotion are commonly discussed: James-Lange theory, Cannon-Bard theory, Singer-Schachter theory, and Lazarus theory. The key to understanding the differences between these theories is to identify where the stimulus for the emotion arises.
According to the James-Lange theory, emotions occur as a result of bodily sensations. For instance, if you see a big dog, your heart races, and you feel afraid. This theory proposes that certain external stimuli stimulate specific sensory organs, leading to a particular emotion. The sequence of events suggested by this theory is as follows: event – arousal – interpretation – emotion. In other words, the stimulus for emotion arises from physical sensations.
The Cannon-Bard theory, also known as the thalami theory, proposes that when an event occurs, one experiences an emotion at the same time as physiological changes. The stimulus for emotion arises simultaneously in the body and the mind.
The Singer-Schachter theory, also known as the two-factor theory, suggests that emotions result from both physiological changes and the context. For example, if your heart is racing, and you are about to have an exam, you label yourself as afraid. However, if your heart is racing, and you are about to kiss your partner, you label your emotional state as excited. The stimulus for emotion arises via a combination of physical sensations and the mind’s appraisal of them.
Finally, the Lazarus theory proposes that a thought is required before an emotion occurs. For instance, if you see a big dog, you think it is going to bite you, and you feel afraid. The stimulus for emotion arises from the mind.
In summary, these theories offer different perspectives on the relationship between physical sensations, cognitive processes, and emotions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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What is the approach to multiculturalism that the council member is advocating for when explaining the emergence of the Polish shops and restaurants in the local town?
Your Answer: Active
Correct Answer: Laissez-faire
Explanation:Cultural pluralism is present in situations where there is a notable amount of diversity, whether it is intentional or unintentional.
Multiculturalism is the coexistence of various cultural of ethnic groups within a shared social and political framework. Acculturation is the process of cultural and psychological change that occurs when different cultural groups come into contact with each other. Canadian psychologist John Berry identified four paths to acculturation: assimilation, integration, separation, and marginalization. Assimilation involves giving up one’s home culture and adopting the dominant culture, while integration involves maintaining one’s home culture while also embracing the dominant culture. Separation involves maintaining one’s home culture while being isolated from the dominant culture, and marginalization involves giving up one’s home culture and failing to related properly to the dominant culture. There is a cultural debate regarding assimilation and multiculturalism, with two forms of assimilation recognized: total assimilation, which involves the obliteration of the non-dominant culture, and melting pot assimilation, which refers to a less extreme version where a new form of the dominant culture emerges. Laissez-faire multiculturalism refers to multiculturalism that occurs without planning, such as the existence of Chinatowns in most cities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 28
Correct
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According to Holmes and Rahe, which stressful life event is considered the most stressful?
Your Answer: Divorce
Explanation:While it’s not necessary to memorize the precise sequence of all the stressful life events, it’s advisable to have knowledge of the order of the most significant three.
Holmes Rahe Stress Scale (Social Readjustment Rating Scale)
In 1967, Holmes and Rahe conducted a study on the impact of stress on illness. They surveyed over 5,000 medical patients and asked them to report whether they had experienced any of 43 life events in the past two years. Each event was assigned a Life Change Unit (LCU) value, which represented its weight for stress. The higher the score, the more likely the patient was to become ill.
The first 10 life events and their corresponding LCU values are listed below.
1. Death of spouse – 100
2. Divorce – 73
3. Marital separation – 65
4. Jail term – 63
5. Death of a close family member – 63
6. Personal illness – 53
7. Marriage – 50
8. Being fired from work – 47
9. Marital reconciliation – 45
10. Retirement – 45This scale is known as the Holmes Rahe Stress Scale of the Social Readjustment Rating Scale. It is still widely used today to assess the impact of life events on stress levels and overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 29
Correct
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A student attends a disciplinary hearing. When asked about the behavior that led to their suspension, they argue that it was due to external factors and that they were not entirely responsible for their actions. However, the disciplinary panel disagrees and places more emphasis on the student's personal traits, such as their lack of self-control and tendency towards defiance.
What is suggested by the perspective of the disciplinary panel?Your Answer: Fundamental attribution error
Explanation:The most appropriate explanation for this scenario is the fundamental attribution error. It is important to note that this is distinct from the actor-observer bias, which requires evidence of a difference in how situational factors are considered for others versus ourselves. The actor-observer bias typically involves overemphasizing personality traits for others’ behaviors and situational factors for our own behaviors.
Attribution Theory: Understanding How We Explain Events
Attribution theory provides a framework for understanding how individuals explain events in their environment. It examines how people use information to arrive at causal explanations for events and what factors influence their judgments. Fritz Heider first proposed a theory of attribution in 1958.
However, attribution is prone to biases such as the Fundamental Attribution Error (FAE), which overemphasizes dispositional factors over situational causes when making attributions about others’ behavior. The Actor-Observer Bias, on the other hand, undervalues dispositional explanations and overvalued situational explanations of our own behavior. Correspondence bias is the tendency to draw inferences about a person’s unique and enduring dispositions from behaviors that can be entirely explained by the situations in which they occur. Self-serving bias refers to people’s tendency to attribute their successes to internal factors but attribute their failures to external factors. Hostile Attribution Bias (HAB) is an interpretive bias where individuals interpret ambiguous behavior as hostile, leading to aggression. Finally, the False Consensus Effect is the tendency for people to project their way of thinking onto others, assuming that everyone else thinks the same way they do.
Overall, attribution theory helps us understand how people make sense of events in their environment, but it is important to be aware of the biases that can influence our judgments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 30
Correct
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What is the term used to describe the disciplinary action of taking away a child's train set for hitting their friend?
Your Answer: Negative punishment
Explanation:The objective is to decrease the occurrence of the conduct through punishment, which involves taking away a pleasurable stimulus (the train set).
Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More
Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.
Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.
Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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