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  • Question 1 - One function of the liver is synthesis and storage of protein. Which of...

    Correct

    • One function of the liver is synthesis and storage of protein. Which of the following will result in hypoalbuminemia?

      Your Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      Both trauma and sepsis cause an acute inflammatory response causing plasma leakage of albumin. Nephropathy causes leakage of albumin from glomeruli and excretion of albumin in urine known as albuminuria. A hypercatabolic state is characterized by increased circulating catabolic hormones and increase break down of proteins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 42 year old female presents with morning stiffness that usually takes an...

    Correct

    • A 42 year old female presents with morning stiffness that usually takes an hour to settle and a one year history of intermittent pain and swelling of the small joints of her hands. Examination reveals symmetric soft tissue swelling over the PIP and MCP joints and rheumatoid nodules on the elbows. There is also an effusion of both wrists. Lab results are positive for rheumatoid factor. X-ray of the wrists and hands shows erosions and bony decalcification. NSAIDs are started and the patient is referred to a rheumatologist for consideration of DMARD. Previous history is significant for TB. Which of the following should be avoided?

      Your Answer: Infliximab

      Explanation:

      Anti-TNF-α therapy is effective for patients with arthritis but it can oftentimes lead to the reactivation of latent TB. Hence it should be used with great caution in patients with a past history of TB or current infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The following are Gram positive rods: ...

    Correct

    • The following are Gram positive rods:

      Your Answer: Clostridia

      Explanation:

      Examples of Gram positive bacilli:Bacillus genusClostridium genusCorynebacterium genusListeria genusPropionibacterium genusExamples of Gram negative bacilli:Bacteroides genusCitrobacter genusEnterobacter genusEscherichia genusPseudomonas genusProteus genusSalmonella genusSerratia genusShigella genusYersinia genus

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      2.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - In the olfactory pathway: Mitral cells project to five regions of the olfactory...

    Incorrect

    • In the olfactory pathway: Mitral cells project to five regions of the olfactory cortex. Which one of the following is not one of the five regions?

      Your Answer: Entorhinal cortex

      Correct Answer: Posterior olfactory nucleus

      Explanation:

      The olfactory system contains peripheral and central divisions which are connected by transduction structures. Peripheral division consists mainly of the nostrils, ethmoid bone, nasal cavity, and the olfactory epithelium. Olfactory neurons are receptor cells in the epithelium that detect odour molecules dissolved in the mucus and transmit information about the odour to the brain in a process called sensory transduction. Olfactory nerves and fibers transmit information about odours from the peripheral olfactory system to the central olfactory system of the brain. The main olfactory bulb transmits pulses to both mitral and tufted cells, which help determine odour concentration. These cells also note differences between highly similar odours and use that data to aid in later recognition. The cells are different with the mitral having low firing-rates and being easily inhibited by neighbouring cells, while tufted have high rates of firing and are more difficult to inhibit. The uncus houses the olfactory cortex which includes the piriform cortex, amygdala, olfactory tubercle, and para-hippocampal gyrus. Entorhinal cortex is an area of middle temporal lobe that has connection with the para-hippocampal gyrus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What is the effect of catecholamines (i.e. increased heart rate) on the pressure...

    Correct

    • What is the effect of catecholamines (i.e. increased heart rate) on the pressure volume loop?

      Your Answer: Shifts the diastolic pressure curve upward and leftward

      Explanation:

      Catecholamines have a positive ionotropic and chronotropic effect on the heart. The ventricles develop greater tension during systole resulting in an increase in the stroke volume. The increase in stroke volume results in a decrease in the end diastolic volume. This pushes the loop towards the left and upwards.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      30.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Regarding cardiac output, an increased ejection fraction results from increases in which of...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding cardiac output, an increased ejection fraction results from increases in which of the following?

      Your Answer: Strength of contraction with increase in muscle fiber length

      Correct Answer: Strength of contraction without increase in muscle fiber length

      Explanation:

      When the strength of contraction increases without an increase in fiber length, the EF increases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 46 year old male, known with Rheumatoid Arthritis presents with a swollen...

    Correct

    • A 46 year old male, known with Rheumatoid Arthritis presents with a swollen and painful right ankle. No drug allergies are reported. On examination, the vitals are as follows: Temp: 38.8BP: 90/60 mmHgPulse: 110/min. Right ankle examination reveals tenderness, warmth, erythema and tense joint effusion. Blood samples including blood cultures are collected and fluid resuscitation is initiated. Which of the following interventions would be most appropriate for this man?

      Your Answer: Administer i.v. flucloxacillin, and arrange joint aspiration urgently

      Explanation:

      Although microscopic analysis of joint fluid aspirate and culture is the basis of septic arthritis diagnosis and should usually be collected before the administration of antibiotics, the patient is showing signs of septic shock. A delay in antibiotics might lead to worsening of symptoms so they are administered first.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      29.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The cell membrane: ...

    Correct

    • The cell membrane:

      Your Answer: Is a bilayer of amphipathic lipids

      Explanation:

      The cell membrane consists of a bilayer of amphipathic lipids with embedded proteins. The basic function of the cell membrane is to protect the cell from its surroundings. It is selectively permeable to ions and organic molecules. The entire membrane is held together via non-covalent interaction of hydrophobic tails, however the structure is quite fluid and not fixed rigidly in place. Membranes are typically 7.5–10 nm in thickness and typically have a large content of proteins, around 50% of membrane volume.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is the name of the area that indicates the site of active...

    Incorrect

    • What is the name of the area that indicates the site of active B lymphocyte proliferation?

      Your Answer: Cortex

      Correct Answer: Germinal centre

      Explanation:

      The cortex of the lymph node consists of the lymphoid nodules and sinusoids and posses a germinal centre from which B cells proliferate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Why is the sub-endocardial portion of the left ventricle the most common site...

    Correct

    • Why is the sub-endocardial portion of the left ventricle the most common site for ischaemic damage and myocardial infarction?

      Your Answer: No blood flow occurs during systole

      Explanation:

      The subendocardium receives the least amount of blood from the coronary arteries. During systole the coronary arteries collapse as a result of the pressure due to contraction that is exerted on them. During diastole the heart muscle relaxes and the pressure on the coronary vessels is relieved allowing blood to flow through them to the subendocardium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following regulates the calcium release channels? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following regulates the calcium release channels?

      Your Answer: Both a and d

      Correct Answer: Calstabin 2

      Explanation:

      Ca2+ is released from the SR through a Ca2+ release channel, a cardiac isoform of the ryanodine receptor (RyR2), which controls intracytoplasmic [Ca2+] and, as in vascular smooth-muscle cells, leads to the local changes in intracellular [Ca2+] called calcium sparks. A number of regulatory proteins, including calstabin 2, inhibit RyR2 and, thereby, the release of Ca2+ from the SR.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which one of the following makes up most of the adrenal cortex? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following makes up most of the adrenal cortex?

      Your Answer: Zona glomerulosa

      Correct Answer: Zona fasciculata

      Explanation:

      The zona fasciculata represents the widest area of the adrenal cortex, situated in the middle of the cortex. It produces glucocorticoids including; 11-deoxycorticosterone, corticosterone, and cortisol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which mechanism of action do Quinolones use? ...

    Correct

    • Which mechanism of action do Quinolones use?

      Your Answer: Inhibit DNA gyrase

      Explanation:

      The quinolones are a family of synthetic broad-spectrum antibiotic drugs. Quinolones exert their antibacterial effect by preventing bacterial DNA from unwinding and duplicating.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Myelin sheath in the CNS is produced by? ...

    Incorrect

    • Myelin sheath in the CNS is produced by?

      Your Answer: Schwann cells

      Correct Answer: Oligodendrocytes

      Explanation:

      CNS myelin is produced by special cells called oligodendrocytes. PNS myelin is produced by Schwann cells. The two types of myelin are chemically different, but they both perform the same function — to promote efficient transmission of a nerve impulse along the axon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following portocaval anastomoses can cause problems in preterm infants? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following portocaval anastomoses can cause problems in preterm infants?

      Your Answer: Patent ductus venosus.

      Explanation:

      The ductus venosus is open at the time of the birth and closes during the first week of life in most full-term neonates; however, it may take much longer to close in pre-term neonates. After it closes, the remnant is known as ligamentum venosum. If the ductus venosus fails to occlude after birth, it remains patent (open), and the individual is said to have a patent ductus venosus and thus an intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (PSS).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Amongst the following cells, which is responsible for the secretion of defensins? ...

    Correct

    • Amongst the following cells, which is responsible for the secretion of defensins?

      Your Answer: Neutrophils

      Explanation:

      Eosinophils are phagocytic and they are directed against helminths. Basophils are involved in allergic reactions and contain histamine and vasoactive granules in their cytoplasm. Mast cells are similar to basophils. Monocytes differentiate into macrophages in the tissue, secret interleukins and are phagocytic. Neutrophils are phagocytic but are also responsible for secreting defensins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      2.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Myocardial fibers have a resting membrane potential of approximately: ...

    Correct

    • Myocardial fibers have a resting membrane potential of approximately:

      Your Answer: -90mv

      Explanation:

      The resting membrane potential of the mammalian heart is about -90 mv.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Acetylcholine from enteric nerve endings stimulates this pair: ...

    Correct

    • Acetylcholine from enteric nerve endings stimulates this pair:

      Your Answer: Parietal cells and chief cells

      Explanation:

      In the body of the stomach, the vagal postganglionic muscarinic nerves release acetylcholine(ACh) which stimulates parietal cell H+ secretion. Gastric chief cells are primarily activated by ACh. However the decrease in pH caused by activation of parietal cells further activates gastric chief cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - The interior of lysosomes is kept at a pH of around 5 by...

    Correct

    • The interior of lysosomes is kept at a pH of around 5 by the action of:

      Your Answer: H+ ATPase

      Explanation:

      The lysosome maintains its pH differential by pumping in protons (H+ ions) from the cytosol across the membrane via proton pumps and chloride ion channels. Vacuolar H+-ATPases are responsible for transport of protons, while the counter transport of chloride ions is performed by ClC-7 Cl−/H+ antiporter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which vagus nerve mainly supplies the AV node? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which vagus nerve mainly supplies the AV node?

      Your Answer: None of the above

      Correct Answer: Left vagus

      Explanation:

      As the AV node develops from the left side of the embryo It is supplied by the left vagus nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following are responsible for the 4th heart sound? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following are responsible for the 4th heart sound?

      Your Answer: Closure of the aorta and pulmonary valves

      Correct Answer: Ventricular hypertrophy

      Explanation:

      The fourth heart sound is not normally audible in a normal adult. It occurs as a consequence of ventricular hypertrophy. It is caused by filling of the ventricle in atrial systole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Myocardial contractility is improved by: ...

    Correct

    • Myocardial contractility is improved by:

      Your Answer: Caffeine

      Explanation:

      Caffeine and other theophyllines breakdown cAMP and have a positive ionotropic effect on the heart. Drugs like quinidine, procainamide and conditions like hypoxia and hypercapnia decreases the contractility of the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the toxin secretion pathways in the cell membrane of gram– bacteria...

    Correct

    • Which of the toxin secretion pathways in the cell membrane of gram– bacteria delivers the toxin extracellular in a 2 stage process to the host?

      Your Answer: II

      Explanation:

      Gram negative bacteria contain two membranes and there are about six specialized secretion systems. The secreted proteins play a key role in pathogenesis. Type II secretion systems (T2SS) are conserved in most Gram-negative bacteria, where they transport proteins from the periplasm into the extracellular environment. Because the T2SS channel is only found in the outer membrane, proteins secreted through this apparatus must first be delivered to the periplasm via the Sec or Tat secretion pathways and then to the extracellular environment making it a two-stage process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 45-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after being found collapsed,...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after being found collapsed, outside a nightclub. The ER team found an empty bottle of amyl nitrate in his pocket. The patient is hypoxic with an O2 saturation of 84% and is confused. Which of the following is the best treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Hyperbaric oxygen

      Correct Answer: Methylene blue

      Explanation:

      The best treatment for the patient in question would be methylene blue.The most probable diagnosis in this patient is methemoglobinemia due to the ingestion of amyl nitrate.Amyl nitrate promotes the formation of methaemoglobin, which avidly conserves oxygen and leads to decreased tissue oxygen saturations. Treatment of choice includes methylene blue and vitamin C.Adverse effects:Benign side effects include green or blue discoloration of urine and patients should be forewarned. Significant side effects are based on methylene blue, itself, being an oxidizing agent and an inhibitor of monoamine oxidase A (MAO-A). As an oxidizing agent, methylene blue can actually precipitate methemoglobinemia or haemolysis in high doses or when ineffectively reduced. Methylene blue administration in a patient taking a serotonergic agents may predispose to serotonin syndrome.Note: Although methylene blue administration is controversial in the setting of G6PD-deficiency due to reduced levels of NADPH, it is not contraindicated and should be administered cautiously and judiciously.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Regarding the innervation of cerebral blood vessels, which of the following triggers a...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the innervation of cerebral blood vessels, which of the following triggers a vasoconstrictor effect?

      Your Answer: Substance P

      Correct Answer: Neuropeptide-Y

      Explanation:

      Substance P is a potent vasodilator, VIP or vasoactive intestinal peptide has vasodilator properties in the intestines. PHM 27 is a potent calcitonin receptor agonist; endogenous analogue of human VIP. CGRP or Calcitonin Gene-Related Peptide is a vasodilator which is found to play an important role in migraines. Neuropeptide Y is a strong vasoconstrictor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - The coronary arteries supply which part of the heart’s subendocardial region exclusively in...

    Incorrect

    • The coronary arteries supply which part of the heart’s subendocardial region exclusively in diastole?

      Your Answer: Right ventricle

      Correct Answer: Left ventricle

      Explanation:

      It is only during diastole that the blood flows to the subendocardial portion of the left ventricle, as the heart muscle relaxes and the coronary arteries regain their patency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - What is the function of Activated protein C? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the function of Activated protein C?

      Your Answer: Activates factor VIII

      Correct Answer: Inactivates factor Va

      Explanation:

      Activated Protein C (APC) is a crucial protein in the regulation of blood coagulation. Its primary functions include:

      1. Inactivating Factor Va: APC inactivates Factor Va, which is a cofactor for the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin by Factor Xa. By inactivating Factor Va, APC reduces thrombin formation, thereby acting as an anticoagulant.
      2. Inactivating Factor VIIIa: APC also inactivates Factor VIIIa, another cofactor that assists Factor IXa in the conversion of Factor X to Factor Xa. This further contributes to its anticoagulant effect.

      These actions help to regulate blood clotting and prevent excessive thrombosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Pendrin is a Cl-/I- exchanger whose function is: ...

    Incorrect

    • Pendrin is a Cl-/I- exchanger whose function is:

      Your Answer: Uptake of iodide across the basolateral membrane into the thyrocyte

      Correct Answer: Transfer of iodide across the thyrocyte apical membrane into the colloid

      Explanation:

      Pendrin is an anion transporter present in the inner ear, thyroid and kidney. It regulates the entrance of iodide from the thyroid cell to the colloid space. It has been proposed that its role could be the maintenance of the ionic composition of the endolymph.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 65-year-old man presents to you three weeks after initiating metformin for type...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man presents to you three weeks after initiating metformin for type 2 diabetes mellitus. His body mass index is 27.5 kg/m^2. At a dose of 500mg TDS the patient has experienced significant diarrhoea. Even on reducing the dose to 500mg BD his symptoms persisted. What is the most appropriate next step in this patient?

      Your Answer: Start modified release metformin 500mg od with evening meal

      Explanation:

      Here, the patient seems to be intolerant to standard metformin. In such cases, modified-release preparations is considered as the most appropriate next step. There is some evidence that these produce fewer gastrointestinal side-effects in patients intolerant of standard-release metformin.Metformin is a biguanide and reduces blood glucose levels by decreasing the production of glucose in the liver, decreasing intestinal absorption and increasing insulin sensitivity. Metformin decreases both the basal and postprandial blood glucose.Other uses: In Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS), Metformin decreases insulin levels, which then decreases luteinizing hormone and androgen levels. Thus acting to normalize the menstruation cycle.Note:Metformin is contraindicated in patients with severe renal dysfunction, which is defined as a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) less than 30 ml/min/1.732m2. Metformin overdose has been associated with hypoglycaemia and lactic acidosis, for this reason, it has a black box warning for lactic acidosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - The process by which depolarization of the muscle fiber initiates contraction is called?...

    Correct

    • The process by which depolarization of the muscle fiber initiates contraction is called?

      Your Answer: Action potential

      Explanation:

      This process is known as an action potential. Upon generation of an action potential when depolarization reaches threshold, it spreads throughout the muscle fiber, resulting in generation of an excitation-contraction coupling leading to contraction of the muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      5.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastrointestinal (2/2) 100%
Medicine (17/30) 57%
Connective Tissue (2/2) 100%
Infectious Diseases (3/3) 100%
Neurology (0/3) 0%
Cardiovascular (5/10) 50%
Cell Biology (2/2) 100%
Immunology (1/2) 50%
Endocrinology (0/2) 0%
Hepatobiliary (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (1/2) 50%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Passmed