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  • Question 1 - Which of the following is associated with neonatal vitamin E deficiency? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is associated with neonatal vitamin E deficiency?

      Your Answer: Thrombocytosis

      Explanation:

      Vitamin E deficiency in premature infants has been described as being associated with low haemoglobin levels in the 2nd month of life, haemolytic anaemia associated with thrombocytosis. Recently, low vitamin E concentrations were suspected as being associated with sudden death in infancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following chemical substances is NOT a component of amniotic fluid?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following chemical substances is NOT a component of amniotic fluid?

      Your Answer: Interleukin-1

      Explanation:

      Amniotic fluid is the protective liquid that surrounds the fetus in utero. It prevents the fetus from injury, protects the umbilical cord from compression, and provides necessary nutrients and a medium for growth and movement. Amniotic fluid originates from the maternal plasma initially, but by 16th week of gestation, fetal kidneys start making urine which contributes to further production of the amniotic fluid. Amniotic fluid contains a number of chemical substances including hormones, tumour markers, nutrients, electrolytes, and immunoglobulins. Main substances found in amniotic fluid include carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, lactoferrin, insulin-like growth factor, granulocyte colony-stimulating factor, erythropoietin, etc. Interleukin-1 is not a component of AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is incorrect?

      Your Answer: The perinatal mortality rate is the number of stillbirths and deaths within 7 days of life divided by 1000 births

      Correct Answer: The embryonic phase is the first 20 weeks in utero

      Explanation:

      The embryonic period comprises of the first 8 weeks of pregnancy. It is divided into a preembryonic phase (from the 1st to the 3rd week), in which the three germinal layers arise, and into the embryonic phase proper (from the 4th to 8th week), in which the embryonic organ anlagen arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 7 day old male infant, born at term, presents with umbilical bruising...

    Correct

    • A 7 day old male infant, born at term, presents with umbilical bruising and bleeding. History reveals he wasn’t given vitamin K after birth. Blood exam is normal but with a high prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time. What is the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Intravenous vitamin K plus fresh frozen plasma

      Explanation:

      The clinical picture suggests a vitamin K deficiency haemorrhagic disease of the new-born and requires IV vitamin K and fresh frozen plasma. This usually presents with gastrointestinal bleeding, bleeding from the umbilical stump and bruising after 2–7 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A new-born with a history of extended resuscitation is admitted in the neonatal...

    Correct

    • A new-born with a history of extended resuscitation is admitted in the neonatal unit. His mother had a difficult delivery and the baby boy weights 4.9 kg. He is unstable and you observe petechial bleeding on his legs. There is also oozing around the umbilicus. Blood exam reveals a prolonged PT, thrombin time, and APPT. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation

      Explanation:

      In this case there is evidence of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) caused by severe birth asphyxia. The baby was born weighing 4,9 kg which is a large size for a new-born and thus a difficult delivery with potential birth asphyxia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      32.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The new-born hearing test is best carried out within the first four or...

    Correct

    • The new-born hearing test is best carried out within the first four or five weeks of life, until what age can it be performed?

      Your Answer: 12 weeks

      Explanation:

      Ideally, the test is done in the first 4 to 5 weeks, but it can be done at up to 3 months of age.The identification of all new-borns with hearing loss before age 6 months has now become an attainable realistic goal. In the past, parents and paediatricians often did not suspect a hearing loss until the age of 2-3 years, after important speech and language milestones have not been met. By the time these milestones are missed, the hearing-impaired child has already experienced irreversible delays in speech and language development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Parents of a new-born are worried about cot death. What advice will you...

    Correct

    • Parents of a new-born are worried about cot death. What advice will you give?

      Your Answer: Child should sleep on the back with legs towards the end of the cot

      Explanation:

      Cot death also know as SIDS or Sudden Infant Death syndrome. Putting a baby to sleep on his back has been shown to reduce the risk of SIDS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - In which of the following ethnic backgrounds are Mongolian blue spots most likely...

    Incorrect

    • In which of the following ethnic backgrounds are Mongolian blue spots most likely to be found?

      Your Answer: Mediterranean

      Correct Answer: White European

      Explanation:

      Mongolian spots are, hyper-pigmented, non-blanching patches present on the back and gluteal region at birth. They are commonly found in African and Asian ethnic groups, and can also present in infants of Mediterranean and middle eastern descent. Though the spots usually disappear by puberty, some may persist into adulthood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is the most likely infectious agent implicated in mastitis? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most likely infectious agent implicated in mastitis?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Infectious mastitis and breast abscesses are predominantly caused by bacteria that colonize the skin. S. aureus is the most common causative agent, followed by coagulase-negative Staphylococci. The majority of S. aureus isolated are now methicillin-resistant S. aureus (MRSA)Some breast infections (and up to 40% of breast abscesses) may be polymicrobial, with the isolation of aerobes (Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Enterobacteriaceae, Corynebacterium, Escherichia coli, and Pseudomonas) as well as anaerobes (Peptostreptococcus, Propionibacterium, Bacteroides, Lactobacillus, Eubacterium, Clostridium, Fusobacterium, and Veillonella). A study of primary and recurrent breast abscesses showed that smokers were more likely to have anaerobes recovered (isolated in 15% of patients).Unusual breast infections may be the initial presentation of HIV infection. Typhoid is a well-recognized cause of breast abscesses in countries where this disease is prevalent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Congenital cytomegalovirus infection is characterized by which of the following statements? ...

    Incorrect

    • Congenital cytomegalovirus infection is characterized by which of the following statements?

      Your Answer: CMV cannot be transmitted through breast milk

      Correct Answer: Periventricular cerebral calcifications are an associated feature

      Explanation:

      One of the most common congenital viral infections is cytomegalovirus infection. The infection is even commoner than the other widely known diseases like down’s syndrome and spina bifida. It is caused by herpesvirus type 5 and is diagnosed using PCR of saliva. The clinical features include failure to thrive, intellectual disability, epilepsy, and microcephaly. The most common clinical complication is sensorineural deafness. The drug of choice for the treatment of neonatal CMV infection is ganciclovir, an anti-viral drug that has shown to prevent deafness. Cytomegalic inclusion disease is diagnosed at birth with marked neurological disability, resulting from microcephaly, intracerebral calcifications, and cerebral atrophy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following is true regarding congenital hypothyroidism? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is true regarding congenital hypothyroidism?

      Your Answer: It may lead to prolongation of unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia

      Explanation:

      Congenital hypothyroidism (CH) is inadequate thyroid hormone production in new-born infants. It can occur because of an anatomic defect in the gland, an inborn error of thyroid metabolism, or iodine deficiency.CH is the most common neonatal endocrine disorder, and historically, thyroid dysgenesis was thought to account for approximately 80% of cases. However, studies have reported a change in the epidemiology, with a doubling in incidence to around 1 in 1500 live new-borns.​Infants with congenital hypothyroidism are usually born at term or after term. Symptoms and signs include the following:Decreased activityLarge anterior fontanellePoor feeding and weight gainSmall stature or poor growthJaundiceDecreased stooling or constipationHypotoniaHoarse cryProlonged neonatal jaundice or unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Female twins are born. They are noted by the midwife to be identical....

    Correct

    • Female twins are born. They are noted by the midwife to be identical. They separated in the womb after implantation but before day 8.What type of twin is this?

      Your Answer: Monochorionic diamniotic

      Explanation:

      A monochorionic diamniotic (MCDA) twin pregnancy is a subtype of monozygotic twin pregnancy. An MCDA pregnancy results from a separation of a single zygote at ,4-8 days (blastocyst) following formation. These fetuses share a single chorionic sac but have two amniotic sacs and two yolk sacs. It accounts for the vast majority (70-75%) of monozygotic twin pregnancies although only ,30% of all twin pregnancies. The estimated incidence is at ,1:400 pregnanciesThe layman term is that the twins are identical – in reality, they are phenotypically similar, and of course of the same gender.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      28
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Macrosomia is NOT commonly found in which of the following genetic abnormalities? ...

    Incorrect

    • Macrosomia is NOT commonly found in which of the following genetic abnormalities?

      Your Answer: Bardet-Biedl syndrome

      Correct Answer: Silver-Russell syndrome

      Explanation:

      Macrosomia can be defined as either a birth weight greater than 4kg or birth weight greater than 90% for the gestational age. Risk factors for macrosomia include maternal diabetes, excessive gestational weight gain, pre-pregnancy obesity, male gender, ethnicity, and advanced gestational age. Genetic conditions associated with macrosomia are Bardet-Biedl syndrome, Perlman syndrome, Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome, and Prader-Willi syndrome. Silver-Russell syndrome is associated with intrauterine growth retardation and post-natal failure to thrive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A new-born infant is profoundly hypotonic at birth| he has a good heart...

    Incorrect

    • A new-born infant is profoundly hypotonic at birth| he has a good heart rate but is in respiratory distress. Which of the following syndromes is most likely to be the cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Werdnig–Hoffman disease (spinomuscular atrophy type 1)

      Explanation:

      The spinal muscular atrophies (SMAs) comprise a group of autosomal recessive disorders characterized by progressive weakness of the lower motor neurons. several types of spinal muscular atrophies have been described based on age when accompanying clinical features appear. The most common types are acute infantile (SMA type I, or Werdnig-Hoffman disease), chronic infantile (SMA type II), chronic juvenile (SMA type III or Kugelberg-Welander disease), and adult-onset (SMA type IV) forms.SMA type I – Acute infantile or Werdnig-Hoffman diseasePatients present before 6 months of age, with 95% of patients having signs and symptoms by 3 months. They have severe, progressive muscle weakness and flaccid or reduced muscle tone (hypotonia). Bulbar dysfunction includes poor suck ability, reduced swallowing, and respiratory failure. Patients have no involvement of the extraocular muscles, and facial weakness is often minimal or absent. They have no evidence of cerebral involvement, and infants appear alert.Reports of impaired fetal movements are observed in 30% of cases, and 60% of infants with SMA type I are floppy babies at birth. Prolonged cyanosis may be noted at delivery. In some instances, the disease can cause fulminant weakness in the first few days of life. Such severe weakness and early bulbar dysfunction are associated with short life expectancy, with a mean survival of 5.9 months. In 95% of cases, infants die from complications of the disease by 18 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - In term babies with persistent jaundice, what is the time period over which...

    Incorrect

    • In term babies with persistent jaundice, what is the time period over which one must consider biliary atresia as the probable cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 14 days

      Explanation:

      After a period of 14 days, if jaundice persists in a term new-born, having ruled out the other possibilities, biliary atresia should be considered as a possible diagnosis.Biliary atresia is a rare but serious condition. Symptoms include obstructive jaundice (dark urine and pale stool). Management:Surgery within 8 weeks is recommended. Survival is around 90% using current treatment regimes. Without treatment, children will survive to around 18 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A new-born has several strawberry naevi. You're concerned about internal haemangiomas. How many...

    Incorrect

    • A new-born has several strawberry naevi. You're concerned about internal haemangiomas. How many naevi should warrant further investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: More than 5

      Explanation:

      Eight percentage of infantile haemangiomas are focal and solitary. Sixty percent of cutaneous haemangiomas occur on the head and neck, 25% on the trunk, and 15% on the extremities. Haemangiomas also can occur in extracutaneous sites, including the liver, gastrointestinal tract, larynx, CNS, pancreas, gall bladder, thymus, spleen, lymph nodes, lung, urinary bladder, and adrenal glands.Guidelines on the management of infantile haemangioma were released in December 2018 by the American Academy of Paediatrics stating that:Imaging is not necessary unless the diagnosis is uncertain, there are five or more cutaneous infantile haemangiomas present, or there is suspicion of anatomic abnormalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following congenital diseases is NOT associated with raised alpha-fetoprotein levels?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following congenital diseases is NOT associated with raised alpha-fetoprotein levels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Down's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Alpha-fetoprotein has significance primarily as a tumour marker, but maternal levels are frequently measured to detect some of the congenital abnormalities, in which the levels of alpha-fetoprotein are either increased or decreased. The conditions associated with raised alpha-fetoprotein levels are: spina bifida, anencephaly, myelomeningocele, oesophageal atresia, congenital nephrotic syndrome, and turner’s syndrome. Down’s syndrome or trisomy 21 is associated with low levels of maternal alpha-fetoprotein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - All of the given options cause persistent neonatal hypoglycaemia EXCEPT? ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the given options cause persistent neonatal hypoglycaemia EXCEPT?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phenylketonuria

      Explanation:

      Neonatal hypoglycaemia is a serious condition that needs prompt attention and management. The accepted criteria to define neonatal hypoglycaemia is blood sugar levels less than 2.2mmol/L during the first 3 days of life and less than 2.5mmol/L later on. Multiple aetiologies and various risk factors are involved in causing hypoglycaemia in new-borns| the most common and important causes include prematurity, erythroblastosis fetalis, hypoxia at birth, sepsis, inborn errors of metabolism, hypopituitarism, and hyperinsulinism due to maternal diabetes. Inborn errors of metabolism that lead to persistent neonatal hypoglycaemia are maple syrup urine disease, glycogen storage disease, fatty acid enzyme deficiencies, and fructose intolerance. Phenylketonuria does not cause hypoglycaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A nuchal translucency measurement is taken from the nape of the foetus' neck...

    Incorrect

    • A nuchal translucency measurement is taken from the nape of the foetus' neck to screen for Down's syndrome.Which of these is the embryological origin of this tissue?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ectoderm

      Explanation:

      The origins of the neural tube and the nape of the neck where nuchal translucency measurements are taken are from embryonic ectoderm.The structural development of the head and neck occurs between the third and eighth weeks of gestation. The 5 pairs of branchial arches, corresponding to the primitive vertebrae gill bars, that form on either side of the pharyngeal foregut on day 22 are the embryologic basis of all the differentiated structures of the head and neck. Each arch consists of 3 layers: an outer covering of ectoderm, an inner covering of endoderm, and a middle core of mesenchyme. These arches are separated further into external, ectoderm-lined pharyngeal clefts and internal, endoderm-lined pharyngeal pouchesA population of ectodermal cells adjacent to the neural fold and not included in the overlying surface (somatic) ectoderm gives rise to the formation of the neural crest. These neuroectodermal crest cells are believed to migrate widely throughout the developing embryo in a relatively cell-free enriched extracellular matrix and differentiate into a wide array of cell and tissue types, influenced by the local environment. Most connective and skeletal tissues of the cranium and face ultimately come from the derivatives of neural crest cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - What is the optimal pressure to be used when providing inflation breaths to...

    Incorrect

    • What is the optimal pressure to be used when providing inflation breaths to a term new-born who is unable to breathe spontaneously?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 30 cmH2O

      Explanation:

      According per the national guidelines, 5 inflation breaths should be given with a gas pressure of 30cmH2O for term babies. Each breath should be given for 2-3 seconds. Pre-term babies should be aerated with a lower pressure of 20-25cmH2O.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 27-year-old pregnant female had a pre pregnancy BMI of 33 kg/m2. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old pregnant female had a pre pregnancy BMI of 33 kg/m2. She is found to have gestational diabetes and ultrasonography estimates a fetal macrosomia. BP is 127/72 mmHg. This primigravida is at greatest risk for which of the following obstetric emergency?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Shoulder dystocia

      Explanation:

      Shoulder dystocia occurs when the fetal anterior shoulder impacts against the maternal symphysis following delivery of the vertex. Less commonly, shoulder dystocia results from impaction of the posterior shoulder on the sacral promontory. Risk Factors for Shoulder DystociaMaternalAbnormal pelvic anatomyGestational diabetesPost-dates pregnancyPrevious shoulder dystociaShort statureFetalSuspected macrosomiaLabour relatedAssisted vaginal delivery (forceps or vacuum)Protracted active phase of first-stage labourProtracted second-stage labour

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - The following are the causes of hydrops fetalis EXCEPT? ...

    Incorrect

    • The following are the causes of hydrops fetalis EXCEPT?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis A

      Explanation:

      Hydrops fetalis is a serious condition characterized by excessive fluid accumulation resulting in oedema in one or more of the fetal compartments. The most likely cause is fetal anaemia, and the condition may lead to ascites and pleural effusion. The anaemia that results in hydrops may be caused by Rh incompatibility, Parvovirus B19 infection, toxoplasmosis, hepatitis B, maternal syphilis (strong association), Cytomegalovirus, Turner syndrome, and Noonan syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following maternal factors is associated with oligohydramnios? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following maternal factors is associated with oligohydramnios?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Maternal thrombotic disorder

      Explanation:

      Oligohydramnios is a deficiency in the amniotic fluid volume, measured via ultrasound. Maternal factors associated with oligohydramnios include conditions where there is placental insufficiency such as chronic hypertension, preeclampsia or a thrombotic disorder, post-term pregnancy, premature rupture of membranes, certain chromosomal abnormalities, and obstructions of the foetal urinary tract. On the other hand conditions that are associated with polyhydramnios (excess amniotic fluid) include maternal diabetes, multiple gestations, Rh incompatibility and pulmonary abnormalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for neonatal polycythaemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for neonatal polycythaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Jaundice

      Explanation:

      Polycythaemia is a commonly occurring neonatal disorder, which is characterized by a venous haematocrit ≥ 65%. It increases the blood viscosity and causes microcirculatory flow impairment in the end-organs. Causes of polycythaemia are multi-factorial, but the significant risk factors are maternal diabetes, SGA, LGA or post-term birth, infants with chromosomal abnormalities, and delayed clamping of the cord. Jaundice is not a recognized risk factor for polycythaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - In women undergoing breast augmentation, what is the percentage reduction with respect to...

    Incorrect

    • In women undergoing breast augmentation, what is the percentage reduction with respect to successful breastfeeding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.25

      Explanation:

      Breastfeeding may be significantly impaired (up to 25%) by breast augmentation. Equally, breast engorgement, which occurs due to vascular congestion, reduces nipple protrusion and subsequent ability to breastfeed successfully. In the latter, regular feeding or expressing is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      0
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  • Question 26 - A 17-year-old girl presents to the OBGYN after having unprotected. She is found...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old girl presents to the OBGYN after having unprotected. She is found to be 5 days pregnant. The fertilized tissue is at which stage of development?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blastocyst

      Explanation:

      Time- EventWeek 1: ImplantationWeek 2: Formation of bilaminar diskWeek 3: Formation of primitive streakFormation of notochordGastrulationWeek 4: Limb buds begin to formNeural tube closesHeart begins to beatWeek 10: Genitals are differentiated

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      0
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  • Question 27 - What is the most common cardiac abnormality found in Noonan syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most common cardiac abnormality found in Noonan syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary stenosis

      Explanation:

      Noonan syndrome is one of the most common genetic diseases associated with congenital heart defects, being second in frequency only to Down syndrome.Pulmonary stenosis and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy are generally the most common congenital heart defects found in Noonan syndrome.Pulmonary stenosis is often associated with a thickened and dysplastic valve. It is usually difficult to obtain a satisfactory result using the transcatheter balloon dilatation of such dysplastic valves, so surgical intervention is more likely to be needed.Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy involves predominantly the ventricular septum as asymmetric septal hypertrophy, but may also affect the ventricular free walls. Left ventricular outflow tract obstruction may occasionally be produced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      0
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  • Question 28 - A term baby with a birth weight of 4.2 kg with meconium aspiration...

    Incorrect

    • A term baby with a birth weight of 4.2 kg with meconium aspiration syndrome is intubated and ventilated. Conventional ventilation was unsuccessful and so a trial of high-frequency oscillatory ventilation has commenced. Chest X-ray shows good lung inflation. There is minimal chest “wobble” on the baby. Settings are mean airway pressure 16, delta P 25, rate 10 Hz, FiO2 0.5. Baby’s oxygen saturations are 94%. Blood gas shows pH 7.19, CO2 9.3 kPa, BE –5. What is the first change that should be made to the ventilation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase delta P

      Explanation:

      The baby is not clearing CO2 normally despite normal oxygenation so we should increase the delta P. Higher delta P will increase tidal volume and hence CO2 removal.After initial resuscitation and stabilization, the following should be the ventilator settings used:Rate: 30-40/minutePeak inspiratory pressure (PIP) – determined by adequate chest wall movement.An infant weighing less than 1500 grams: 16-28 cm H2O.An infant weighing greater than 1500 grams: 20-30 cm H2O. Positive end expiratory pressure (PEEP): 4 cm of H2O OR 5-6 cm if FiO2 > 0.90.FiO2: 0.4 to 1.0, depending on the clinical situation.Inspiratory time: 0.3-0.5 sec.After 15 to 30 minutes, check arterial blood gases and pH.If the PaO2 or the O2 saturation is below accepted standards, the FiO2 can be raised to a maximum of 1.0. If the PaO2 or O2 saturation is still inadequate, the mean airway pressure can be raised by increasing either the PIP, PEEP, inspiratory time or the rate, leaving inspiratory time constant.If the PaCO2 is elevated, the rate or peak inspiratory pressure can be raised.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      0
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  • Question 29 - Which of the given choices accurately defines perinatal mortality rate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the given choices accurately defines perinatal mortality rate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Number of stillbirths and deaths within 7 days of life divided by 1000 births

      Explanation:

      The perinatal mortality rate is defined as the number of perinatal deaths per 1000 total births. Perinatal death includes the death of a live-born neonate within 7-days of life (early neonatal death) and the death of a fetus ≥ 22 weeks of gestation (stillbirth). Hence, the perinatal mortality rate is calculated by dividing the number of still births+ the number of early neonatal deaths by 1000 births.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      0
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  • Question 30 - What is the imaging modality of choice to assess for the presence of...

    Incorrect

    • What is the imaging modality of choice to assess for the presence of developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) in a baby born breech?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: USS

      Explanation:

      Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a spectrum of anatomical abnormalities of the hip joint in which the femoral head has an abnormal relationship with the acetabulum.Plain radiographs are of limited value for diagnosis in the new-born child because the femoral head and acetabulum are largely cartilaginous. Ultrasound scanning is the investigation of choice to evaluate DDH in infants younger than six months of age and is useful to diagnose more subtle forms of the disorder when a clinical exam is equivocal. It is also the only imaging modality that enables a three-dimensional real-time image of a neonate’s hip.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      0
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neonatology (9/13) 69%
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