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  • Question 1 - You are reviewing a patient complaining of loss of vision. Previous images shows...

    Correct

    • You are reviewing a patient complaining of loss of vision. Previous images shows a lesion at the optic chiasm. What type of visual field defect are you most likely to see in a lesion at the optic chiasm:

      Your Answer: Bitemporal hemianopia

      Explanation:

      A lesion at the optic chiasm will result in a bitemporal hemianopia.
      A lesion of the optic nerve will result in ipsilateral monocular visual loss.
      A lesion of the optic tract will result in a contralateral homonymous hemianopia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      85.6
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - The most common complication of paracetamol overdose is: ...

    Correct

    • The most common complication of paracetamol overdose is:

      Your Answer: Hepatic failure

      Explanation:

      The maximum daily dose of paracetamol in an adult is 4 grams. Doses greater than this can lead to hepatotoxicity and, less frequently, acute kidney injury. Early symptoms of paracetamol toxicity include nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain, and usually settle within 24 hours. Symptoms of liver damage include right subcostal pain and tenderness, and this peaks 3 to 4 days after paracetamol ingestion. Other signs of hepatic toxicity include encephalopathy, bleeding, hypoglycaemia, and cerebral oedema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      9.9
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - Regarding paracetamol, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding paracetamol, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: It has anti-pyretic action.

      Explanation:

      Paracetamol is a non-opioid analgesic, similar in efficacy to aspirin, with antipyretic properties but no anti-inflammatory properties. It is well absorbed orally and does not cause gastric irritation. Paracetamol is a suitable first-line choice for most people with mild-to-moderate pain, and for combination therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      50.3
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - Which of the following classes of drugs may predispose to lithium toxicity: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following classes of drugs may predispose to lithium toxicity:

      Your Answer: Thiazide diuretics

      Explanation:

      Excretion of lithium may be reduced by thiazide diuretics, NSAIDs, and ACE inhibitors thus predisposing to lithium toxicity. Loop diuretics also cause lithium retention but are less likely to result in lithium toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      27.3
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - A lesion to which part of the optic radiation will result in contralateral...

    Incorrect

    • A lesion to which part of the optic radiation will result in contralateral homonymous inferior quadrantanopia?

      Your Answer: Left parietal lobe

      Correct Answer: Right parietal lobe

      Explanation:

      A visual loss in the lower left quadrant in both visual fields is an indication of an inferior homonymous. This is due to a lesion of the superior fibres of the optic radiation in the parietal lobe on the contralateral side of the visual pathway.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      320.8
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - What type of visual field defect are you most likely to see in...

    Correct

    • What type of visual field defect are you most likely to see in a lesion of the parietal optic radiation:

      Your Answer: Contralateral homonymous inferior quadrantanopia

      Explanation:

      A lesion of the parietal optic radiation will result in a contralateral homonymous inferior quadrantanopia.
      A lesion of the temporal optic radiation will result in a contralateral homonymous superior quadrantanopia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      24.7
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - Which of the following cervical nerves is likely to be affected if your...

    Correct

    • Which of the following cervical nerves is likely to be affected if your patient is complaining of elbow extension weakness and loss of sensation in her middle finger? She also has pain and tenderness in her cervical region, which is caused by a herniated disc, all after a whiplash-type injury in a car accident.

      Your Answer: C7

      Explanation:

      A C7 spinal nerve controls elbow extension and some finger extension.

      Damage to this nerve can result in a burning pain in the shoulder blade or back of the arms. The ability to extend shoulders, arms, and fingers may also be affected. Dexterity may also be compromised in the hands or fingers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      213.1
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - A 7-year old boy is referred to the Paediatrics Department due to slurred...

    Correct

    • A 7-year old boy is referred to the Paediatrics Department due to slurred speech. Upon further examination, the attending physician noted the presence of dysdiadochokinesia, intention tremors, and nystagmus. An MRI is taken, which revealed a brain tumour.

      Which of the following options is the most probable diagnosis given the clinical features of the patient?

      Your Answer: Astrocytoma of cerebellum

      Explanation:

      Pilocytic astrocytoma (PCA), previously known as cystic cerebellar astrocytoma or juvenile pilocytic astrocytoma, was first described in 1931 by Harvey Cushing, based on a case series of cerebellar astrocytomas; though he never used these terms but rather described a spongioblastoma. They are low-grade, and usually well-circumscribed tumours, which tend to occur in young patients. By the World Health Organization (WHO) classification of central nervous system tumours, they are considered grade I gliomas and have a good prognosis.

      PCA most commonly occurs in the cerebellum but can also occur in the optic pathway, hypothalamus, and brainstem. They can also occur in the cerebral hemispheres, although this tends to be the case in young adults. Presentation and treatment vary for PCA in other locations. Glial cells include astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, ependymal cells, and microglia. Astrocytic tumours arise from astrocytes and are the most common tumour of glial origin. The WHO 2016 categorized these tumours as either diffuse gliomas or other astrocytic tumours. Diffuse gliomas include grade II and III diffuse astrocytomas, grade IV glioblastoma, and diffuse gliomas of childhood. The other astrocytic tumours group include PCA, pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma, subependymal giant cell astrocytoma, and anaplastic pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma.

      PCA can present with symptoms secondary to the posterior fossa mass effect. This may include obstructive hydrocephalus, with resultant headache, nausea and vomiting, and papilledema. If hydrocephalus occurs before the fusion of the cranial sutures (<18-months-of-age), then an increase in head circumference will likely occur. Lesions of the cerebellar hemisphere result in peripheral ataxia, dysmetria, intention tremor, nystagmus, and dysarthria. In contrast, lesions of the vermis cause a broad-based gait, truncal ataxia, and titubation. Posterior fossa lesions can also cause cranial nerve palsies. Diplopia may occur due to abducens palsy from the stretching of the nerve. They may also have blurred vision due to papilledema. Seizures are rare with posterior fossa lesions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      45.3
      Seconds

  • Question 9 - A patient diagnosed with cranial nerve palsy exhibits asymmetrical movement of the palate,...

    Incorrect

    • A patient diagnosed with cranial nerve palsy exhibits asymmetrical movement of the palate, nasal regurgitation of food, and nasal quality to the voice.

      Which of the following cranial nerves is most likely responsible for the aforementioned features?

      Your Answer: Hypoglossal nerve

      Correct Answer: Vagus nerve

      Explanation:

      The vagus nerve, ‘the wanderer’, contains motor fibres (to the palate and vocal cords), sensory components (posterior and floor of external acoustic meatus) and visceral afferent and efferent fibres.

      Palatal weakness can cause nasal speech and nasal regurgitation of food. The palate moves asymmetrically when the patient says ‘ahh’. Recurrent nerve palsy results in hoarseness, loss of volume and ‘bovine cough’.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      128
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - You suspect that your patient with polycystic kidney disease has developed a berry...

    Correct

    • You suspect that your patient with polycystic kidney disease has developed a berry aneurysm as a complication of his disease. The patient complains of a sudden, severe headache. You are guessing subarachnoid haemorrhage secondary to a ruptured berry aneurysm as the cause of his severe headaches. What is the most likely location of his aneurysm?

      Your Answer: Anterior communicating artery

      Explanation:

      One of the complications that polycystic kidney disease may cause is the development of a brain aneurysm.

      A berry aneurysm is the most common type of brain aneurysm.

      The Circle of Willis, where the major blood vessels meet at the base of the brain, is where it usually appears. The most common junctions of the Circle of Willis where an aneurysm may occur include the anterior communicating artery (35%), internal carotid artery (30%), the posterior communicating artery and the middle cerebral artery (22%), and finally, the posterior circulation sites, most commonly the basilar artery tip.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      180.9
      Seconds

  • Question 11 - Carbamazepine is indicated for all of the following EXCEPT for: ...

    Incorrect

    • Carbamazepine is indicated for all of the following EXCEPT for:

      Your Answer: Complex focal seizures

      Correct Answer: Myoclonic seizures

      Explanation:

      Carbamazepine is a drug of choice for simple and complex focal seizures and is a first-line treatment option for generalised tonic-clonic seizures. It is also used in trigeminal neuralgia and diabetic neuropathy. Carbamazepine may exacerbate tonic, atonic, myoclonic and absence seizures and is therefore not recommended if these seizures are present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      302.4
      Seconds

  • Question 12 - Which of the following is NOT a typical side effect of opioid analgesics:...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a typical side effect of opioid analgesics:

      Your Answer: Urinary retention

      Correct Answer: Diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      All opioids have the potential to cause:
      Gastrointestinal effects – Nausea, vomiting, constipation, difficulty with micturition (urinary retention), biliary spasm
      Central nervous system effects – Sedation, euphoria, respiratory depression, miosis
      Cardiovascular effects – Peripheral vasodilation, postural hypotension
      Dependence and tolerance

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      36.8
      Seconds

  • Question 13 - Which of the following is NOT a contraindication to treatment with aspirin at...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a contraindication to treatment with aspirin at analgesic doses:

      Your Answer: Children under 16 years

      Correct Answer: Myasthenia gravis

      Explanation:

      Aspirin (at analgesic doses) is contraindicated in:
      People with a history of true hypersensitivity to aspirin or salicylates (symptoms of hypersensitivity to aspirin or salicylates include bronchospasm, urticaria, angioedema, and vasomotor rhinitis)
      People with active or previous peptic ulceration
      People with haemophilia or another bleeding disorder
      Children younger than 16 years of age (risk of Reye’s syndrome)
      People with severe cardiac failure
      People with severe hepatic impairment
      People with severe renal impairment

      N.B. Owing to an association with Reye’s syndrome, aspirin-containing preparations should not be given to children under 16 years, unless specifically indicated, e.g. for Kawasaki disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      133.1
      Seconds

  • Question 14 - Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of aspirin: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of aspirin:

      Your Answer: Cyclo-oxygenase (COX) inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Aspirin is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). Aspirin irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes and the resulting inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis results in analgesic, antipyretic and to a lesser extent anti-inflammatory actions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      28.9
      Seconds

  • Question 15 - All of the following predisposes to lithium toxicity in patients taking long-term therapy...

    Correct

    • All of the following predisposes to lithium toxicity in patients taking long-term therapy EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Hypernatraemia

      Explanation:

      A common complication of long term lithium therapy results in most cases of lithium intoxication. It is caused by reduced excretion of the drug which can be due to several factors including deterioration of renal function, dehydration, hyponatraemia, infections, and co-administration of diuretics or NSAIDs or other drugs that may interact.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      69
      Seconds

  • Question 16 - Which of the following is a contraindication for aspirin? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a contraindication for aspirin?

      Your Answer: Children under 16 years

      Explanation:

      Aspirin contraindications include: hypersensitivity to NSAIDs; asthma, rhinitis, and nasal polyps; and usage in children or teens.
      There is little evidence of allergic cross-reactivity for salicylates. However, due to similarities in chemical structure and/or pharmacologic activities, the possibility of cross-sensitivity cannot be completely ruled out.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      9.6
      Seconds

  • Question 17 - After what time period should intravenous phenytoin be used as second-line treatment of...

    Incorrect

    • After what time period should intravenous phenytoin be used as second-line treatment of status epilepticus?

      Your Answer: 10 minutes

      Correct Answer: 25 minutes

      Explanation:

      If seizures recur or fail to respond after initial treatment with benzodiazepines within 25 minutes of onset, phenytoin sodium, fosphenytoin sodium, or phenobarbital sodium should be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      64.1
      Seconds

  • Question 18 - CSF is reabsorbed from subarachnoid space via which of the following structures: ...

    Correct

    • CSF is reabsorbed from subarachnoid space via which of the following structures:

      Your Answer: Arachnoid granulations

      Explanation:

      From the subarachnoid cisterns in the subarachnoid space, CSF is reabsorbed via arachnoid granulations which protrude into the dura mater, into the dural venous sinuses and from here back into the circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      93.8
      Seconds

  • Question 19 - Which of the following clinical features is most suggestive of a lesion of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following clinical features is most suggestive of a lesion of the frontal lobe:

      Your Answer: Hemispatial neglect

      Correct Answer: Conjugate eye deviation towards the side of the lesion

      Explanation:

      Conjugate eye deviation towards the side of the lesion is seen in damage to the frontal eye field of the frontal lobe. Homonymous hemianopia is typically a result of damage to the occipital lobe (or of the optic radiation passing through the parietal and temporal lobes). Auditory agnosia may been seen in a lesion of the temporal lobe. Hemispatial neglect may be seen in a lesion of the parietal lobe. Receptive dysphasia is seen in damage to Wernicke’s area, in the temporal lobe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      418.9
      Seconds

  • Question 20 - A patient complains of headache and visual loss. CT scan demonstrates a lesion...

    Correct

    • A patient complains of headache and visual loss. CT scan demonstrates a lesion of the temporal lobe. What type of visual field defect would you most expect to see in this patient:

      Your Answer: Contralateral homonymous superior quadrantanopia

      Explanation:

      Axons from the lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) carry visual information, via the upper and lower optic radiations, to the visual cortex in the occipital lobe:
      The upper optic radiation carries fibres from the superior retinal quadrants (corresponding to the inferior visual field quadrants) and travels through the parietal lobe to reach the visual cortex.
      The lower optic radiation carries fibres from the inferior retinal quadrants (corresponding to the superior visual field quadrants) and travels through the temporal lobe to reach the visual cortex of the occipital lobe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      72
      Seconds

  • Question 21 - Which of the following tracts must be affected if a patient presents with...

    Correct

    • Which of the following tracts must be affected if a patient presents with decreased pain and temperature sensation in both lower extremities?

      Your Answer: The lateral spinothalamic tract

      Explanation:

      The main function of the spinothalamic tract is to carry pain and temperature via the lateral part of the pathway and crude touch via the anterior part. The spinothalamic tract pathway is an imperative sensory pathway in human survival because it enables one to move away from noxious stimuli by carrying pain and temperature information from the skin to the thalamus where it is processed and transmitted to the primary sensory cortex. The primary sensory cortex communicates with the primary motor cortex, which lies close to it, to generate rapid movement in response to potentially harmful stimuli. Furthermore, the spinothalamic tract has a role in responding to pruritogens, causing us to itch. Interestingly, itching suppresses the spinothalamic tract neuron response to the histamine effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      59
      Seconds

  • Question 22 - A patient presents complaining of visual loss. On examination you note a contralateral...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents complaining of visual loss. On examination you note a contralateral homonymous hemianopia. Where is the most likely site of the lesion:

      Your Answer: Upper optic radiation

      Correct Answer: Optic tract

      Explanation:

      At the optic chiasm, fibres from the medial (nasal) half of each retina crossover, forming the right and left optic tracts.
      The left optic tract contains fibres from the left lateral (temporal) retina and the right medial retina.
      The right optic tract contains fibres from the right lateral retina and the left medial retina.
      Each optic tract travels to its corresponding cerebral hemisphere to reach its lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) located in the thalamus where the fibres synapse.
      A lesion of the optic tract will cause a contralateral homonymous hemianopia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      77.9
      Seconds

  • Question 23 - A 26 year old horse rider has a bad fall and sustains a...

    Correct

    • A 26 year old horse rider has a bad fall and sustains a neck injury which displays the following signs:
      - ability to extend the wrist against gravity
      - paralysis of the hands, trunk, and legs
      - absent sensation in the fingers and medial upper arms
      - normal sensation over the thumbs
      - absent sensation in chest, abdomen, and legs

      What is the neurological level of the injury?

      Your Answer: C6

      Explanation:

      C1 – C4 INJURY
      Most severe of the spinal cord injury levels; paralysis in arms, hands, trunk and legs; patient may not be able to breathe on his or her own, cough, or control bowel or bladder movements; ability to speak is sometimes impaired or reduced

      C5 INJURY
      Person can raise his or her arms and bend elbows; likely to have some or total paralysis of wrists, hands, trunk and legs; can speak and use diaphragm, but breathing will be weakened

      C6 INJURY
      Nerves affect wrist extension; paralysis in hands, trunk and legs, typically; should be able to bend wrists back; can speak and use diaphragm, but breathing will be weakened

      C7 INJURY
      Nerves control elbow extension and some finger extension; most can straighten their arm and have normal movement of their shoulders

      C8 INJURY
      Nerves control some hand movement; should be able to grasp and release objects

      C5 – Elbow flexors (biceps, brachialis)
      C6 – Wrist extensors (extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis)
      C7 – Elbow extensors (triceps)
      C8 – Finger flexors (flexor digitorum profundus) to the middle finger

      C5 – Elbow flexed at 90 degrees, arm at the patient’s side and forearm supinated
      C6 – Wrist in full extension
      C7 – Shoulder is neutral rotation, adducted and in 90 degrees of flexion with elbow in 45 degrees of flexion
      C8 –Full flexed position of the distal phalanx with the proximal finger joints stabilized in a extended position

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      58.6
      Seconds

  • Question 24 - Which of the following is most likely to cause a homonymous hemianopia: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is most likely to cause a homonymous hemianopia:

      Your Answer: Optic neuritis

      Correct Answer: Posterior cerebral artery stroke

      Explanation:

      A posterior cerebral stroke will most likely result in a contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      37.6
      Seconds

  • Question 25 - In the emergency room, a 28-year-old woman complains of wobbly and slurred speech,...

    Correct

    • In the emergency room, a 28-year-old woman complains of wobbly and slurred speech, is unable to do the heel-shin test, and has nystagmus. The following signs are most likely related to damage to which of the following areas:

      Your Answer: Cerebellum

      Explanation:

      Cerebellar injury causes delayed and disorganized motions. When walking, people with cerebellar abnormalities sway and stagger.

      Damage to the cerebellum can cause asynergia, the inability to judge distance and when to stop, dysmetria, the inability to perform rapid alternating movements or adiadochokinesia, movement tremors, staggering, wide-based walking or ataxic gait, a proclivity to fall, weak muscles or hypotonia, slurred speech or ataxic dysarthria, and abnormal eye movements or nystagmus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      65.9
      Seconds

  • Question 26 - If a lesion is observed in Broca's area, which function is expected to...

    Correct

    • If a lesion is observed in Broca's area, which function is expected to become affected?

      Your Answer: Formation of words

      Explanation:

      The primary functions of the Broca area are both language production and comprehension. While the exact role in the production is still unclear, many believe that it directly impacts the motor movements to allow for speech. Although originally thought to only aid in speech production, lesions in the area can rarely be related to impairments in the comprehension of language. Different regions of the Broca area specialize in various aspects of comprehension. The anterior portion helps with semantics, or word meaning, while the posterior is associated with phonology, or how words sound. The Broca area is also necessary for language repetition, gesture production, sentence grammar and fluidity, and the interpretation of others’ actions.

      Broca’s aphasia is a non-fluent aphasia in which the output of spontaneous speech is markedly diminished and there is a loss of normal grammatical structure. Specifically, small linking words, conjunctions, such as and, or, and but, and the use of prepositions are lost. Patients may exhibit interjectional speech where there is a long latency, and the words that are expressed are produced as if under pressure. The ability to repeat phrases is also impaired in patients with Broca’s aphasia. Despite these impairments, the words that are produced are often intelligible and contextually correct. In pure Broca’s aphasia, comprehension is intact.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      73.8
      Seconds

  • Question 27 - A 65-year-old man complains of severe vertigo, nausea, and tinnitus. Upon presenting himself...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man complains of severe vertigo, nausea, and tinnitus. Upon presenting himself to the emergency room, it was observed that he is exhibiting ataxia, right-sided loss of pain and temperature sense on the face, and left-sided sensory loss to the body. An MRI and CT scan was ordered and the results showed that he is suffering from a right-sided stroke.

      Branches of which of the following arteries are most likely implicated in the case?

      Your Answer: Posterior cerebral artery

      Correct Answer: Basilar artery

      Explanation:

      The lateral pontine syndrome occurs due to occlusion of perforating branches of the basilar and anterior inferior cerebellar (AICA) arteries. It is also known as Marie-Foix syndrome or Marie-Foix-Alajouanine syndrome. It is considered one of the brainstem stroke syndromes of the lateral aspect of the pons.

      It is characterized by ipsilateral limb ataxia, loss of pain and temperature sensation of the face, facial weakness, hearing loss, vertigo and nystagmus, hemiplegia/hemiparesis, and loss of pain and temperature sensation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      81
      Seconds

  • Question 28 - A 55-year-old woman was complaining of headaches. On examination, the patient is found...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman was complaining of headaches. On examination, the patient is found to have weakness on the left side of her body and her eyes are deviated towards the right hand side. These are signs of damage to which of the following areas?

      Your Answer: Frontal lobe

      Explanation:

      Some potential symptoms of frontal lobe damage can include loss of movement, either partial or complete, on the opposite side of the body.

      In the patient’s case, it is a result of motor cortex damage on the right side since her left side of the body is affected. The conjugate eye deviation symptom towards the side of the lesion is a result of damage to the frontal eye field.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      52.2
      Seconds

  • Question 29 - A 34-year-old man presents with loss of vision in his left eye due...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old man presents with loss of vision in his left eye due to an episode of optic neuritis. Upon history taking, it was noted that he has a history of multiple sclerosis.

      Which of the following anatomical points in the visual pathway has the lesion occurred?

      Your Answer: Optic tract

      Correct Answer: Optic nerve

      Explanation:

      A lesion in the optic nerve causes ipsilateral monocular visual loss.
      Optic neuritis is an inflammatory demyelination of the optic nerve that is highly associated with multiple sclerosis. The two most common symptoms of optic neuritis are vision loss and eye pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      71.7
      Seconds

  • Question 30 - What type of visual field defect are you likely to see in a...

    Correct

    • What type of visual field defect are you likely to see in a lesion of the visual cortex:

      Your Answer: Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing

      Explanation:

      A lesion of the visual cortex will result in a contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      18.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (13/20) 65%
Central Nervous System (19/30) 63%
Pharmacology (6/10) 60%
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