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  • Question 1 - A 38-year-old male presented with multiple bruises and fractured pelvis after a road...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old male presented with multiple bruises and fractured pelvis after a road traffic accident. He is also complaining of anuria for the past 4 hours. The next management step would be?

      Your Answer: Urethral catheter

      Correct Answer: Suprapubic catheter

      Explanation:

      Stress and urge urinary incontinence has been observed in patients who have sustained pelvic fractures due to trauma. The best treatment option would be to pass suprapubic catheter. If there is still no urine output, then ureteral damage might be the cause, which needs to be managed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following is the most common route of hepatitis B transmission...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the most common route of hepatitis B transmission worldwide?

      Your Answer: Sexual transmission

      Correct Answer: Perinatal transmission

      Explanation:

      Perinatal transmission is the most common cause of Hepatitis B infection worldwide. Post-exposure prophylaxis should be provided, which consists of hepatitis B immune globulin and hepatitis B vaccine within 12 hours of birth. Without this, about 40% will develop chronic infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 57-year-old diabetic, smoker complains of non-healing ulcers and cramp-like pain in the...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old diabetic, smoker complains of non-healing ulcers and cramp-like pain in the calves relieved by rest. Examination results are as follows: absent distal pulses, and cold extremities with hair loss around the ankles. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chronic ischemia of the limbs

      Explanation:

      Chronic Limb Ischaemia presents with calf pain that is relieved by rest.
      Intermittent claudication is not a diagnosis but a symptom and is not necessarily associated with diabetes.
      Buerger’s disease occurs in younger heavy smokers (usually before age of 50).
      DVT causes pain that is consistent, not intermittent as in claudication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 27-year-old woman presents with a 4cm bleeding ulcer on her labia minora....

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman presents with a 4cm bleeding ulcer on her labia minora. The woman admits she is sexually active. Which lymph nodes will the ulcer drain to?

      Your Answer: Superficial inguinal

      Explanation:

      The woman seems to have a chancroid, which may or may not drain to the lymph nodes of the groin. These nodes are the superficial inguinal lymph nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 18-year-old male was screened for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HOCM) as his brother had...

    Incorrect

    • A 18-year-old male was screened for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HOCM) as his brother had the same condition. What is the echocardiographic finding that is related to the highest risk of sudden cardiac death?

      Your Answer: A gradient of 10 mmHg across the left ventricular outflow tract

      Correct Answer: Significant thickening of the interventricular septum

      Explanation:

      There are five prognostic factors which indicate poor prognosis in HOCM:
      -family history of HOCM-related sudden cardiac death
      -unexplained recent syncope
      -large left ventricular wall thickness (MLVWT > 30 mm)
      -multiple bursts of nsVT on ambulatory electrocardiography
      -hypotensive or attenuated blood pressure response to exercise

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old male was brought to the ER after the accidental consumption of...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male was brought to the ER after the accidental consumption of 300 ml of diethylene glycol. Blood investigations were suggestive of metabolic acidosis and renal failure. What is the appropriate management in this patient?

      Your Answer: Oral methanol

      Correct Answer: Haemodialysis and oral ethanol

      Explanation:

      Among the given options the most appropriate management in this patient would be ethanol and haemodialysis.

      Ethanol competes with ethylene glycol for alcohol dehydrogenase and thus, helps manage a patient with ethylene glycol toxicity.

      Ethylene glycol is a type of alcohol used as a coolant or antifreeze
      Features of toxicity are divided into 3 stages:
      Stage 1: (30 min to 12 hours after exposure) Symptoms similar to alcohol intoxication: confusion, slurred speech, dizziness (CNS depression)
      Stage 2: (12 – 48 hours after exposure) Metabolic acidosis with a high anion gap and high osmolar gap. Also tachycardia, hypertension
      Stage 3: (24 – 72 hours after exposure) Acute renal failure

      Management has changed in recent times:
      Fomepizole, an inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase, is now used first-line in preference to ethanol.
      Ethanol has been used for many years works by competing with ethylene glycol for the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase this limits the formation of toxic metabolites (e.g. glycolaldehyde and glycolic acid) which are responsible for the hemodynamic/metabolic features of poisoning.
      Haemodialysis has a role in refractory cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which is the most severe form among the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is the most severe form among the following?

      Your Answer: Class V: diffuse membranous glomerulonephritis

      Correct Answer: Class IV: diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      The classes refer to the WHO classification of glomerulonephritis in SLE patients.
      class I: normal kidney
      class II: mesangial glomerulonephritis
      class III: focal (and segmental) proliferative glomerulonephritis
      class IV: diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis
      class V: diffuse membranous glomerulonephritis
      class VI: sclerosing glomerulonephritis

      Class IV: diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis is the most common and the most severe form, where more than 50% of the glomeruli are involved.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 51-year-old man was admitted with right-sided hemiparesis and right upper motor neuron...

    Correct

    • A 51-year-old man was admitted with right-sided hemiparesis and right upper motor neuron facial nerve palsy. He was known to be on warfarin for a mitral valve replacement and had been adequately anticoagulated. He was also taking furosemide and had recently been started on St John's wort for low mood.

      On examination, his pulse was 90 bpm and regular, and his blood pressure was 150/80 mmHg. Cardiac examination demonstrated normal prosthetic valve sounds with an ejection systolic murmur at the left sternal edge. CT scan showed evidence of a left middle cerebral artery infarction.

      What is the possible explanation for the presentation?

      Your Answer: St John's wort reduces the activity of warfarin

      Explanation:

      St John’s wort interferes with warfarin by increasing its breakdown and decreasing its effectiveness. This leads to the need for adjustment in the dose of warfarin and careful attention to monitoring if the patient decides to continue with the drug. Ideally, an alternative antidepressant should also be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      117.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 60-year-old male complained of pain and redness at the metatarsophalangeal joints of...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old male complained of pain and redness at the metatarsophalangeal joints of left big toe. He was on treatment for hypertension. Which of the following antihypertensive drugs is responsible for the above symptom?

      Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Explanation:

      The clinical diagnosis is acute gout. According to the latest research diuretics, β blockers, angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors, and non-losartan angiotensin II receptor blockers are associated with an increased risk of gout, as those drugs increase serum uric acid levels. Calcium channel blockers and losartan are associated with a lower risk. Thiazide diuretics have the highest association with gout.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      21.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 65-year-old retired postman has been complaining of a two-month history of lethargy...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old retired postman has been complaining of a two-month history of lethargy associated with dyspnoea. He has never smoked and takes no medication. The chest X-ray shows multiple round lesions increasing in size and numbers at the base. There is no hilar lymphadenopathy.
       
      What condition does he most likely have?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary metastases

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary metastasis is seen in 20-54% of extrathoracic malignancies. The lungs are the second most frequent site of metastases from extrathoracic malignancies. Twenty percent of metastatic disease is isolated to the lungs. The development of pulmonary metastases in patients with known malignancies indicates disseminated disease and places the patient in stage IV in TNM (tumour, node, metastasis) staging systems.
      Chest radiography (CXR) is the initial imaging modality used in the detection of suspected pulmonary metastasis in patients with known malignancies. Chest CT scanning without contrast is more sensitive than CXR.
      Breast, colorectal, lung, kidney, head and neck, and uterus cancers are the most common primary tumours with lung metastasis at autopsy. Choriocarcinoma, osteosarcoma, testicular tumours, malignant melanoma, Ewing sarcoma, and thyroid cancer frequently metastasize to lung, but the frequency of these tumours is low.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      112.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Renal System (0/2) 0%
Infectious Diseases (1/2) 50%
Musculoskeletal System (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular System (0/1) 0%
Emergency & Critical Care (0/1) 0%
Haematology & Oncology (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Respiratory System (1/1) 100%
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