Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a life-threatening condition associated with neuroleptic medications. It is characterized by severe muscular rigidity, hyperthermia, autonomic instability (tachycardia, tachypnoea etc) and changes in the level of consciousness. It usually occurs 4-14 days after the start of therapy. Renal failure and elevated creatinine kinase are also associated with this condition.

The patient is in an altered psychological state; thus, no verbal nor a written consent is required from her. Consent from the carer or the court of law can be obtained but this will require some time while a prompt action is needed in this case and the carer is also unable to make a decision on the behalf of the patient. Therefore, the doctor should act without consent.

Pulmonary embolism (PE) is the obstruction of one or more pulmonary arteries by solid, liquid, or gaseous masses. In most cases, the embolism is caused by blood thrombi, which arise from the deep vein system in the legs or pelvis (deep vein thrombosis) and embolize to the lungs via the inferior vena cava.

Risk factors include: immobility, inherited hypercoagulability disorders, being overweight or obese, smoking cigarettes, taking birth control pills (oral contraceptives) or hormone replacement therapy, having diseases such as stroke, paralysis, chronic heart disease, or high blood pressure, pregnancy, and recent surgery.

The clinical presentation is variable and, depending on the extent of vessel obstruction, can range from asymptomatic to cardiogenic shock. Symptoms are often nonspecific, including chest pain, coughing, dyspnoea, and tachycardia.

The diagnosis of PE is based primarily on the clinical findings and is confirmed by detection of an embolism in contrast CT pulmonary angiography (CTA). Arterial blood gas analysis typically shows evidence of respiratory alkalosis with low partial oxygen pressure, low partial carbon dioxide pressure, and elevated pH. Another commonly performed test is the measurement of D-dimer levels, which can rule out PE if negative.

Primary hyperaldosteronism, also known as Conn’s Syndrome, is one of the most common causes of secondary hypertension (HTN).
The common clinical scenarios in which the possibility of primary hyperaldosteronism should be considered include the following:
– Patients with spontaneous or unprovoked hypokalaemia, especially if the patient is also hypertensive
– Patients who develop severe and/or persistent hypokalaemia in the setting of low to moderate doses of potassium-wasting diuretics
– Patients with treatment-refractory/-resistant hypertension (HTN)
Patients with severe hypokalaemia report fatigue, muscle weakness, cramping, headaches, and palpitations. They can also have polydipsia and polyuria from hypokalaemia-induced nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Long-standing HTN may lead to cardiac, retinal, renal, and neurologic problems, with all the associated symptoms and signs.

The second heart sound (S2) corresponds to the closing of the semilunar valves, first the aortic and then the pulmonary valve. The gap between the closure of these two valves is normally insignificant and is heard as a single heart sound. In certain pathological conditions, this gap increases when there is a delay in right ventricular emptying, but in cases other than an atrial septal defect, the sound is not fixed. In an atrial septal defect, the right ventricle continuously receives blood, causing a delay and a fixed and split S2.

The case presents with an underlying ovarian tumour, associated with psychiatric symptoms; thus, an organic illness must first be ruled out before considering the other conditions listed which often present with psychiatric features without an underlying organic disease. Among the listed conditions Anti-NMDA receptor encephalitis is the only condition that presents with psychiatric features including agitation, hallucinations, delusions and disordered thinking that is associated with tumours 50% of the time.

The differential diagnosis of bilateral exercise-induced pain would include metabolic muscle disease, lumbar canal stenosis and intermittent claudication. The patient’s age, history and lack of other risk factors make the latter two options unlikely.

The syndrome described is in fact McArdle’s disease (myophosphorylase deficiency). This is a disorder of carbohydrate metabolism. Clinical features of pain and fatigue are precipitated in early exercise, as carbohydrates cannot be mobilized to provide an energy substrate to the muscle. With prolonged exercise, fatty acid metabolism provides energy, and symptoms lessen. The dark urine described is likely to represent myoglobinuria following rhabdomyolysis. Definitive diagnosis of most metabolic muscle diseases relies on muscle biopsy and enzyme analysis.

A pan-systolic murmur is the result of mitral regurgitation. Mitral regurgitation in this case is most probably due to post-MI rupture of the papillary muscle of the mitral valve.

When faced with urethral trauma, initial management decisions must be made in the context of other injuries and patient stability. These patients often have multiple injuries, and management must be coordinated with other specialists, usually trauma, critical care, and orthopaedic specialists. Life-threatening injuries must be corrected first in any trauma algorithm. Initial emergent treatment remains controversial, but mainstays of therapy include drainage of the urinary bladder, often with placement of a suprapubic catheter (SPT) and primary endoscopic realignment of the urethra if possible.

Studies have shown that benefits of Long-tern oxygen therapy (LTOT) include improved exercise tolerance, with improved walking distance, and ability to perform daily activities, reduction of secondary polycythaemia, improved sleep quality and reduced sympathetic outflow, with increased sodium and water excretion, leading to improvement in renal function.

In a TURP procedure, fluid is used to irrigate the bladder and to remove blood clots. IV fluids are also given to the patient post-operatively. These factors will lead to dilutional hyponatremia.

Absolute contraindications for fibrinolytic use in STEMI

Prior intracranial haemorrhage (ICH)
Known structural cerebral vascular lesion
Known malignant intracranial neoplasm
Ischemic stroke within 3 months
Suspected aortic dissection
Active bleeding or bleeding diathesis (excluding menses)
Significant closed head trauma or facial trauma within 3 months
Intracranial or intraspinal surgery within 2 months
Severe uncontrolled hypertension (unresponsive to emergency therapy)
For streptokinase, prior treatment within the previous 6 months

Polycythaemia vera (PV) is associated with a low ESR.

PV, also known as polycythaemia rubra vera, is a myeloproliferative disorder caused by clonal proliferation of marrow stem cells leading to an increase in red cell volume, often accompanied by overproduction of neutrophils and platelets. It has peak incidence in the sixth decade of life, with typical features including hyperviscosity, pruritus, splenomegaly, haemorrhage (secondary to abnormal platelet function), and plethoric appearance. PV is associated with a low ESR.

Some management options of PV include lose-dose aspirin, venesection (first-line treatment), hydroxyurea (slightly increased risk of secondary leukaemia), and radioactive phosphorus (P-32) therapy.

In PV, thrombotic events are a significant cause of morbidity and mortality. 5-15% of the cases progress to myelofibrosis or acute myeloid leukaemia (AML). The risk of having AML is increased with chemotherapy treatment.

– The given scenario is typical of lesion in internal capsule.
– Memory impairment is caused by a hippocampal lesion,
– Impairment of arousal, facial paresis, visual field defect, facial paresis, hemiataxia, and hemispacial neglect are just some of the conditions caused by thalamic lesion.
– Brainstem stroke on the other hand causes breathing abnormality, altered consciousness, and blood pressure disorder.

CMV is the best answer . Weight loss is mostly caused by HIV, which commonly presents with retinal haemorrhage and retinopathy when associated with CMV.

Huntington’s disease is an autosomal inherited condition characterized by progressive dementia and worsening choreiform movements. Symptoms typically appear between ages 30 and 50. Ultimately the weakened individual succumbs to pneumonia, heart failure, or other complications.

The clinical diagnosis is acute gout. According to the latest research diuretics, β blockers, angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors, and non-losartan angiotensin II receptor blockers are associated with an increased risk of gout, as those drugs increase serum uric acid levels. Calcium channel blockers and losartan are associated with a lower risk. Thiazide diuretics have the highest association with gout.

Primary gout is related more often to underexcretion of uric acid or overproduction.

Primary amyloidosis is characterised by abnormal protein build-up in the tissues and organ such as the heart, liver, spleen, kidneys, skin, ligaments, and nerves. However, the most common cause of death in patients with primary amyloidosis is heart failure.

Indapamide is a mild thiazide-like diuretic with hypotensive effect, and compared to other thiazides, it is reported to also have less metabolic derangements. However, it may have beneficial hypo-calciuric effects that are often associated with thiazides, thus, in this case, we would recommend prescribing this to the patient.

The direct Coombs test will specifically confirm immune-mediated haemolysis occurring post-transfusion in the aforementioned case.

There are two types of Coombs test used in immunohematology and immunology:

1. Direct Coombs test – It confirms autoimmune haemolytic anaemia by detecting antibodies or complement proteins attached to the surface of red blood cells.

2. Indirect Coombs test – It is used in prenatal testing of pregnant women and in testing prior to a blood transfusion. It detects antibodies floating freely in the blood, against foreign red blood cells.

The combination of Insulinoma and Parathyroid diseases is suggestive of MEN 1 syndrome.
Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN1) is a rare hereditary tumour syndrome inherited in an autosomal dominant manner and characterized by a predisposition to a multitude of endocrine neoplasms primarily of parathyroid, entero-pancreatic, and anterior pituitary origin, as well as non-endocrine neoplasms.
Other endocrine tumours in MEN1 include foregut carcinoid tumours, adrenocortical tumours, and rarely pheochromocytoma. Nonendocrine manifestations include meningiomas and ependymomas, lipomas, angiofibromas, collagenomas, and leiomyomas.

Primary hyperparathyroidism (PHPT), due to parathyroid hyperplasia is the most frequent and usually the earliest expression of MEN-1, with a typical age of onset at 20-25 years.

The branches of the common peroneal nerve innervate the skin of the dorsum of the foot as well as the muscles which help to carry out dorsiflexion of the foot. Compression of the common peroneal nerve cause foot drop as well as the loss in sensation of the skin on the dorsum of the foot.

The history is suggestive of nephritic syndrome. Renal biopsy is the definitive diagnostic test which shows the glomerular pathology.

The oxygen saturation in the pulmonary artery is higher than that of the right ventricle. The pressure of the pulmonary artery and of the PCWP are also high. So patent ductus arteriosus is highly suggestive.

Cobblestone mucosa is characteristic of Crohn’s Disease. It is not a feature of any of the other options mentioned. Crohn’s disease is a condition of IBD (Inflammatory Bowel Disease).

A US abdomen would be performed to confirm a diagnosis of biliary colic. A number of symptoms are consistent with this diagnosis: severe right hypochondria pain; pain coming in waves; nausea; no fever; and the absence of jaundice.

The most COMMON site of inflammation from ulcerative colitis is the rectum, making this the correct answer. This is simply a fact you need to memorize. In general, ulcerative colitis only occurs in colorectal regions– nothing in the small bowel (unless there is backwash into the terminal ileum) and nothing further up the GI tract. In Crohn’s it can affect the entire GI tract from mouth to anus.

Ganser syndrome is a condition in which a person acts as if he is suffering from a specific psychological disorder in order to gain sympathy and relief.

Rifampicin specifically inhibits bacterial RNA polymerase, the enzyme responsible for DNA transcription, by forming a stable drug-enzyme complex with a binding constant of 10(-9) M at 37 C.

Iron deficiency anaemia is characterised by decreased iron stores, however there is increased iron binding capacity. Transferrin is the iron transporting protein. Because of the decreased presence of iron in blood, the transferrin saturation is decreased. Ferritin is an iron storage protein that is affected according to the iron stores but its also an acute phase reactant and levels can be effected by other conditions. Each unit of packed RBCs transfused to an adult contains 200 ml of RBCs and 200mg of iron. Only 5-10% of dietary iron is absorbed in the portal circulation which can be increased by the intake of vitamin C, animal foods and amino acids.

When closure of the pulmonary valve occurs before the aortic valve, reversed splitting occurs. The causes of reversed splitting are aortic stenosis, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, left bundle branch block (LBBB), and a ventricular pacemaker.

Primary hyperparathyroidism (PHPT) is diagnosed based upon levels of blood calcium and parathyroid hormone (PTH). In most people with PHPT, both levels are higher than normal. Occasionally, a person may have an elevated calcium level and a normal or minimally elevated PTH level. Since PTH should normally be low when calcium is elevated, a minimally elevated PTH is considered abnormal and indicates PHPT.

The upper motor neurone signs in this patient point towards a diagnosis of spinal cord compression above the level of L1 and rules out cauda equina syndrome.

Spinal cord compression is an oncological emergency and affects up to 5% of cancer patients. Extradural compression accounts for the majority of cases, usually due to vertebral body metastases. One of the most common causes of spinal cord compression is osteoarthritis. It is also more commonly seen in patients with lung, breast, or prostate cancer.

Clinical features include:
1. Back pain: the earliest and most common symptom, may worsen on lying down or coughing
2. Lower limb weakness
3. Sensory changes: sensory loss and numbness
4. Neurological signs: depending on the level of the lesion.
Lesions above L1 usually result in upper motor neurone signs in the legs. Lesions below L1 usually cause lower motor neurone signs in the legs and perianal numbness. Tendon reflexes are increased below the level of the lesion and absent at the level of the lesion.

Management options are:
1. High-dose oral dexamethasone
2. Urgent MRI for consideration of radiotherapy or surgery

The cardinal symptom of the cardiac tamponade is a shocked patient with tachycardia and congested neck veins.

The patient seems to be conscious about his decision, which should be respected. According to Mental Capacity Act 2005, a person who makes an unwise decision should not be treated as unable to make a decision.

Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) is a viral respiratory illness caused by a coronavirus called SARS-associated coronavirus (SARS-CoV). SARS was first reported in Asia in February 2003.
In general, SARS begins with a high fever (temperature greater than 38.0°C). Other symptoms may include headache, an overall feeling of discomfort, and body aches. Some people also have mild respiratory symptoms at the outset. About 10 to 20 percent of patients have diarrhoea. After 2 to 7 days, SARS patients may develop a dry cough. Most patients develop pneumonia. 

This case describes Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. It is characterized by refractory peptic ulcer disease, often multiple ulcers. This is typically caused by secretion of gastrin from a gastrinoma, a neuroendocrine tumour. The most common site of ulceration is the duodenum. A symptom of a pancreatic gastrinoma may be steatorrhea from the hypersecretion of gastrin. Serum gastrin levels > 1000 and a pH < 2 are diagnostic of pancreatic gastrinoma. None of the other answer choices are a better answer than this. CT abdomen may potentially show a tumour, but this is not diagnostic for type.

The history is suggestive of a COPD exacerbation. As he is not responding to oxygen, an ABG should be performed to assess the level of hypoxaemia and then a decision about further management can be made. A CXR and salbutamol are also important in the acute management.

To differentiate VT from SVT with aberrant conduction the following electrocardiographic features should be looked for:

Evidence of preceding atrial activity for SVT. Oesophageal leads are helpful if P waves are hidden in the QRS complex.
QRS duration more than 140 ms for VT.
QRS morphology: Features of QRS morphology that favour SVT are RBBB or triphasic patterns like rSR in V1 and qRS in V6. Monophasic pattern like R or qR in V1 and rS or QS in V6 or multiple morphology QRS complexes favour VT.
AV dissociation for VT.

The patient’s age, a history of long-term smoking, and bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy are strong indications of malignancy. Lymph node biopsy would be essential in order to check the degree of metastasis in the mediastinal lymph nodes.

Anion gap is calculated as (Na + K) − (Cl + HCO3). Therefore in this patient, the calculated value is 20 mmol/L. The normal anion gap is between 8-16 mmol/l. The excessive value here reflects the presence of other acidic anions, and in this case with the metabolic acidosis, the constituents may be lactate, etc.

The given clinical scenario is suggestive of myo-neuropathy and is most likely to be caused by colchicine toxicity.
It gives rise to subacute proximal muscle weakness and on occasions can lead to an acute necrotizing myopathy. Creatine phosphokinase may be normal or may be elevated.
Weakness resolves when the drug is discontinued but the neuropathic features remain.
Death is usually a result of respiratory depression and cardiovascular collapse.
Treatment is symptomatic and supportive, and the treatment for colchicine poisoning includes lavage and measures to prevent shock.

Myosin is a protein found in contractile tissues. It is described in two groups: conventional myosin, which is arranged in pairs of light chains against pairs of heavy chain myosin. Unconventional myosin that is not arranged in filaments,  preforms many functions in a wide range of cells, such as in organelle transport and in endocytosis. Myosin contains Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) and contains actin binding sites to preform its function. Other types of mutations in myosin can be seen besides the heavy chain mutation cardiomyopathy and they include: Carney’s complex , Usher syndrome and non-syndromic deafness

Developing a pelvis abscess is one of the most common postoperative surgical complications after rectal operations. The symptoms of a pelvic mass and fever are also consistent with a pelvic abscess.

The definition of negative predictive value is the probability that the individuals with truly negative screening test don’t have Chlamydia. The equation is the following: Negative predictive value = Truly negative/(truly negative + false negative) = 172 / (172 + 5) = 172 / 177

Normal pO2 but decreased oxygen saturation is characteristic of methemoglobinemia.

Methemoglobinemia is a rare condition in which the haemoglobin iron is in oxidized or ferric state (Fe3+) and cannot reversibly bind oxygen. Normally, the conversion of ferrous form of iron (Fe2+) to its ferric form (Fe3+) is regulated by NADH methaemoglobin reductase, which results in the reduction of methaemoglobin to haemoglobin. Disruption in the enzyme leads to increased methaemoglobin in the blood. There is tissue hypoxia as Fe3+ cannot bind oxygen, and hence the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve is shifted to the left.

Methemoglobinemia can occur due to congenital or acquired causes. Congenital causes include haemoglobin variants such as HbM and HbH, and deficiency of NADH methaemoglobin reductase. Acquired causes are drugs (e.g. sulphonamides, nitrates, dapsone, sodium nitroprusside, and primaquine) and chemicals (such as aniline dyes).

The features of methemoglobinemia are cyanosis, dyspnoea, anxiety, headache, severe acidosis, arrhythmias, seizures, and loss of consciousness. Patients have normal pO2 but oxygen saturation is decreased. Moreover, presence of chocolate-brown coloured arterial blood (colour does not change with addition of O2) and brown urine also point towards the diagnosis of methemoglobinemia.

Curling’s ulcer is an acute gastric erosion resulting as a complication from severe burns when reduced plasma volume leads to ischemia and cell necrosis (sloughing) of the gastric mucosa. The medical management of patients with stress ulcers is more or less similar to the management of peptic ulcer disease in general. The medication targeting acid peptic disease includes proton pump inhibitors, antihistamines, and ulcer-healing drugs like sucralfate. Patients with overt GI bleeding from ulceration will require endoscopic evaluation and management of the stress ulcers. Endoscopic therapies may include epinephrine injection, electro-cauterization, or clipping of the bleeding vessels. Bleeding ulcers refractory to localized endoscopic treatment may need embolization of the culprit vessel or rarely surgical intervention as a last resort. Surgical interventions are commonly indicated for patients with refractory bleeding despite endoscopic or angiographic treatment or patients with unstable hemodynamics to undergo endoscopic or angiographic procedures. Surgeries are performed as an ultimate life-saving approach.

At 29 years old, the most probable cause of this arrhythmia is thyrotoxicosis. β blockers relieve symptoms such as tachycardia, tremor, and anxiety in thyrotoxic patients. β blockade should be used as the primary treatment only in patients with thyrotoxicosis due to thyroiditis.

The clinical picture of the patient together with paraclinical investigations (spirometry) suggest COPD.

Glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1) is a 30-amino acid peptide hormone produced in the intestinal epithelial endocrine L-cells by differential processing of proglucagon. GLP-1 is released in response to meal intake.
The main actions of GLP-1 are to stimulate insulin secretion (i.e., to act as an incretin hormone) and to inhibit glucagon secretion, thereby contributing to limit postprandial glucose excursions. It also inhibits gastrointestinal motility and secretion and thus acts as an enterogastrone and part of the ileal brake mechanism. GLP-1 also appears to be a physiological regulator of appetite and food intake.
Decreased secretion of GLP-1 may contribute to the development of obesity, and exaggerated secretion may be responsible for postprandial reactive hypoglycaemia.

This patient has a combination of right cerebellar dysfunction with right-sided cranial nerve palsies (VI, VII, and VIII). The magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) shows a calcified meningioma within the right cerebellar pontine area, which would account for these findings. The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis shows oligoclonal bands, however, these are matched in the serum, which reflects a systemic inflammatory response from his rheumatoid arthritis.

The MRI scan and CSF analysis would not be consistent with progressive multiple sclerosis. The progressive nature of her symptoms would be against a diagnosis of brainstem infarct, and one would expect more pyramidal signs in the peripheral nervous system.

The principal action of organophosphates is the inhibition of acetylcholinesterase’s, therefore leading to the accumulation of acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors (miosis, hypersalivation, sweating, diarrhoea, excessive bronchial secretions), nicotinic receptors (muscle fasciculations and tremor) and in the central nervous system (anxiety, loss of memory, headache, coma).

Removal from the source of the organophosphate, adequate decontamination, supplemental oxygen and atropine are the initial treatment measures. Pralidoxime, an activator of cholinesterase, should be given to all symptomatic patients.

In central and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus (DI), urinary osmolality will be less than 300 mOsm/kg after water deprivation. After the administration of ADH, the osmolality will rise to more than 750 mOsm/kg in central DI but will not rise at all in nephrogenic DI. In primary polydipsia, urinary osmolality be above 750 mOsm/kg after water deprivation. A urinary osmolality that is 300-750 mOsm/kg after water deprivation and remains below 750 mOsm/kg after administration of ADH may be seen in partial central DI, partial nephrogenic DI, and primary polydipsia.

Cavitating pneumonia is a complication that can occur with a severe necrotizing pneumonia and in some publications it is used synonymously with the latter term. It is a rare complication in both children and adults. Albeit rare, cavitation is most commonly caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae, and less frequently Aspergillus spp., Legionella spp. and Staphylococcus aureus.

In children, cavitation is associated with severe illness, although cases usually resolve without surgical intervention, and long-term follow-up radiography shows clear lungs without pulmonary sequelae
Although the absolute cavitary rate may not be known, according to one series, necrotizing changes were seen in up to 6.6% of adults with pneumococcal pneumonia. Klebsiella pneumoniae is another organism that is known to cause cavitation.

Causative agents:
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Staphylococcus aureus

Enterococcus faecalis was not found to be a causative agent.

An attack of asthma is characterized by severe dyspnoea accompanied by wheezing. During an attack, the person experiences breathing difficulty during inspiration and expiration, but might feel completely well between attacks. An attack can be triggered by factors like cold, dry air, tobacco smoke, pollen, pet dander, as well as stressful situations like exercise. Dizziness, voice disturbances, and coryzal illness are not features of asthma.

Burkholderia cepacia is an aerobic gram-negative bacillus found in various aquatic environments. B cepacia is an organism of low virulence and is a frequent colonizer of fluids used in the hospital (e.g., irrigation solutions, intravenous fluids).
B cepacia, as a non-aeruginosa pseudomonad, is usually resistant to aminoglycosides, antipseudomonal penicillin, and antipseudomonal third-generation cephalosporins and polymyxin B.
B cepacia is often susceptible to trimethoprim plus sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX), cefepime, meropenem, minocycline, and tigecycline and has varying susceptibility to fluoroquinolones.
Based on the options available, ceftazidime and aminoglycoside would be the best option.

There are two types of Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD); simple fatty liver and non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH). Simple fatty liver and NASH are two separate conditions.
Simple fatty liver, also called non-alcoholic fatty liver (NAFL), is a form of NAFLD in which you have fat in your liver but little or no inflammation or liver cell damage. Simple fatty liver typically does not progress to cause liver damage or complications.
Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH)
NASH is a form of NAFLD in which you have hepatitis and liver cell damage, in addition to fat in your liver. Inflammation and liver cell damage can cause fibrosis, or scarring, of the liver. NASH may lead to cirrhosis or liver cancer. Type I diabetes is not associated with NASH (non-alcoholic steatohepatitis), but type II diabetes is. Hyperlipidaemia, obesity, sudden weight loss/starvation and jejunoileal bypass are all associated with NASH. This is the most common cause of liver disease in the developed world.

A single dose of intravenous magnesium sulphate is safe and may improve lung function and reduce intubation rates in patients with acute severe asthma. Intravenous magnesium sulphate may also reduce hospital admissions in adults with acute asthma who have had little or no response to standard treatment.

Consider giving a single dose of intravenous magnesium sulphate to patients with acute severe asthma (PEF <50% best or predicted) who have not had a good initial response to inhaled bronchodilator therapy. Magnesium sulphate (1.2-2 g IV infusion over 20 minutes) should only be used following consultation with senior medical staff.

The localisation of intracranial lesions (based on both history and examination) is crucial. Meningiomas are slow in growth, and its subtle effects are very different from the more aggressive, intrinsic lesions. Olfactory groove lesions affect the sense of smell and may produce ipsilateral optic atrophy. Sphenoid ridge lesions will produce exophthalmos. Chiasmal lesions usually produce bitemporal hemianopia.

The external iliac artery supplies both the thigh and calf muscles. The absence of pulses in femoral and popliteal vessels indicates the obstruction of the external iliac artery.

The patient history suggests a tension pneumothorax which is a life-threatening situation in which excess air is introduced into the pleural space surrounding the lung. When there is a significant amount of air trapped in the pleural cavity, the increasing pressure from this abnormal air causes the lung to shrink and collapse, leading to respiratory distress. This pressure also pushes the mediastinum (including the heart and great vessels) away from its central position, e.g. deviated trachea, and diminishing the cardiac output. Tension pneumothoraxes cause chest pain, extreme shortness of breath, respiratory failure, hypoxia, tachycardia, and hypotension. These are definitively managed by insertion of a chest tube. However, in the emergency setting temporizing measures are needed while chest tube materials are being gathered. In these situations, urgent needle thoracostomy (also called needle decompression) is performed.

Damage to the cerebellum can cause asynergia, dysmetria, adiadochokinesia, intention tremor, staggering, ataxic gait, tendency toward falling, hypotonia, ataxic dysarthria and nystagmus.

Haemochromatosis is the excessive accumulation of iron in the body mainly involving the liver, pancreas, testes, skin etc. Serum ferritin is high indicating iron overload. Haemochromatosis is a known cause for chronic liver cell disease, cirrhosis and HCC.

A fasting blood glucose level from 110 to 126 mg/dL (5.5 to 6.9 mmol/L) is considered prediabetes. This result is sometimes called impaired fasting glucose.
Diabetes mellitus (type 2): diagnosis

The diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus can be made by plasma glucose. If the patient is symptomatic:
fasting glucose greater than or equal to 7.0 mmol/l
random glucose greater than or equal to 11.1 mmol/l (or after 75g oral glucose tolerance test)
If the patient is asymptomatic the above criteria apply but must be demonstrated on two separate occasions.

Scabies is due to an infestation of Sarcoptes scabiei and most commonly presents with these symptoms. The organism resides in burrows in a pattern specifically affecting the interdigital spaces and the skin folds of the arms and legs. The infection spreads from one person to another, especially in populated communities, through close contact.
Henoch-Schönlein purpura is a type of vascular inflammation.
Psoriasis rash is characterised by scaly plaques affecting the extensor surfaces of the body. Pemphigus vulgaris and bullous pemphigoid both are bullous disorders of the skin. They may present as crusted, weeping, diffuse lesions and there may be involvement in other sites; erosions in the mouth are typically involved in pemphigus vulgaris. Bullous pemphigoid involves the flexural areas and may be associated with a new medication.

Because Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease (type 1) is an autosomal dominant condition; therefore, there is a 50% chance that the children of this patient will be affected.

Urinary incontinence is not a usual symptom of depression. A depressed patient is usually capable of maintaining control of his body sphincters. In dementia, however, urinary incontinence is an important and late symptom of the disease, non-related to any urinary tract pathology. It is rather related to the cognitive impairment caused by dementia.

Ataxic telangiectasia is an inherited combined immunodeficiency disorder that is characterised by cerebellar ataxia and telangiectasia as seen in this child, as well as frequent infections as noted in this child’s history. The other differentials would not present with this clinical picture:

Friedreich’s ataxia and Infantile-onset spinocerebellar ataxia do not present with immune problems, whereas Cerebral palsy and Di-George Syndrome do not present with ataxia.

11-beta hydroxylase is stimulated by ACTH and responsible for conversion of 11-deoxycortisol to cortisol and deoxycorticosterone to corticosterone.

In 11-beta hydroxylase deficiency, the previously mentioned conversions are partially blocked, leading to:
– Increased levels of ACTH
– Accumulation of 11-deoxycortisol (which has limited biological activity) and deoxycorticosterone (which has mineralocorticoid activity)
– Overproduction of adrenal androgens (DHEA, androstenedione, and testosterone)

In patients with acute renal tubular necrosis, infection in the form of gram-negative septicaemia is the most common cause of death, especially while the patient is awaiting spontaneous recovery of their renal function.

Escherichia coli (also known as E. coli) is a gram-negative, facultatively anaerobic, rod-shaped bacterium commonly found in the lower intestine of warm-blooded organisms. Most E. coli strains are harmless, but some serotypes can cause serious food poisoning in their hosts, and are occasionally responsible for product recalls due to food contamination. The harmless strains are part of the normal flora of the gut, and can benefit their hosts by producing vitamin K2, and preventing colonization of the intestine with pathogenic bacteria. Virulent strains can cause gastroenteritis, urinary tract infections, and neonatal meningitis.
The most common causes of neonatal meningitis is bacterial infection of the blood, known as bacteremia (specifically Group B Streptococci (GBS; Streptococcus agalactiae), Escherichia coli, and Listeria monocytogenes). Although there is a low mortality rate in developed countries, there is a 50% prevalence rate of neurodevelopmental disabilities in E. coli and GBS meningitis

Finding it difficult to swallow both food and drink with a narrow oesophagus is consistent with a diagnosis of achalasia.

Right ventricular volume overload is indicated by a parasternal heave and right axis deviation. Oxygen saturation in right atrium is higher than oxygen saturation of the inferior and superior vena cavae. So the most probable diagnosis is atrial septal defect.

Tumour marker CA 125 is mostly associated with primary peritoneal cancer and ovarian cancer. It can be used to monitor response to chemotherapy, alongside regular CT scans.

Tumour markers can be divided into:
1. Monoclonal antibodies
CA 125: Ovarian cancer, primary peritoneal cancer
CA 19-9: Pancreatic cancer
CA 15-3: Breast cancer

2. Tumour specific antigens
Prostate specific antigen (PSA): Prostatic carcinoma
Alpha-feto protein (AFP): Hepatocellular carcinoma, teratoma
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA): Colorectal cancer
S-100: Melanoma, schwannomas
Bombesin: Small cell lung carcinoma, gastric cancer

3. Enzymes
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
Neuron specific enolase (NSE)

4. Hormones
Calcitonin
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

The main effects of quinine affect the nervous system. It particularly affects the optic and auditory nerves. While affecting the auditory nerve it may cause tinnitus and deafness but not hyperacusis. Blindness is the effect of this drug on the optic nerve.

The phrenic nerve provides the primary motor supply to the diaphragm, the major respiratory muscle.
Phrenic nerve paralysis is a rare cause of exertional dyspnoea that should be included in the differential diagnosis. Fluoroscopy is considered the most reliable way to document diaphragmatic paralysis. During fluoroscopy a patient is asked to sniff and there is a paradoxical rise of the paralysed hemidiaphragm. This is to confirm that the cause is due to paralysis rather than unilateral weakness.

Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a serious condition in which a blood clot forms in a deep vein, usually in the leg.

Subcutaneous low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is the preferred treatment for most patients with acute DVT, including in pregnancy. A large meta-analyses comparing LMWH to unfractionated heparin (UFH) showed that LMWH decreased the risk of mortality, recurrent veno-thrombo embolism (VTE), and haemorrhage compared with heparin. Other advantages of LMWH may include more predictable therapeutic response, ease of administration and monitoring, and less heparin-induced thrombocytopenia. Disadvantages of LMWH include cost and longer half-life compared with heparin.

Warfarin, which is administered orally, is used if long-term anticoagulation is needed. The international normalized ratio (INR) is followed, with a target range of 2-3. Warfarin crosses the placenta and is teratogenic, causing a constellation of anomalies known as warfarin embryopathy, with greatest risk between the sixth and twelfth week of gestation.
Other options are not indicated for use.

Campylobacter is the most likely cause of diarrheal illness often due to undercooked meat being ingested. It is also a major cause of traveller’s diarrhoea. Sufficient fluid replacement and anti-emetics are indicated first followed by the antibiotic, Erythromycin although antibiotic treatment in adults is still in question. Ciprofloxacin and Tetracycline may also be effective.

Troponin testing is the most important investigation in risk stratification. Troponin positive patients should be referred for urgent coronary revascularization as troponin indicates cardiac cell damage.

Crohn’s Disease (CD) is an inflammatory bowel disease, the pathogenesis of which is not fully understood. The clinical presentation of CD may be similar to ulcerative colitis (UC), the other most common inflammatory bowel disease. CD mostly affects young adults and adolescents between the ages of 15 and 35. It is typically located in the terminal ileum, but can discontinuously affect the entire gastrointestinal tract and commonly leads to complications such as fistulas, abscesses, and stenosis. Clinical features include diarrhoea, weight loss, and abdominal pain in the right lower quadrant (RLQ), as well as extraintestinal manifestations in the eyes, joints, or skin. It is often difficult to diagnose because there is no confirmatory test. Diagnosis is therefore based on the patient’s medical history, physical examination, lab tests, imaging (e.g., MRI), endoscopy, and serological testing. Acute episodes are treated with corticosteroids, and in severe cases, immunosuppressants may be indicated. Antibiotics and surgical intervention may be needed to help treat complications. Because the entire gastrointestinal tract may be affected, Crohn disease cannot be cured (in contrast to ulcerative colitis). The goal of treatment is thus to avoid the progression and recurrence of inflammatory episodes.

Goserelin (Zoladex) is usually prescribed to treat hormone-sensitive cancers of the breast and prostate not for BPH. All other statements are correct.

The patient presents with sudden onset of alexia (the inability to read) WITHOUT agraphia (inability to write) which is consistent with lesions of the corpus callosum where there is a disconnect syndrome and the patient’s language and visual centres are actually in tact, but are unable to communicate between hemispheres. In this case, the damage due to the stroke is most likely in the left visual cortex, leaving visual processing to the intact right hemisphere which unfortunately cannot communicate the information to the language centres (Broca and Wernicke’s) in the left hemisphere, hence the alexia. Alternatively, the speech and writing are unaffected as the language centres can still communicate with the primary motor cortex.

If a pleural effusion is present, a diagnostic thoracentesis may be performed and analysed for pH, lactate dehydrogenase, glucose levels, specific gravity, and cell count with differential. Pleural fluid may also be sent for Gram stain, culture, and sensitivity. Acid-fast bacillus testing may also be considered and the fluid may be sent for cytology if cancer is suspected.

The following findings are suggestive of an empyema or parapneumonic effusion that will likely need a chest tube or pigtail catheter for complete resolution:
-Grossly purulent pleural fluid
-pH level less than 7.2
-WBC count greater than 50,000 cells/µL (or polymorphonuclear leukocyte count of 1,000 IU/dL)
-Glucose level less than 60 mg/dL
-Lactate dehydrogenase level greater than 1,000 IU/mL
-Positive pleural fluid culture

The most often used golden criteria for empyema are pleural effusion with macroscopic presence of pus, a positive Gram stain or culture of pleural fluid, or a pleural fluid pH under 7.2 with normal peripheral blood ph.

Pseudogout is a paroxysmal joint inflammation due to calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition (calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate). Aetiology includes mostly idiopathic (primary form) and secondary form occurring as a result of joint trauma, familial chondrocalcinosis, hyperparathyroidism, hemochromatosis, gout, hypophosphatemia. Clinical presentation: Often asymptomatic.
Acute (pseudogout attack): monoarthritis (rarely oligoarthritis), mostly affecting the knees and other large joints (e.g., hips, wrists, and ankles). It may become chronic (can affect multiple joints). Osteoarthritis with CPPD (most common form of symptomatic CPPD): progressive joint degeneration with episodes of acute inflammatory arthritis typical of pseudogout attacks. Arthrocentesis should be performed, especially in acute cases. Polarized light microscopy: detection of rhomboid-shaped, positively birefringent CPPD crystals. Synovial fluid findings: 10,000-50,000 WBCs/μL with > 90% neutrophils. X-ray findings: cartilage calcification of the affected joint (chondrocalcinosis). Fibrocartilage (meniscus, annulus fibrosus of intervertebral disc) and hyaline cartilage (joint cartilage) may be affected.

This patient has polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). Medical management of PCOS is aimed at the treatment of metabolic derangements, anovulation, hirsutism, and menstrual irregularity.
First-line medical therapy usually consists of an oral contraceptive to induce regular menses. The contraceptive not only inhibits ovarian androgen production but also increases sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG) production. The American College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (ACOG) recommends the use of combination low-dose hormonal contraceptive agents for long-term management of menstrual dysfunction.
If symptoms such as hirsutism are not sufficiently alleviated, an androgen-blocking agent may be added. Pregnancy should be excluded before therapy with oral contraceptives or androgen-blocking agents are started.
First-line treatment for ovulation induction when fertility is desired is clomiphene citrate. Second-line strategies may be equally effective in infertile women with clomiphene citrate-resistant PCOS.

Indications for permanent pacemaker implantation

-Sinus node dysfunction
-Acquired Atrioventricular(AV) block (Complete third-degree AV block with or without symptoms, Symptomatic second degree AV block, Mobitz type I and II, Exercise-induced second or third degree AV block in the absence of myocardial infarction, Mobitz II with widened QRS complex)
-Chronic bifascicular block
-After acute phase of myocardial infarction
-Neurocardiogenic syncope and hypersensitive carotid sinus syndrome
-Post cardiac transplantation
-Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
-Pacing to detect and terminate tachycardia
-Cardiac resynchronization therapy in patients with severe systolic heart failure
-Patients with congenital heart disease

Methemoglobinemia is a rare condition in which the haemoglobin iron is in oxidized or ferric state (Fe3+) and cannot reversibly bind oxygen. Normally, the conversion of ferrous form of iron (Fe2+) to its ferric form (Fe3+) is regulated by NADH methaemoglobin reductase, which results in the reduction of methaemoglobin to haemoglobin. Disruption in the enzyme leads to increased methaemoglobin in the blood. There is tissue hypoxia as Fe3+ cannot bind oxygen, and hence the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve is shifted to the left.

Methemoglobinemia can occur due to congenital or acquired causes. Congenital causes include haemoglobin variants such as HbM and HbH, and deficiency of NADH methaemoglobin reductase. Acquired causes are drugs (e.g. sulphonamides, nitrates, dapsone, sodium nitroprusside, and primaquine) and chemicals (such as aniline dyes).

The features of methemoglobinemia are cyanosis, dyspnoea, anxiety, headache, severe acidosis, arrhythmias, seizures, and loss of consciousness. Patients have normal pO2 but oxygen saturation is decreased. Moreover, presence of chocolate-brown coloured arterial blood (colour does not change with addition of O2) and brown urine also point towards the diagnosis of methemoglobinemia.

The right and left lung anatomy are similar but asymmetrical. The right lung consists of three lobes: right upper lobe (RUL), right middle lobe (RML), and right lower lobe (RLL). The left lung consists of two lobes: right upper lobe (RUL) and right lower lobe (RLL). The right lobe is divided by an oblique and horizontal fissure, where the horizontal fissure divides the upper and middle lobe, and the oblique fissure divides the middle and lower lobes. In the left lobe there is only an oblique fissure that separates the upper and lower lobe.

The lobes further divide into segments which are associated with specific segmental bronchi. Segmental bronchi are the third-order branches off the second-order branches (lobar bronchi) that come off the main bronchus.

The right lung consists of ten segments. There are three segments in the RUL (apical, anterior and posterior), two in the RML (medial and lateral), and five in the RLL (superior, medial, anterior, lateral, and posterior). The oblique fissure separates the RUL from the RML, and the horizontal fissure separates the RLL from the RML and RUL.

There are eight to nine segments on the left depending on the division of the lobe. In general, there are four segments in the left upper lobe (anterior, apicoposterior, inferior and superior lingula) and four or five in the left lower lobe (lateral, anteromedial, superior and posterior). The medium sized airways offer the maximum airway resistance, not smaller ones.

Diencephalon consists of four structures; thalamus, subthalamus, hypothalamus and epithalamus. The hypothalamus has a crucial role in controlling urinary frequency.

Fibroadenoma usually occurs in younger women. These non-tender masses can be removed for aesthetic purposes. Breast cysts are common shifting masses inside the breast tissue more common in women over the age of 35.

CT scans are used to produce images of the brain. It can be used to detect a stroke from a blood clot or bleeding within the brain.

Warfarin is contraindicated during pregnancy due to its teratogenic effects. She should be given heparin throughout her pregnancy. It can be converted to warfarin if necessary after the delivery.

Pneumococcal meningitis is the most common and severe form of bacterial meningitis. Fatality rates are substantial, and long-term sequelae develop in about half of survivors. Disease outcome has been related to the severity of the proinflammatory response in the subarachnoid space. The complement system, which mediates key inflammatory processes, has been implicated as a modulator of pneumococcal meningitis disease severity in animal studies. C5 fragment levels in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) of patients with bacterial meningitis correlated with several clinical indicators of poor prognosis. The common terminal pathway consists of complement components C5-C9, and activation forms the anaphylatoxin C5a, a strong proinflammatory mediator, and the membrane attack complex (MAC), which creates pores in the bacterial cell wall (12). Deficiencies in these late complement components have been recognized as a cause of recurrent and familial meningococcal infections.

From the given answers, complete heart block with a narrow complex QRS complex is associated with the least risk of asystole. Transvenous pacing is indicated by the other given responses.

Normal blood pressure and ECG rule out any pathological cause of the complaints described in this scenario. These symptoms are most probably due to anxiety or effects of alcohol intake. Lifestyle modification will be the best management plan along with reassurance to calm the patient.

The patient likely has celiac’s disease, but if she has been avoiding gluten, a biopsy may be negative. Even though a biopsy is the gold standard for diagnosis, she will need to re-introduce gluten into her diet prior to undergoing the biopsy.

The a wave indicates atrial contraction. The c wave indicates ventricular contraction and the resulting bulging of tricuspid valve into the right atrium during isovolumetric systole. The v wave indicates venous filling. The x descent indicates the atrium relaxation and the movement of the tricuspid valve downward. The y descent indicates the filling of the ventricle after tricuspid opening.