-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A patient admitted to the hospital is on oxygen via a venturi mask.
The air entrainment ratio is 1:9 i.e. 1 litre of 100% oxygen from the source entrains 9 litres of air from the atmosphere). The flow rate of 100% oxygen is 6L/minute.
Based on the given data which of the following value approximates the oxygen concentration delivered to the patient?Your Answer: 60%
Correct Answer: 28%
Explanation:The formula for calculating air: oxygen entrainment ratio is given as :
100% − FiO2 = air/oxygen entrainment ratio
Since FiO2 − 21% and the entrainment ratio is already known. Substituting the values in the equation: x = FiO2.100 − x = 9
x − 21
100 − x = 9(x − 21)
100 − x = 9x − 189
10x = 289
x = 289/10
x = 28.9% -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
Drug A has a 1 L/kg volume of distribution and a 0.1 elimination rate constant (k).
Drug B has a 2 L/kg volume of distribution and a 0.2 elimination rate constant (k).
Which of the following statements best describes the pharmacokinetics of drug A in a single compartment?Your Answer: Drug A has the same half life than drug B
Correct Answer: Drug A has a lower clearance than drug B
Explanation:The fall in plasma concentration of a drug with time decreases exponentially in a single compartment pharmacokinetic model (wash-out curve).
A straight line is produced when the logarithm (ln) of a drug’s plasma concentration is plotted against time because a constant proportion of the drug is removed from the plasma per unit time. The line’s gradient or slope can be expressed mathematically as k. (the rate constant). The gradient is related to the half life (T1/2) because it can be used to predict a drug’s plasma concentration at any time.
According to the following formula, clearance (CL), volume of distribution (Vd), and elimination rate constant (k) are mathematically related.
CL = Vd x k
For drug A, CL = 1 x 0.1 = 0.1units per minute
For drug B, Cl = 2 x 0.2 = 0.4 units per minute
Hence, it is proved that Drug A has a lower clearance than drug B.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A new proton pump inhibitor (PPI) is being evaluated in elderly patients who are taking aspiring. Study designed has 120 patients receiving the PPI, while a control group of 240 individuals is given the standard PPI. Over a span of 6 years, 24 of the group receiving the new PPI had an upper GI bleed compared to 60 individuals who received the standard PPI.
How would you calculate the absolute risk reduction?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 5%
Explanation:Absolute risk reduction = (Control event rate) – (Experimental event rate)
Experimental event rate = 24 / 120 = 0.2
Control event rate = 60 / 240 = 0.25
Absolute risk reduction = 0.25 – 0.2 = 0.05 = 5% reduction
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
A project is being planned to assess the effects of a new anticoagulant on the coagulation cascade. The intrinsic pathway is being studied and the best measurement to be recorded is which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: aPTT
Explanation:The intrinsic pathway is best assessed by the aPTT time.
D-dimer is a fibrin degradation product which is raised in the presence of blood clots.
A 50:50 mixing study is used to assess if a prolonged PT or aPTT is due to factor deficiency or a factor inhibitor.
The thrombin time is a test used to assess fibrin formation from fibrinogen in plasma. Factors that prolong the thrombin time include heparin, fibrin degradation products, and fibrinogen deficiency.
Intrinsic pathway – Best assessed by APTT. Factors 8,9,11,12 are involved. Prolonged aPTT can be seen in haemophilia and use of heparin.
Extrinsic pathway – Best assessed by Increased PT. Factor 7 involved.
Common pathway – Best assessed by APTT & PT. Factors 2,5,10 involved.
Vitamin K dependent factors are factors 2,7,9,10
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
You are shown the summary of a publication recommending use of their company's antiemetic to prevent postoperative nausea and vomiting by a pharmaceutical representative. You read the article, which is in a peer reviewed journal, and consider whether to change your current practice of using cyclizine intraoperatively.
Which type of publication will provide the best evidence on which to base changes to your practice?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A prospective randomised double blind controlled trial against cyclizine in multiple centres
Explanation:A prospective randomised double blind controlled trial against cyclizine in multiple centres is the most likely to change your practice.
Case controlled studies are efficient in identifying an association between a drug treatment and outcome and are usually conducted retrospectively. They are generally less valued than prospective randomised trials. They cannot generate incidence data, are subject to bias, have difficult selection of controls and can be made more difficult if note keeping is not reliable.
The gold standard in intervention-based studies is randomised controlled double blind trials. Its features are:
Treating all intervention groups identically
Reduction of bias by random allocation to intervention groups
Patients and researchers unaware of which treatment was given until at completion of study
Patients analysed within the group to which they were allocated, and
Analysis focused on estimating the size of the difference in predefined outcomes between intervention groups.New healthcare interventions should be evaluated through properly designed randomised controlled trials (though there are some potential ethical disadvantages)
Conducting trials in multiple centres is an accepted way of evaluating a new drug as it may be the only way of recruiting sufficient number of patients within a reasonable time frame to satisfy the objectives of the trial. Type II statistical errors will occur if a small numbers of patients is used in study group.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is true regarding Adrenaline or Epinephrine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stimulates ACTH secretion
Explanation:Adrenaline is released by the adrenal glands, acts on ? 1 and 2, ? 1 and 2 receptors, and is responsible for fight or flight response.
It acts on ? 2 receptors in skeletal muscle vessels-causing vasodilation.
It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to inhibit insulin secretion by the pancreas. It also stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle, stimulates glycolysis in muscle.
It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to stimulate glucagon secretion in the pancreas
It also stimulates Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone (ACTH) and stimulates lipolysis by adipose tissue -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
The thebesian veins contribute to the venous drainage of the heart. Into which of the following structures do they primarily drain?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atrium
Explanation:The heart has two venous drainage systems:
1. Greater venous system – it parallels the coronary arterial circulation and provides 70% venous drainage to the heart
2. Lesser venous system – includes the thebasian veins and provides up to 30% of the venous drainage to the heartThebasian veins (also called venae cordis minimae) are the smallest coronary veins and run in the myocardial layer of the heart. They serve to drain the myocardium and are present in all four heart chambers. They are more abundant on the right side of the heart and, more specifically, are most abundant in the right atrium. Thebesian veins drain the subendocardial myocardium either directly, via connecting intramural arteries and veins, or indirectly, via subendocardial sinusoidal spaces.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
Which of the following descriptions best describes enflurane and isoflurane?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Have the same molecular formula but different structural formulae
Explanation:Structural isomers have a similar molecular formula, but they have a different structural formula as their atoms are arranged in a different manner. Such small changes lead to the differential pharmacological activity. Enflurane and isoflurane are two prime examples of structural isomers.
Stereoisomers are those substances that have a similar molecular and structural formula, but the arrangement spatially of atoms are different and have optical activity.
Enantiomers are a pair of stereoisomers, which are non-superimposable mirror images of each other. They also have chiral centres of molecular symmetry. Ketamine is considered as an example of racemic mixture (contain 50% R and 50% S enantiomers)
Geometric isomers contain a carbon-carbon double bond (i.e. C=C) or a rigid carbon-carbon single bond in a heterocyclic ring. Cis-atracurium is one example.
Dynamic isomers or Tautomers are a pait of unstable structural isomers, which are present in equilibrium. One isomer can easily change after the change in pH. Midazolam and thiopentone are their examples.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 89-year old male has hypertension, with a blood pressure of 170/68 mmHg and has been admitted to the hospital. He is on no regular medications. His large pulse pressure can be accounted for by which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduced aortic compliance
Explanation:Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate
Left ventricular ejection fraction = (stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume ) x 100%
Stroke volume = end diastolic LV volume – end systolic LV volume
Pulse pressure = Systolic Pressure – Diastolic Pressure
Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output
Factors that increase pulse pressure include:
-a less compliant aorta (this tends to occur with advancing age)
-increased stroke volume -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
Desflurane has which of the following characteristics when compared with halothane?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Less biodegradation
Explanation:Approximately 20% of halothane and 0.02% desflurane undergo hepatic biotransformation. Desflurane, halothane, and isoflurane are metabolised in the liver by cytochrome p450 to trifluoroacetate. Through an immunological mechanism involving trifluoroacetyl hapten formation, trifluoroacetate is thought to be responsible for hepatotoxicity.
Potency of inhaled anaesthetic agents is measured using the minimal alveolar concentration (MAC). The MAC of halothane is 0.74% while that of desflurane is 6.3%. The potency can also be compared using the oil: gas partition coefficient (224 and 18.7 for halothane and desflurane respectively).
Onset of action of volatile agents depends on the blood:gas partition coefficient. A lower blood:gas partition coefficient and insolubility in blood means faster onset and offset of action. The blood gas coefficient for halothane is 2.4 while that of desflurane is 0.42. Desflurane is less soluble than halothane in blood. Halothane has a pungent smell that can irritate the airway which limits its use for a gaseous induction especially in paediatric anaesthesia. desflurane is not pungent.
Desfluranes boiling point is only slightly above normal room temperature (22.8°C) making it extremely volatile while the boiling point of halothane is approximately 50.2°C.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
You're summoned to the emergency room, where a 39-year-old man has been admitted following a cardiac arrest. He was rescued from a river, but little else is known about him.
CPR is being performed on the patient, who has been intubated. He's received three DC shocks and is still in VF. A rectal temperature of 29.5°C is taken with a low-reading thermometer.
Which of the following statements about his resuscitation is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No further DC shocks and no drugs should be given until his core temperature is greater than 30°C
Explanation:The guidelines for the management of cardiac arrest in hypothermic patients published by the UK Resuscitation Council differ slightly from the standard algorithm.
In a patient with a core temperature of less than 30°C, do the following:
If you’re on the shockable side of the algorithm (VF/VT), you should give three DC shocks.
Further shocks are not recommended until the patient has been rewarmed to a temperature of more than 30°C because the rhythm is refractory and unlikely to change.
There should be no drugs given because they will be ineffective.In a patient with a core temperature of 30°C to 35°C, do the following:
DC shocks are used as usual.
Because they are metabolised much more slowly, the time between drug doses should be doubled.Active rewarming and protection against hyperthermia should be given to the patient.
Option e is false because there is insufficient information to determine whether resuscitation should be stopped.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
Which statement is correct about the Mapleson anaesthetic breathing circuits?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mapleson A is most efficient for spontaneous ventilation
Explanation:Mapleson breathing system (or circuit) analysed five different arrangements of components of the breathing system:
Mapleson A – It is the most efficient for spontaneous respiration. The flow of fresh gas required is 70-85 ml/kg/min, i.e., approximately 5-6 lit./min fresh gas flow for an average adult.
Mapleson B and C – inefficient for both SV and PPV; requires gas flow of two to three times minute volume (100 ml/kg/min). Not commonly used but category C may be used for emergency resuscitation.
Mapleson D – efficient for PPV at gas flow equivalent to patient’s minute volume; the Bain’s circuit is a coaxial version of the Mapleson D
Mapleson E and F – for paediatric use; requires gas flow at two to three times the patient’s minute volume. The Mapleson F consists of an open-ended reservoir bag (Jackson-Rees modification). -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A 240 volt alternating current (AC) socket from a wall is used to charge a direct current (DC) cardiac defibrillator.
Name the electrical component that converts AC to DC.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rectifier
Explanation:There are two types of defibrillators
AC defibrillator
DC defibrillatorAC defibrillator,
consists of a step-up transformer with primary and secondary winding and two switches. Since secondary coil consists of more turns of wire than the primary coil, it induces larger voltage. A voltage value ranging between 250V to 750V is applied for AC external defibrillator. And used to enable the charging of a capacitor.DC defibrillator,
consists of auto transformer T1 that acts as primary of the high voltage transformer T2. Is an iron core that transfers energy between 2 circuits by electromagnetic induction. Transformers are used to isolate circuits, change impedance and alter voltage output. transformers do not convert AC to DC.Diode rectifier composed of 4 diodes made of semiconductor material allows current to flow only in one direction. Alternating current (AC) passing through these diodes produces direct current (DC). Capacitor stores the charge in the form of an electrostatic field.
Capacitor is used to convert the rectified AC voltage to produce DC voltage but capacitors do not directly convert AC to DC.
Inductor induces a counter electromotive force(emf) that reduces the capacitor discharge value.
In step-down transformer primary coils has more turns of wire than secondary coil, so induced voltage is smaller in the secondary coil.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
How many unpaired branches leave the abdominal aorta to supply the abdominal viscera?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Three
Explanation:The abdominal arteries are divided into 3 branches;
– 3 main unpaired trunks (celiac trunk, superior mesenteric, inferior mesenteric arteries)
– 6 paired branches
– unpaired median sacral artery.We can group the abdominal aorta as follows;
-Ventral which includes: Coeliac trunk, superior mesenteric and inferior mesenteric arteries
-Lateral: Inferior phrenic, middle suprarenal, renal and gonadal arteries
-Dorsal: Lumbar and median sacral arteries
-Terminal : Right and left common iliac arteriesThe celiac trunk (L1) takes blood the foregut and its found posterior to the stomach. The unpaired superior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the mid-gut.
The paired renal arteries form the inferior suprarenal arteries. The renal arteries arise around L1/L2 and takes blood to either side of the kidneys.
The median sacral artery supplies blood to the lumbar vertebrae the L4 and L5.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A patient is being prepped for major bowel surgery. Alice, a final-year medical student, observes the surgery but is asked to scrub in and assist the anaesthetist during intubation. The anaesthetist inserts the laryngoscope and asks Alex to locate the larynx.
What anatomical landmark corresponds to the position of the larynx?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: C3-C6
Explanation:The larynx is an air passage, sphincter, and organ of phonation that extends from the tongue to the trachea. It lies in the anterior part of the neck at the vertebral levels C3 to C6.
Important anatomical landmarks:
C1-C2 – Atlas and axis, respectivelyC3-C6 – Larynx
C5 – Thyroid cartilage
T5-T7 – Pulmonary hilum
T12-L1 – Duodenum
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
The child-Pugh scoring system can be used, if risk classifying a patient with chronic liver disorder earlier to anaesthesia.
Which one is the best combination of clinical signs and examinations used within the Child-Pugh scoring system?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ascites, grade of encephalopathy, albumin, bilirubin and INR
Explanation:In the Child-Pugh classification system, the following 5 components are determined or calculated in order:
Ascites
Grade of encephalopathy
Serum bilirubin (?mol/L)
Serum Albumin (g/L)
Prothrombin time or INR
Raised liver enzymes are not the component of the classification system.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
Regarding thyroid hormones, one of the following is true.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thyroid binding globulin (TBG) is increased in pregnancy
Explanation:T3 is produced by peripheral de-iodination of T4. It is more active than T4.
TBG, like most binding proteins, is increased in pregnancy. Because of this, measurement of free thyroid hormone concentration is more important than total.
T4 and T3 concentrations are decreased in Illness and starvation.
L-T4 that is the active molecule while D-T4 is inactive.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
Following a traumatic head injury, you are summoned to the emergency department to transfer a patient to the CT scanner. With a Glasgow coma score of 3, he has already been intubated and ventilated.
It is important to ensure that cerebral protection strategies are implemented during the transfer.
Which of the following methods is the most effective for reducing venous obstruction?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Position with a head-up tilt of 30°
Explanation:ICP is significant because it influences cerebral perfusion pressure and cerebral blood flow. The normal ICP ranges from 5 to 13 mmHg.
The components within the skull include the brain (80%/1400 ml), blood (10%/150 ml), and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) (10%/150 ml).
Because the skull is a rigid box, if one of the three components increases in volume, one or more of the remaining components must decrease in volume to compensate, or the ICP will rise (Monroe-Kellie hypothesis).
Primary brain injury occurs as a result of a head injury and is unavoidable unless precautions are taken to reduce the risk of head injury. A reduction in oxygen delivery due to hypoxemia (low arterial PaO2) or anaemia, a reduction in cerebral blood flow due to hypotension or reduced cardiac output, and factors that cause a raised ICP and reduced CPP are all causes of secondary brain injury. Secondary brain injury can be avoided with proper management.
The most important initial management task is to make certain that:
There is protection of the airway and the cervical spine
There is proper ventilation and oxygenation
Blood pressure and cerebral perfusion pressure are both adequate (CPP).Following the implementation of these management principles, additional strategies to reduce ICP and preserve cerebral perfusion are required. The volume of one or more of the contents of the skull can be reduced using techniques that can be used to reduce ICP.
Reduce the volume of brain tissue
Blood volume should be reduced.
CSF volume should be reduced.The following are some methods for reducing the volume of brain tissue:
Abscess removal or tumour resection
Steroids (especially dexamethasone) are used to treat oedema in the brain.
To reduce intracellular volume, use mannitol/furosemide or hypertonic saline.
To increase intracranial volume, a decompressive craniectomy is performed.The following are some methods for reducing blood volume:
Haematomas must be evacuated.
Barbiturate coma reduces cerebral metabolic rate and oxygen consumption, lowering cerebral blood volume as a result.
Hypoxemia, hypercarbia, hyperthermia, vasodilator drugs, and hypotension should all be avoided in the arterial system.
PEEP/airway obstruction/CVP lines in neck: patient positioning with 30° head up, avoid neck compression with ties/excessive rotation, avoid PEEP/airway obstruction/CVP lines in neckThe following are some methods for reducing CSF volume:
To reduce CSF volume, an external ventricular drain or a ventriculoperitoneal shunt is inserted (although more a long term measure).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 54-year-old man weighing 70kg, underwent mesh repair for inguinal hernia under general anaesthesia. He was given intravenous co-amoxiclav (Augmentin) following which the patient developed widespread urticarial ras, became hypotensive (61/30 mmHg), and showed clinical signs of bronchospasm. Anaphylaxis is suspected in this patient.
Which one of the following is considered as best initial pharmacological treatment for this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intravenous adrenaline 50 mcg
Explanation:The drug of choice for the treatment of anaphylaxis is adrenaline. It has an intravenous route of administration. Since the patient already has intravenous access, the intramuscular route is not appropriate.
Second-line pharmacological intervention includes the use of chlorpheniramine 10mg intravenous, Hydrocortisone 200mg.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 68-year old man, is admitted in hospital. He is scheduled to undergo a femoro-popliteal bypass graft, for which he has been administered a spinal-epidural anaesthetic. Intrathecal heavy bupivacaine (0.5%) was injected at L3-4 with good effect. On insertion of the epidural catheter, he remained asymptomatic.
During surgery, 5000 I.U. of IV heparin was given. The surgery is successful and required no epidural top-ups.
Six hours later, he complains of a severe back pain with weakness in his lower limbs.
What is the most important first step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A full neurological examination to establish the nature of the problem
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis is a spinal epidural haematoma, a neurological emergency. A full examination must be carried out to determine the nature of the neurological problem before conducting any investigations or imaging.
The effects of spinal anaesthesia should have worn off by this time point, and the severe back pain is a red flag.
The patient will also require an urgent neurological team referral as a spinal epidural haematoma requires immediate evacuation for spinal decompression. Analgesics may be prescribed for pain management.
Heparin would have been fully metabolised and so a reversal is unnecessary.
A spinal epidural haematoma is a pooling of blood in the epidural space, which can cause compression of the spinal cord. Its presenting symptoms are:
Usually begins with severe backpain and percussion tenderness
Cauda equina syndrome
Paralysis of the lower extremities.
If infected, a fever occurs in 66% of cases
Lower limb weakness developing after stopping an epidural infusion or weakness of the lower limbs which does not resolve within four hours of cessation of infusion of epidural local anaesthetic
Meningism. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
All of the following are responses to massive haemorrhage except which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Decreased cardiac output by increased direct parasympathetic stimulation
Explanation:With regards to compensatory response to blood loss, the following sequence of events take place:
1. Decrease in venous return, right atrial pressure and cardiac output
2. Baroreceptor reflexes (carotid sinus and aortic arch) are immediately activated
3. There is decreased afferent input to the cardiovascular centre in medulla. This inhibits parasympathetic reflexes and increases sympathetic response
4. This results in an increased cardiac output and increased SVR by direct sympathetic stimulation. There is increased circulating catecholamines and local tissue mediators (adenosine, potassium, NO2)
5. Fluid moves into the intravascular space as a result of decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure absorbing interstitial fluid.A slower response is mounted by the hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal axis.
6. Reduced renal blood flow is sensed by the intra renal baroreceptors and this stimulates release of renin by the juxta-glomerular apparatus.
7. There is cleavage of circulating Angiotensinogen to Angiotensin I, which is converted to Angiotensin II in the lungs (by Angiotensin Converting Enzyme ACE)Angiotensin II is a powerful vasoconstrictor that sets off other endocrine pathways.
8. The adrenal cortex releases Aldosterone
9. There is antidiuretic hormone release from posterior pituitary (also in response to hypovolaemia being sensed by atrial stretch receptors)
10. This leads to sodium and water retention in the distal convoluted renal tubule to conserve fluid
Fluid conservation is also aided by an increased amount of cortisol which is secreted in response to the increase in circulating catecholamines and sympathetic stimulation. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
All of the following statements are false regarding propranolol except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Has a plasma half life of 3-6 hours.
Explanation:Propranolol is a nonselective beta-blocker with a half-life of 3 to 6 hours.
Since it is lipid-soluble it crosses the blood-brain barrier and causes Central Nervous System side effects like sedation, nightmares, and depression.
They are contraindicated in asthma, Congestive heart failure, and diabetes.
It has a large volume of distribution with no intrinsic sympathomimetic action.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is not correct regarding Noradrenaline?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Predominantly work through effects on ?-adrenergic receptors
Explanation:Noradrenaline also called norepinephrine belongs to the catecholamine family that functions in the brain and body as both a hormone and neurotransmitter.
They have sympathomimetic effects acting via adrenoceptors (?1, ?2,?1, ?2, ?3) or dopamine receptors (D1, D2).
May cause reflex bradycardia, reduce cardiac output and increase myocardial oxygen consumption
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
Iron is one of the most important micronutrients in the body.
Out of the following, which one has the most abundant storage of iron in the body?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemoglobin
Explanation:Iron is a necessary micronutrient for proper erythropoietic function, oxidative metabolism, and cellular immune responses. Although dietary iron absorption (1-2 mg/d) is tightly controlled, it is only just balanced by losses.
The adult body contains 35-45 mg/kg iron (about 4-5 g)
Iron can be found in a variety of forms, including haemoglobin, ferritin, haemosiderin, myoglobin, haem enzymes, and transferrin bound proteins.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old man has a swelling in his left groin with moderate pain and discomfort complaints. Diagnosed with an inguinal hernia, he is scheduled for elective surgery to repair the defect.
Of the following, which nerve runs in the inguinal canal and is at risk of being damaged during surgery?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ilioinguinal nerve
Explanation:The inguinal canal is a passage in the lower anterior abdominal wall just above the inguinal ligament. It transmits the following structures:
1. genital branch of genitofemoral nerve
2. ilioinguinal nerve
3. spermatic cord (males only)
4. round ligament of the uterus (females only)The ilioinguinal is a direct branch of the first lumbar nerve. The ilioinguinal nerve enters the inguinal canal via the abdominal musculature (and not through the deep (internal) inguinal ring) and exits through the superficial (or external) inguinal ring.
The openings for the other nerves in the answer options are:
Sciatic nerve – exits the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen
Obturator nerve – descends into pelvis via the obturator foramen
Femoral nerve – descends from the abdomen through the pelvis behind the inguinal canalThe Iliohypogastric nerve also arises from the first lumbar root with the ilioinguinal nerve but pierces the transversus abdominis muscle posteriorly, just above the iliac crest, and continues anteriorly between the transversus abdominis and the internal abdominal oblique muscles.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
The renal glomerulus is able to filter 180 litres of blood per day, as determined by the starling forces present in the glomerulus. Ninety-nine percent of which is reabsorbed thereafter.
Water is reabsorbed in the highest proportion in which segment of the nephron?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Proximal convoluted tubule
Explanation:Sixty-seven percent of filtered water is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule. The driving force for water reabsorption is a transtubular osmotic gradient established by reabsorption of solutes (e.g., NaCl, Na+-glucose).
Henle’s loop reabsorbs approximately 25% of filtered NaCl and 15% of filtered water. The thin ascending limb reabsorbs NaCl by a passive mechanism, and is impermeable to water. Reabsorption of water, but not NaCl, in the descending thin limb increases the concentration of NaCl in the tubule fluid entering the ascending thin limb. As the NaCl-rich fluid moves toward the cortex, NaCl diffuses out of the tubule lumen across the ascending thin limb and into the medullary interstitial fluid, down a concentration gradient as directed from the tubule fluid to the interstitium. This mechanism is known as the counter current multiplier.
The distal tubule and collecting duct reabsorb approximately 8% of filtered NaCl, secrete variable amounts of K+ and H+, and reabsorb a variable amount of water (approximately 8%-17%).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
An 80-year old lady has a background history of a previous myocardial infarction which has left permanent damage to her heart's conduction system. The part of the conduction system with the highest velocities is damaged, and this has resulted in desynchronisation of the ventricles. The part of the heart that conducts the fastest is which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Purkinje fibres
Explanation:The electrical conduction system of the heart starts with the SA node which generates spontaneous action potentials.
This is conducted across both atria by cell to cell conduction, and occurs at around 1 m/s. The only pathway for the action potential to enter the ventricles is through the AV node in a normal heart.
At this site, conduction is very slow at 0.05ms, which allows for the atria to completely contract and fill the ventricles with blood before the ventricles depolarise and contract.The action potentials are conducted through the Bundle of His from the AV node which then splits into the left and right bundle branches. This conduction is very fast, (,2m/s), and brings the action potential to the Purkinje fibres.
Purkinje fibres are specialised conducting cells which allow for a faster conduction speed of the action potential (,2-4m/s). This allows for a strong synchronized contraction from the ventricle and thus efficient generation of pressure in systole.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 27-year old man loses 1000ml blood after being stabbed on his thigh.
The most impactful physiological response occurring at the start to combat the decline in the intravascular blood volume of this man is?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Venoconstriction
Explanation:In contrast to the arterial system, which contains 15% of the circulating blood volume, the body’s veins contain 70% of it.
In severe haemorrhage, when sympathetic stimulation causes venoconstriction, venous tone is important in maintaining the return of blood to the heart.
Because the liver receives about 30% of the resting cardiac output, it is a very vascular organ. The hepatic vascular system is dynamic, which means it can store and release blood in large amounts – it acts as a reservoir within the general circulation.
In a normal situation, the liver contains 10-15% of total blood volume, with the sinusoids accounting for roughly 60% of that. The liver dynamically adjusts its blood volume when blood is lost and can eject enough blood to compensate for a moderate amount of haemorrhage.
In the portal venous and hepatic arterial systems, sympathetic nerves constrict the presinusoidal resistance vessels. More importantly, sympathetic stimulation lowers the portal system’s capacitance, allowing blood to flow more efficiently to the heart.
Net transcapillary absorption of interstitial fluid from skeletal muscle into the intravascular space compensates for blood loss effectively during haemorrhage. The decrease in capillary hydrostatic pressure (Pc), caused by reflex adrenergic readjustment of the ratio of pre- to postcapillary resistance, is primarily responsible for fluid absorption. Within a few hours of blood loss, these fluid shifts become significant, further diluting haemoglobin and plasma proteins.
Albumin synthesis begins to increase after 48 hours.
The juxtamedullary complex releases renin in response to a drop in mean arterial pressure, which causes an increase in aldosterone level and, eventually, sodium and water resorption. Increased antidiuretic hormone (ADH) levels also contribute to water retention.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
Given the following values:
Expired tidal volume = 800 ml
Plateau pressure = 50 cmH2O
PEEP = 10 cmH2O
Compute for the static pulmonary compliance.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 20 ml/cmH2O
Explanation:Compliance of the respiratory system describes the expandability of the lungs and chest wall. There are two types of compliance: dynamic and static.
Dynamic compliance describes the compliance measured during breathing, which involves a combination of lung compliance and airway resistance. Defined as the change in lung volume per unit change in pressure in the presence of flow.
Static compliance describes pulmonary compliance when there is no airflow, like an inspiratory pause. Defined as the change in lung volume per unit change in pressure in the absence of flow.
For example, if a person was to fill the lung with pressure and then not move it, the pressure would eventually decrease; this is the static compliance measurement. Dynamic compliance is measured by dividing the tidal volume, the average volume of air in one breath cycle, by the difference between the pressure of the lungs at full inspiration and full expiration. Static compliance is always a higher value than dynamic
Static compliance can be computed using the formula:
Cstat = Tidal volume/Plateau pressure – PEEP
Substituting the values given,
Cstat = 800/50-10
Cstat = 20 ml/cmH2O -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
An 81-year old man was admitted to the Pulmonology Ward due to chronic obstructive airway disease (COPD) exacerbation. Upon physical examination, he was hypertensive at 140/90 mmHg, tachycardic at 114 beats per minute, and tachypnoeic at 33 breaths per minute.
Arterial blood gas analysis was obtained and showed the following results:
pH: 7.25 (Reference range: 7.35-7.45)
PaO2: 73 mmHg (9.7 kPa) (Reference range: 11.3-12.6 kPa)
PaCO2: 56 mmHg (7.5 kPa) (Reference range: 4.7-6.0 kPa)
SaO2: 90%
Standard bicarbonate: 29 mmol/L (Reference range: 20-28)
BE: +4 mmol/L (± 2)
Which of the following options has the most significant impact on his respiratory rate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CSF pH
Explanation:The arterial blood gas analysis indicates presence of acute respiratory acidosis.
Central chemoreceptors are located in the ventral medulla and respond directly to presence of hydrogen ions in the CSF. When stimulated, it causes an increase in respiratory rate.
It is believed that hydrogen ions may be the only important direct stimulus for these neurons, however, CO2 is believed to stimulate these neurons secondarily by changing the hydrogen ion concentration.
Changes in O2 concentration have virtually no direct effect on the respiratory centre itself to alter respiratory drive. Although, O2 changes do have an indirect effect by acting through the peripheral chemoreceptors.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 31
Incorrect
-
From the following statements, which is true of humidification?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ultrasonic humidifier can achieve greater than 100% relative humidity
Explanation:Increasing temperature increases the amount of water vapour contained in air; for example, at 20°C, air contains about 17 g/m3, and at 37°C, air contains about 44 g/m3. The wet and dry bulb hygrometer, like the hair hygrometer, measures relative humidity.
Under normal operating conditions, Heat and moisture exchangers (HMEs) allows relative humidity of up to 70% to be achieved. Mucus can impair their performance, and they should not be used for longer than 24 hours.
Hot water bath humidifiers might cause scalding, condensed water in the tubing can interfere with gas flow, and there is a danger of infection.
The ultrasonic humidifier operates at roughly 2 MHz and may attain relative humidity levels much above 100%.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
-
-
Question 32
Incorrect
-
A young male is undergoing inguinal hernia repair. During the procedure, the surgeons approach the inguinal canal and expose the superficial inguinal ring.
Which structure forms the lateral edge of the superficial inguinal ring?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: External oblique aponeurosis
Explanation:The superficial inguinal ring is an opening in the aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle, just above and lateral to the pubic crest.
The superficial ring resembles a triangle more than a ring with the base lying on the pubic crest and its apex pointing towards the anterior superior iliac spine. The sides of the triangle are crura of the opening in the external oblique aponeurosis. The lateral crura of the triangle is attached to the pubic tubercle. The medial crura of the triangle is attached to the pubic crest.
The external oblique aponeurosis forms the anterior wall of the inguinal canal and also the lateral edge of the superficial inguinal ring. The rectus abdominis lies posteromedially, and the transversalis posterior to this.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 33
Incorrect
-
A 49-year-old female has presented to her physician with complaints of a lump in her groin area. The lump is painless and is more prominent in coughing.
On examination, the lump's location is inferior and lateral to the pubic tubercle. This points towards the diagnosis of femoral hernia, where part of her intestines has entered the femoral canal, causing a bulge in the femoral triangle. The femoral triangle is an anatomical region in the upper thigh.
Name the structures found in the femoral triangle, laterally to medially.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Femoral nerve, femoral artery, femoral vein, empty space, lymphatics
Explanation:The femoral triangle is a wedge-shaped area found within the superomedial aspect of the anterior thigh. It is a passageway for structures to leave and enter the anterior thigh.
Superior: Inguinal ligament
Medial: Adductor longus
Lateral: Sartorius
Floor: Iliopsoas, adductor longus and pectineusThe contents include: (medial to lateral)
Femoral vein
Femoral artery-pulse palpated at the mid inguinal point
Femoral nerve
Deep and superficial inguinal lymph nodes
Lateral cutaneous nerve
Great saphenous vein
Femoral branch of the genitofemoral nerve -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 34
Incorrect
-
Which of these anaesthetics has the best chance of preventing HPV (hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Desflurane 2 MAC
Explanation:Resistance pulmonary arteries constrict in response to alveolar and airway hypoxia, diverting blood to better-oxygenated alveoli.
In atelectasis, pneumonia, asthma, and adult respiratory distress syndrome, hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction optimises O2 uptake. Hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction helps maintain systemic oxygenation during single-lung anaesthesia.
A redox-based O2 sensor within pulmonary artery smooth muscle cells is involved in hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction. The production of reactive oxygen species by smooth muscle cells in the pulmonary artery varies in proportion to PaO2. Hypoxic removal of these redox second messengers inhibits voltage-gated potassium channels, depolarizing smooth muscle cells in the pulmonary artery.
L-type calcium channels are activated by depolarization, which raises cytosolic calcium and causes hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction. Some anaesthetics suppress this response, increasing the risk of further deterioration in ventilation perfusion mismatch.
Agents that inhibit HPV are ether, halothane, and desflurane (>1.6 MAC).
Agents with no effect on HPV include thiopentone, fentanyl, desflurane (1MAC), isoflurane (<1.5MAC), sevoflurane(1MAC), and propofol. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 35
Incorrect
-
The average diastolic blood pressure of a control group was found out to be 80 with a standard deviation of 5 in a study aimed at exploring the efficiency of a novel anti-hypertensive drug. The trial was randomised.
Making an assumption that the data is normally distributed, find out the number of patients that had diastolic blood pressure over 90.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3%
Explanation:Since the data is normally distributed, 95% of the values lie with in the interval 70 to 90. This can be calculated as follows:
Interval= Mean ± ( 2 times standard deviation)
= 80 ± 2(5)
= 80 ± 10
= 70 & 90The rest of the 5% are distributed symmetrically beyond 90 and below 70 which means 2.5% of the values lie above 90.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 36
Incorrect
-
All of the following statements are true regarding calcium except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serum calcium accounts for 10% of total body calcium stores
Explanation:Calcium is a very important ion and is involved in:
-cell homeostasis
-coagulation
-muscle contraction
-neuronal impulse transmission/membrane stabilization
-bone formation and skeletal strength
-secretion processes99% is found in bone and 1% in the plasma. Of the 1% that is in the plasma
-45% is free ionized calcium
-45% is bound to proteins, mainly Albumin
-10% is present as an anion complexReduced levels of IONIZED calcium give rise to features of hypocalcaemia , resulting in increased excitability of membranes. This results when the total calcium concentration goes below 2 mmol/L.
Features of mild to moderate hypocalcaemia are:
-paraesthesia (peri-oral, fingers)
-tetany
-spasm
-muscle cramps
-ECG changes (prolonged QT)
-Trousseau’s sign (inflation of tourniquet induces carpopedal spasm)
-Chvostek’s sign (tapping the facial nerve – cranial nerve VII – causes facial muscle twitch/spasm)Features of severe hypocalcaemia are:
-cardiogenic shock and congestive cardiac failure due to reduced myocardial contractility
respiratory distress due to bronchospasm, agitation, confusion, seizuresFeatures of hypercalcaemia (remember ‘bones, stones, groans and psychic moans’):
-Abdominal pain
-Vomiting
-Constipation
-Polyuria
-Polydipsia
-Depression
-Lethargy
-Anorexia
-Weight loss
-Hypertension
-Confusion
-Pyrexia
-Calcification in the cornea
-Renal stones
-Renal failure
-Decreased Q-T interval
-Cardiac shock/collapse -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
-
-
Question 37
Incorrect
-
Glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) used for the acute treatment of angina is best administered via the sublingual route.
Why is this the best route of administration?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: High first pass metabolism
Explanation:Glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) has a significant first pass metabolism. About 90% of a dose of GTN is metabolised in the liver by the enzyme glutathione organic nitrate reductase.
An INSIGNIFICANT amount of metabolism occurs in the intestinal mucosa.
There is approximately 1% bioavailability after oral administration and 38% after sublingual administration.
GTN does NOT cause gastric irritation and it is well absorbed in the gastrointestinal tract.
The volume of distribution of GTN is 2.1 to 4.5 L/kg. This is HIGH.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 38
Incorrect
-
A young woman presented with a gynaecological related infection and was prescribed a cephalosporin. Which of the following is correct about the mechanism of action of this drug?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bacterial cell wall synthesis inhibition
Explanation:Cephalosporin belongs to a family of beta-lactam antibiotics. All ?-lactam antibiotics interfere with the synthesis of the bacterial cell walls. The ?-lactam antibiotics inhibit the transpeptidases so that cross-linking (which maintains the close-knit structure of the cell wall) does not take place i.e. they inhibit bacterial cell wall formation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 39
Incorrect
-
What feature is found in the flowmeters of modern anaesthetic machines ?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The use of stannic oxide increases the accuracy of flowmeters
Explanation:Flowmeters measure the rate at which a specific gas, that the flowmeter has been calibrated for, passes through. This calibration is done at room temperature and standard atmospheric pressure with an accuracy of +/- 2%.
Reading the flowmeter is done from the top of a bobbin (the midpoint of a ball). Oxygen is the last gas to be added downstream to the mixture delivered to the back bar as a safety feature. This prevents delivery of a hypoxic mixture.
Inaccurate flow measurements occur when the bobbin sticks to the inside wall of the flowmeter. Stannic oxide has been used as a successful antistatic substance thus, reducing the aforementioned risk.
Carbon dioxide being easily delivered is found on some older machines, but those attached flowmeters are limited by a maximum flow of 500 ml /min. Thus avoiding the delivery of a hypercarbic mixture.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
-
-
Question 40
Incorrect
-
Noradrenaline is used as an infusion to increase blood pressure in a 43-year-old woman with pneumonia admitted to ICU.
Which of the following statements is true regarding Noradrenaline?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Has a short half life about 2 minutes
Explanation:Noradrenaline has a short half-life of about 2 minutes. It is rapidly cleared from plasma by a combination of cellular reuptake and metabolism.
It acts as sympathomimetics by acting on ?1 receptors and also on ? receptors.
It decreases renal and hepatic blood flow.
Norepinephrine is metabolized by the enzymes monoamine oxidase and catechol-O-methyltransferase to 3-methoxy-4-hydroxymandelic acid and 3-methoxy-4-hydroxyphenylglycol (MHPG).
Natural catecholamines are Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, and Dopamine
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 41
Incorrect
-
A 26-year-old doctor has recently been diagnosed with lung cancer. He would like to find out his survival time for the condition.
Which statistical method is used to predict survival rate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Kaplan-Meier estimator
Explanation:The Weibull distribution are used to describe various types of observed failures of the components. it is used in reliability and survival analysis.
Regression Analysis is used to measure the relationship between among two or more variable. It determines the effect of independent variables on the dependent variables.
Student t-test is one of the most commonly used method to test the hypothesis. It determines the significant difference between the means of two different groups.
A time series is a collection of observations of well-defined data obtained at regular interval of time.
Kaplan-Meier estimator is used to estimate the survival function from lifetime data. It can be derived from maximum likelihood estimation of hazard function. It is most likely used to measure the fraction of patient’s life for a certain amount of time after treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 42
Incorrect
-
An emergency appendicectomy is being performed on a 20 year old man. For maintenance of anaesthesia, he is being ventilated using a circle system with a fresh gas flow (FGF) of 1 L/min (air/oxygen and sevoflurane). The trace on the capnograph shows a normal shape.
The table below demonstrates the changes in the end-tidal and baseline carbon dioxide measurements of the capnograph at 10 and 20 minutes of anaesthesia maintenance.
End-tidal CO2: 4.9 kPa vs 8.4kPa (10 minutes vs 20 minutes)
Baseline end-tidal CO2: 0.2 kPa vs 2.4kPa
Pulse 100-107 beats per minute, systolic blood pressure 125-133 mmHg and oxygen saturation 98-99%.
Which of the following is the single most important immediate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase the FGF
Explanation:End-tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2) monitoring has been an important factor in reducing anaesthesia-related mortality and morbidity. Hypercarbia, or hypercapnia, occurs when levels of CO2 in the blood become abnormally high (Paco2 >45 mm Hg). Hypercarbia is confirmed by arterial blood gas analysis. When using capnography to approximate Paco2, remember that the normal arterial–end-tidal carbon dioxide gradient is roughly 5 mm Hg. Hypercarbia, therefore, occurs when PETco2 is greater than 40 mm Hg.
The most likely explanation for the changes in capnograph is either exhaustion of the soda lime and a progressive rise in circuit dead space.
Inspect the soda lime canister for a change in colour of the granules. To overcome soda lime exhaustion, the first step is to increase the fresh gas flow (FGF) (Option A). Then, if need arises, replace the soda lime granules. Other strategies that can work are changing to another circuit or bypassing the soda lime canister, but remember that both these strategies are employed only after increasing FGF first. Exclude other causes of equipment deadspace too.
There are also other causes for hypercarbia to develop intraoperatively:
1. Hypoventilation is the most common cause of hypercapnia. A. Inadequate ventilation can occur with spontaneous breathing due to drugs like anaesthetic agents, opioids, residual NMDs, chronic respiratory or neuromuscular disease, cerebrovascular accident.
B. In controlled ventilation, hypercapnia due to circuit leaks, disconnection or miscalculation of patient’s minute volume.
2. Rebreathing – Soda lime exhaustion with circle, inadequate fresh gas flow into Mapleson circuits and increased breathing system deadspace.
3. Endogenous source – Tourniquet release, hypermetabolic states (MH or thyroid storm) and release of vascular clamps.
4. Exogenous source – Absorption of CO2 from pneumoperitoneum. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
-
-
Question 43
Incorrect
-
Useful diagnostic information can be obtained from measuring the osmolality of biological fluids.
Of the following physical principles, which is the most accurate and reliable method of measuring osmolality?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Depression of freezing point
Explanation:Colligative properties are properties of solutions that depend on the number of dissolved particles in solution. They do not depend on the identities of the solutes.
All of the above have colligative properties with the exception of depression of melting point.
The osmolality from the concentration of a substance in a solution is measured by an osmometer. The freezing point of a solution can determines concentration of a solution and this can be measured by using a freezing point osmometer. This is applicable as depression of freezing point is directly correlated to concentration.
Vapour pressure osmometers, which measure vapour pressure, may miss certain volatiles such as CO2, ammonia and alcohol that are in the solution
The use of a freezing point osmometer provides the most accurate and reliable results for the majority of applications.
Colligative properties does not include melting point depression . Mixtures of substances in which the liquid phase components are insoluble, display a melting point depression and a melting range or interval instead of a fixed melting point.
The magnitude of the melting point depression depends on the mixture composition.
The melting point depression is used to determine the purity and identity of compounds. EMLA (eutectic mixture of local anaesthetics) cream is a mixture of lidocaine and prilocaine and is used as a topical local anaesthetic. The melting point of the combined drugs is lower than that individually and is below room temperature (18°C).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 44
Incorrect
-
Which among the following is not true regarding disease rates?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The odds ratio is synonymous with the risk ratio
Explanation:The relative risk (also known as risk ratio [RR]) is the ratio of risk of an event in one group (e.g., exposed group) versus the risk of the event in the other group (e.g., nonexposed group).
The odds ratio (OR) is the ratio of odds of an event in one group versus the odds of the event in the other group.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 45
Incorrect
-
Regarding the classification of breathing systems, which of the following is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The Conway classification describes a functional classification based on whether a CO2 absorber is required
Explanation:Breathing system is an assembly of components which connects patient’s airway to anaesthesia machine through which controlled composition of gas mixture is dispensed. It delivers gas to the patient, removes expired gas and controls the temperature and humidity of the inspired mixture. It allows spontaneous, controlled, or assisted respiration. It may also provide ports for gas sampling, airway pressure, flow and volume monitoring.
Breathing systems have been classified by Conway and Mapleson.
Conway suggested a functional classification:
– Circuits requiring a CO2 absorber
– Circuits not requiring a CO2 absorberWilliam Mapleson designated varying arrangements of breathing system components (masks, breathing tubes, fresh gas flow inlets, adjustable pressure-limiting valves, and reservoir bags) as Mapleson A-E circuits.
Mapleson A: Arranged as FGF inlet, reservoir bag, APL valve, mask.
In this circuit, because the reservoir bag is between the FGF inlet valve and the APL valve, expired gas from the patient may re-enter the system and fill the reservoir bag during controlled ventilation. This is the most efficient system for spontaneous breathing as the FGF must only be equal to a patient’s minute ventilation to prevent rebreathing.Mapleson B: Arranged as reservoir bag, FGF inlet, APL valve, mask.
In this circuit, the FGF inlet is closer to the APL valve, which helps prevent the rebreathing concern in the Mapleson A circuit as above during controlled ventilation.Mapleson C: Arranged as reservoir bag, FGF inlet, APL valve, mask.
In this circuit, the arrangement is the same as the Mapleson B circuit. However, this circuit is shorter as it does not contain elongated corrugated tubing. This circuit also has the FGF inlet close to the APL valve to aid in preventing rebreathing.Mapleson D: Arranged as reservoir bag, APL valve, FGF inlet, and mask.
In this circuit, the arrangement interchanges the FGF inlet and APL valve of the Mapleson A circuit. This system prevents rebreathing by directing FGF towards the APL valve rather than towards the patient during exhalation.Mapleson E: Arranged as corrugated tubing, FGF inlet, and mask.
In this circuit, there is no reservoir bag and no APL valve. Given the inability to alter the pressure of the circuit, this is ideal for spontaneously ventilating neonates or paediatric patients where low-pressure ventilation is desired. The system prevents rebreathing, similar to the Mapleson D circuit.Jackson Rees later modified the Mapleson E by adding an open ended bag, which has since become known as the Mapleson F.
Mapleson F: Arranged as APL valve directly connected to reservoir bag, corrugated tubing, FGF inlet, and mask.
The system prevents rebreathing similarly to Mapleson D by directing FGF towards the APL valve. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
-
-
Question 46
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is not correct regarding dopamine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Crosses the blood brain barrier
Explanation:Dopamine (DA) is a dopaminergic (D1 and D2) as well as adrenergic ? and?1 (but not ?2 ) agonist.
The D1 receptors in renal and mesenteric blood vessels are the most sensitive: i.v. infusion of a low dose of DA dilates these vessels (by raising intracellular cAMP). This increases g.f.r. In addition, DA exerts a natriuretic effect by D1 receptors on proximal tubular cells.
Moderately high doses produce a positive inotropic (direct?1 and D1 action + that due to NA release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.
Vasoconstriction (?1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.
At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular ? and ? receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier—no CNS effects.
Dopamine is used in patients with cardiogenic or septic shock and severe CHF wherein it increases BP and urine outflow.
It is administered by i.v. infusion (0.2–1 mg/min) which is regulated by monitoring BP and rate of urine formation
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 47
Incorrect
-
An 82-year old male has shortness of breath which is made worse when he lies down but investigations have revealed a normal ejection fraction. Why might this be?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He has diastolic dysfunction
Explanation:Decreased stroke volume causes decreased ejection fraction which results in diastolic dysfunction.
Ejection fraction is not a useful measure in someone with diastolic dysfunction because stroke volume may be reduced whilst end-diastolic volume may be reduced.
Diastolic dysfunction may arise with reduced heart compliance.Ejection fraction measures of the proportion of blood leaving the ventricles with each beat and is calculated as follows:
Stroke volume / end-diastolic volume.A healthy ejection fraction is usually taken as 60% (based on a stroke volume of 70ml and end-diastolic volume of 120ml).
Respiratory inspiration causes a decreased pressure in the thoracic cavity, which in turn causes more blood to flow into the atrium.
Sitting up decreases venous because of the action of gravity on blood in the venous system.
Hypotension also decreases venous return.
A less compliant aorta, like in aortic stenosis increases end systolic left ventricular volume which decreases stroke volume.Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output.
Increased vascular resistance impedes the flow of blood back to the heart.Increased venous return increases end diastolic LV volume as there is more blood returning to the ventricles.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
-
-
Question 48
Incorrect
-
A new volatile anaesthetic agent has been approved for use in clinical testing.
It's a non-irritating, sweet-smelling substance. It has a molecular weight of 170, a 0.6 blood:gas partition coefficient, and a 180 oil:gas partition coefficient. An oxidative pathway converts 2% of the substance to trifluoroacetic acid.
Which of the following statements best describes this agent's pharmacological profile?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It has a lower molecular weight than isoflurane
Explanation:Because enflurane is much less soluble in blood and has a blood: gas partition coefficient of 1.8, both wash-in and wash-out should be faster.
Sevoflurane’s sweet-smelling, non-irritant nature, combined with a low blood: gas partition coefficient, would result in similar offset and onset characteristics.
Isoflurane and enflurane have a molecular weight of 184.
The oil: gas partition coefficient on a volatile agent is a measure of lipid solubility, potency, and thus MAC. Halothane has an oil: gas partition coefficient of 220 and a MAC of 0.74. One would expect the MAC to be higher with an oil gas partition coefficient of 180 (less lipid soluble).
The conversion of halothane (20%) to trifluoroacetic acid via oxidative metabolism has been linked to the development of hepatitis.
P450 2E1 converts sevoflurane to hexafluoroisopropanol, which results in the release of inorganic fluoride ions. It’s the only fluorinated volatile anaesthetic that doesn’t break down into trifluoracetic acid.
Desflurane is likely to cause airway irritation, which can lead to coughing, apnoea, and laryngospasm, despite its low blood:gas partition coefficient (0.42).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 49
Incorrect
-
Following a physical assault, a 28-year-old man is admitted to the emergency room. A golf club has struck him in the head.
There is a large haematoma on the scalp, as well as a bleeding wound. In response to painful stimuli, he opens his eyes and makes deliberate movements. Because of inappropriate responses, a history is impossible to construct, but words can be discerned.
Which of the options below best describes his current Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: E2V3M5=10
Explanation:The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) has been used in outcome models as a measure of physiological derangement and as a tool for assessing head trauma.
Eye opening (E):
4 Spontaneously
3 Responds to voice
2 Responds to painful stimulus
1 No response.Best verbal response (V):
5 Orientated, converses normally
4 Confused, disoriented conversation, but able to answer basic questions
3 Inappropriate responses, words discernible
2 Incomprehensible speech
1 Makes no sounds.Best motor response (M):
6 Obeys commands for movement
5 Purposeful movement to painful stimulus
4 Withdraws from pain
3 Abnormal (spastic) flexor response to painful stimuli, decorticate posture
2 Extensor response to painful stimuli, decerebrate posture
1 No response.In this case, GCS = 2+3+5 = 10.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 50
Incorrect
-
With regards to arterial oxygen content, which of the following contributes most from a quantitative perspective?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemoglobin concentration
Explanation:The amount of oxygen carried by 100 ml of blood is called the arterial oxygen content (CaO2)and is normally 17-24 ml/dL and can be determined by this equation:
CaO2 = oxygen bound to haemoglobin + oxygen dissolved in plasma
CaO2 = (1.34 × Hgb × SaO2 × 0.01) + (0.003 × PaO2)
where:
1.34 = Huffner’s constant (D) – Huffner’s constant does not change and its magnitude relatively small.
Hgb is the haemoglobin level in g/dL and SaO2 is the percent oxyhaemoglobin saturation of arterial blood
PaO2 is (0.0225 = ml of O2 dissolved per 100 ml plasma per kPa, or 0.003 ml per mmHg).Quantitatively, the amount of oxygen dissolved in plasma is 0.3 mL/dL.
Henry’s law states that at constant temperature, the amount of gas dissolved at equilibrium in a given quantity of a liquid is proportional to the pressure of the gas in contact with the liquid.
Given a haemoglobin concentration of 15 g/dL and a SaO2 of 100% and a PaO2 of 13.3 kPa, the amount of oxygen bound to haemoglobin is 20.4 mL/100mL.
Cardiac output is an important determinant of oxygen delivery but does not influence the oxygen content of blood.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
-
-
Question 51
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old female presents to the emergency department with symptoms consistent with mesenteric ischemia. She is quickly shifted to the operation theatre for an emergency laparotomy.
On exploration, the segment of the colon from the splenic flexure down to the rectum is ischemic.
The artery blocked in this scenario arises at what vertebral level from the aorta?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: L3
Explanation:The hindgut is from the distal third of the transverse colon down to the upper one-third of the anal canal. The inferior mesenteric artery supplies the hindgut.
The inferior mesenteric artery arises from the aorta behind the inferior border of the third part of the duodenum 3–4 cm above the aortic bifurcation, at the third lumbar vertebra level.
The important landmarks of vessels arising from the abdominal aorta at different levels of vertebrae are:
T12 – Coeliac trunk
L1 – Left renal artery
L2 – Testicular or ovarian arteries
L3 – Inferior mesenteric artery
L4 – Bifurcation of the abdominal aorta
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 52
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is true regarding oxygen?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Forms molecules containing either two or three atoms
Explanation:Oxygen is formed by a molecule of oxygen and two molecules of hydrogen with a molecular formula of H2O
The critical temperature is defined as a temperature above which the substance cannot be liquefied, no matter how much pressure is applied.
Water has a critical temperature of -118.6oC. So, it cannot be liquified at room temperature.Medical oxygen cylinder is stored in a cylinder with a white shoulder and black body. Meanwhile, medial air is stored in cylinders with a white and black shoulder and a French grey body.
The partial pressure of air at a high altitude is less but the relative concentration remains constant.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
-
-
Question 53
Incorrect
-
All of the following statements are true about blood clotting except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Administration of aprotinin during liver transplantation surgery prolongs survival
Explanation:Even though aprotinin reduces fibrinolysis and therefore bleeding, there is an associated increased risk of death. It was withdrawn in 2007.
Protein C is dependent upon vitamin K and this may paradoxically increase the risk of thrombosis during the early phases of warfarin treatment.The coagulation cascade include two pathways which lead to fibrin formation:
1. Intrinsic pathway – these components are already present in the blood
Minor role in clotting
Subendothelial damage e.g. collagen
Formation of the primary complex on collagen by high-molecular-weight kininogen (HMWK), prekallikrein, and Factor 12
Prekallikrein is converted to kallikrein and Factor 12 becomes activated
Factor 12 activates Factor 11
Factor 11 activates Factor 9, which with its co-factor Factor 8a form the tenase complex which activates Factor 102. Extrinsic pathway – needs tissue factor that is released by damaged tissue)
In tissue damage:
Factor 7 binds to Tissue factor – this complex activates Factor 9
Activated Factor 9 works with Factor 8 to activate Factor 103. Common pathway
Activated Factor 10 causes the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin and this hydrolyses fibrinogen peptide bonds to form fibrin. It also activates factor 8 to form links between fibrin molecules.4. Fibrinolysis
Plasminogen is converted to plasmin to facilitate clot resorption -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
-
-
Question 54
Incorrect
-
All of the following options describes a thermistor for the measurement of temperature except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Resistance of the bead increases exponentially as the temperature increases
Explanation:There are different types of temperature measurement. These include:
Thermistor – this is a type of semiconductor, meaning they have greater resistance than conducting materials, but lower resistance than insulating materials. There are small beads of semiconductor material (e.g. metal oxide) which are incorporated into a Wheatstone bridge circuit. As the temperature increases, the resistance of the bead decreases exponentially
Thermocouple – Two different metals make up a thermocouple. Generally, in the form of two wires twisted, welded, or crimped together. Temperature is sensed by measuring the voltage. A potential difference is created that is proportional to the temperature at the junction (Seebeck effect)
Platinum resistance thermometers (PTR) – uses platinum for determining the temperature. The principle used is that the resistance of platinum changes with the change of temperature. The thermometer measures the temperature over the range of 200°C to1200°C. Resistance in metals show a linear increase with temperature
Tympanic thermometers – uses infrared radiation which is emitted by all living beings. It analyses the intensity and wavelength and then transduces the heat energy into a measurable electrical output
Gauge/dial thermometers – Uses coils of different metals with different co-efficient of expansion. These either tighten or relax with changes in temperature, moving a lever on a calibrated dial.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
-
-
Question 55
Incorrect
-
A study involving 64 patients of diabetes mellitus type 2 was performed. Weight of each patient was recorded and the mean weight of the patients was found to be 81 kg. The data set had a standard deviation of 12 kg.
The value of standard error associated with the mean is:Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1.5
Explanation:Standard error can be calculated by the following formula:
Standard Error= (Standard Deviation)/√(Sample Size)
= (12) / √(64)
= 12 / 8
= 1.5 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 56
Incorrect
-
Suppose a diabetic patient is to undergo an elective surgery under general anaesthesia, which of the following will most effectively prevent a hyperglycaemic stress response during the surgical procedure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spinal block to T4
Explanation:Every surgical procedure is associated with a stress response which comprises a number of endocrine, metabolic, and immunological changes triggered by neuronal activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis. The overall metabolic effect of the stress response to surgery includes an increase in secretion of catabolic hormones, such as cortisol and catecholamine, and a decrease in secretion of anabolic hormones, such as insulin and testosterone. The increase in levels of catabolic hormones in plasma stimulates glucose production, and there is a relative lack of insulin together with impaired tissue insulin sensitivity and glucose utilization, which is called insulin resistance. Consequently, blood glucose concentrations will increase, even in the absence of pre-existing diabetes.
A study compared the effects of spinal and general anaesthesia on changes in blood glucose concentrations during surgery in nondiabetic patients. Although mean blood glucose concentrations showed a significant proportional increase during surgery in both groups, this effect was much more significant with general anaesthesia than with spinal anaesthesia. These results indicate that spinal anaesthesia is more effective than general anaesthesia in attenuating the hyperglycaemic response to surgery.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 57
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following causes vasoconstriction?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Angiotensin II
Explanation:Prostacyclin is a strong vasodilator. It is administered as an intravenous infusion for critical ischemia. Commercially, it is available as sodium epoprodtenol.
Atrial Natriuretic peptide (ANP) hormone secreted from the atria, kidney, and neural tissues. It primarily acts on renal vessel to maintain normal blood pressure and reduce plasma volume by: increasing the renal excretion of salt and water, glomerular filtration rate, vasodilation, and by increasing the vascular permeability. It also inhibits the release of renin and aldosterone.
Indoramin is an alpha-adrenoceptor blocking agent. which act selectively on post-synaptic-alpha adrenoreceptor, leading to decease in peripheral resistance.
Angiotensin II is a vasoconstrictor, causing high sodium retention. It also increases the secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and aldosterone level.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 58
Incorrect
-
Over the course of 10 minutes, a normally fit and well 22-year-old male receives a 1 litre intravenous bolus of 20% albumin.
Which of the following primary physiological responses in this patient has the highest chance to influence a change in urine output?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stimulation of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) secretion
Explanation:The renal effects of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) secretion are as follows:
Increased glomerular filtration rate by dilating the afferent glomerular arteriole. Moreover, it constricts the efferent glomerular arteriole, and relaxes the mesangial cells.
Reduces sodium reabsorption in the collecting ducts and distal convoluted tubule.
The renin-angiotensin system (RAS) is inhibited.
Blood flow in the vasa recta is increased.Because plasma osmolality is unlikely to change, hypothalamic osmoreceptors are unaffected.
The plasma protein has a molecular weight of 66 kDa, is not normally filtered into the proximal convoluted tubule, and has no osmotic diuretic effect.
The following are some basic assumptions:
Extracellular fluid (ECF) makes up one-third of total body water (TBW), while intracellular fluid makes up the other two-thirds (ICF)
One-quarter plasma and three-quarters interstitial fluid make up ECF (ISF)
The volume receptors in the atria have a 7-10% blood volume change threshold.
The osmoreceptors are sensitive to changes in osmolality of 1-2 percent.
The normal plasma osmolality before the transfusion is 287-290 mOsm/kg.
The plasma protein solution is a colloid that is only delivered to the intravascular compartment. The tonicity remains unchanged.
The blood volume increases by 20%, from 5,000 mls to 6,000 mls. This is higher than the volume receptor threshold of 7 to 10%. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 59
Incorrect
-
A 72-year-old long-term rheumatoid arthritis patient is having shoulder replacement surgery.
He has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease with a limited exercise tolerance. He agrees to the procedure being performed with an interscalene brachial plexus block.
Which of the following neurological complications puts this patient at the greatest risk?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phrenic nerve block
Explanation:An ipsilateral phrenic nerve block will result from a successful interscalene block (ISB).
The phrenic nerve is the diaphragm’s sole motor supply, and ipsilateral hemidiaphragmatic paresis affects up to 100% of patients who receive ISBs. Phrenic nerve palsy is usually well tolerated and goes unnoticed by healthy people. However, forced vital capacity decreases by approximately 25%, which can produce ventilatory compromise in patients with limited pulmonary reserve, requiring assisted ventilation.
Vocal cord palsy occurs when the recurrent laryngeal nerve is inadvertently blocked, causing hoarseness and possibly acute respiratory insufficiency. Unless bilateral laryngeal nerve palsy occurs, which can cause severe laryngeal obstruction, this complication is usually of little consequence.
ISB can also cause cranial nerve X and XII palsy (Tapia’s syndrome). One-sided cord paralysis, aphonia, and the patient’s tongue deviating toward the block’s side are all symptoms.
When a local anaesthetic spreads to the stellate ganglion and its cervical sympathetic nerves, Horner’s syndrome can develop. Ptosis of the eyelid, miosis, and anhidrosis of the face are all symptoms. Horner’s syndrome, on the other hand, may not indicate that the brachial plexus is sufficiently blocked.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 60
Incorrect
-
Which of the following describes the mechanism of action of erythromycin?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibit 50S subunit of ribosomes
Explanation:Erythromycin binds to the 50s subunit of bacterial rRNA complex and inhibits protein synthesis.
Gentamicin is a broad-spectrum antibiotic whose mechanism of action involves inhibition of protein synthesis by binding to 30s ribosomes. Its major adverse effect is nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity
Aminoglycoside bind to 30s subunit of ribosome causing misreading of mRNA
Tetracyclines inhibit protein synthesis through reversible binding to bacterial 30s ribosomal subunits, which prevent binding of new incoming amino acids (aminoacyl-tRNA) and thus interfere with peptide growth.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 61
Incorrect
-
Which structure has the greatest amount of musculi pectinati?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right atrium
Explanation:The pectinate muscles (musculi pectinati) are parallel muscular ridges that extend anterolaterally on the right atrial walls. The most prominent pectinate muscle, which forms the bridge of the sulcus terminalis internally, is the taenia sagittalis (second crest or septum spurium).
In the left atrium, the pectinate muscles are confined to the inner surface of its atrial appendage. They tend to be fewer and smaller than in the right atrium. This is due to the embryological origin of the auricles, which are the true atria.
Pectinate muscles of the atria are different from the trabeculae carneae, which are found on the inner walls of both ventricles.
The interior of the right atrium has five distinct features:
1. Sinus venarum – smooth, thin-walled posterior part of the right atrium where the SVC, IVC, and coronary sinus open
2. Musculi pectinati – a rough anterior wall of pectinate muscles
3. Tricuspid valve orifice – the opening through which the right atrium empties blood into the right ventricle
4. Crista terminalis – separates the rough (musculi pectinati) from the smooth (sinus venarum) internally
5. Fossa ovalis – a thumbprint size depression in the interatrial septum, which is a remnant of the oval foramen and its valve in the foetus -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 62
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old female suffered a TIA 2 weeks ago. She has been admitted to the vascular ward as she will be undergoing carotid endarterectomy tomorrow morning. To explain the procedure and its complications, the surgeon gives her information about the procedure, telling her the artery will be tied during the operation.
She inquires about the areas supplied by the different arteries. You explain that the internal carotid artery supplies the brain while the external carotid artery ascends the neck and bifurcates into two arteries. One of these arteries is the superficial temporal artery. Which of the following is the second branch?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Maxillary artery
Explanation:Carotid endarterectomy is the procedure to relieve an obstruction in the carotid artery by opening the artery at its origin and stripping off the atherosclerotic plaque with the intima. This procedure is performed to prevent further episodes, especially in patients who have suffered ischemic strokes or transient ischemic attacks.
The external carotid artery terminates by dividing into the superficial temporal and maxillary branches. The maxillary artery is the larger of the two terminal branches and arises posterior to the neck of the mandible.
The other arteries mentioned in the answer options branch off from the following:
Temporal arteries from the maxillary artery
Middle meningeal artery from the maxillary artery
Lingual artery from the anterior aspect of the external carotid artery
Facial artery from the anterior aspect of the external carotid artery -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 63
Incorrect
-
If the speed of an ultrasound in soft tissue is 1540 meters per second, what is the estimated wavelength produced if the frequency of a generated ultrasound is 10 megahertz?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 0.15 millimetre
Explanation:Wavelength can be computed as follows:
Wavelength = velocity/frequency
In the given problem, the values stated are:
Frequency = 10 x 10^6
Velocity = 1540 meters per secondWavelength = 1540/(10×10^6)
Wavelength = 1540/10,000,000 meters
Wavelength = 0.15 millimetres -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
-
-
Question 64
Incorrect
-
Using a negative feedback loop, Haem production is controlled by which of these enzymes?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ALA synthetase
Explanation:Heme a exists in cytochrome a and heme c in cytochrome c; they are both involved in the process of oxidative phosphorylation. 5′-Aminolevulinic acid synthase (ALA-S) is the regulated enzyme for heme synthesis in the liver and erythroid cells.
There are two forms of ALA Synthase, ALAS1, and ALAS2.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 65
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following factor affects the minimal alveolar concentration (MAC)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypoxaemia
Explanation:The minimal alveolar concentration (MAC) is the concentration of an inhalation anaesthetic agent in the lung alveoli required to stop a response to the surgical stimulus in 50% of the patient.
Following factors don’t affect the MAC of the inhaled anaesthetic agents:
Gender, acidosis, alkalosis, hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, body weight, serum potassium level, and the duration of the anaesthesia.
MAC increase in children, elevated temperature, high metabolic rate, sympathetic increase and chronic alcoholism.
MAC decrease in low temperature, low oxygen level, old age, hypotension (<40 mmHg), depressant drugs e.g. opioids and low level of catecholamines; alpha methyl dopa. Carbon dioxide O2 at the pressure > 120mmHg is being used in anesthetic-Hinkman as an additive effect to decrease MAC, however, increase concentration of CO2 activates the sympathetic system resulting the MAC increases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 66
Incorrect
-
Pressure volume loop represents the compliance of left ventricle.
Considering there is no change in preload and myocardial contractility, which physiological change may result an increase in left ventricular afterload?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased end-systolic volume
Explanation:If there is no change in preload and myocardial contractility, there will be decrease in end-diastolic volume and stroke volume. So there must be increase in end-systolic volume.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 67
Incorrect
-
Regarding oxygen consumption, which of these organs has the highest consumption at rest?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Kidney
Explanation:Oxygen delivery is related to blood flow as most of the oxygen binds to haemoglobin in red blood cells, although a small amount is dissolved in the plasma. Blood flow per 100 g of tissue is greatest in the kidneys.
The following is the oxygen consumption rate of different organs in ml/minute/100g
Hepatoportal = 2.2
Kidney = 6.8
Brain = 3.7
Skin = 0.38
Skeletal muscle = 0.18
Heart = 11 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 68
Incorrect
-
A drug with a 2-hour half-life and a first-order kinetics of elimination is administered intravenously. The initial plasma concentration is calculated to be 12 mcg/mL and plasma concentrations is measured hourly.
At 6 hours, how much drug will be left?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1.5 mcg/mL
Explanation:In first order kinetics the rate of elimination is proportional to plasma concentration.
Rate of elimination is described by the following equation:
C = C0. e^-kt
Where:
C=drug concentration,
C0= drug concentration at time zero (extrapolated),
k = rate constant and
t = time.The initial concentration of this drug is 12 mcg/ml therefore:
The plasma concentration will have halved to 6 mcg/ml at 2 hours.
The plasma concentration will have halved to 3 mcg/ml at 4 hours and
The plasma concentration will have halved to 1.5 mcg/ml t 6 hours. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 69
Incorrect
-
A 43-year old woman, presented to the emergency department. She has suffered trauma to her right orbital floor.
On examination, it is noted that her right eye is deviated upwards when compared to her left. She also has a deliberate tilt in her head to the left in an attempt to compensate for loss of intorsion.
This clinical sign is caused by damage to which of the following cranial nerves?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trochlear nerve
Explanation:The trochlear nerve (CN IV) is the fourth and smallest cranial nerve. It’s role is to provide somatic motor innervation of the superior oblique muscle which is responsible for oculomotion.
Injury to the trochlear nerve will result in vertical diplopia, which worsens when looking downwards or inwards. This diplopia presents as an upward deviation of the eye with a head tilt away from the site of the lesion.
The abducens nerve (CN VI) provides somatic motor innervation for the lateral rectus muscle which functions to abduct the eye. Injury to this nerve will cause diplopia and an inability to abduct the eye, causing the patient to have to rotate their head to look sideways.
The facial nerve (CN VII) provides sensory, motor and parasympathetic innervations. It’s motor aspect controls the muscles of facial expression. Damage will cause paralysis of facial expression.
The oculomotor nerve (CN III) provides motor and parasympathetic innervations. Its motor component controls most of the other extraocular muscles. Damage to it will result in ptosis, dilatation of the pupil and a down and out eye position.
The ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve (CN VI) is responsible for sensory innervation of skin, mucous membranes and sinuses of the upper face and scalp.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 70
Incorrect
-
Venepuncture is being performed on the basilic vein in the cubital fossa. At which of the following points does the basilic vein pass deep under the muscle?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Midway up the humerus
Explanation:The basilic vein is one of the primary veins that drain the upper limb, like the cephalic vein. It begins as the dorsal venous arch. The basilic vein originates from the ulnar side of the dorsal arch of the upper limb passes along the posteromedial aspect of the forearm, moving towards the anterior surface of the elbow.
The basilic vein pierces the deep fascia at the elbow and joins the venae commitantes of the brachial vein to form the axillary vein.
The basilic vein passes deep under the muscles as it moves midway up the humerus. At the lower border of the teres major muscle, the anterior and posterior circumflex humeral veins feed into it.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 71
Incorrect
-
A 57-year old woman, presents to her general practitioner. She has a 2 week history of a vaginal hysterectomy for which she was placed under general anaesthesia.
On examination, she has notable weakness of dorsiflexion of her left foot and a high stepping gait.
Which nerve was most likely injured during her surgery?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve
Explanation:The common peroneal (fibular) nerve is a peripheral nerve in the lower limb. It arises of the L4-S2 nerve roots and has sensory and motor innervations:
Sensory: Provides innervation of the lateral leg and foot dorsum.
Motor: Provides innervation of the short head of the biceps femoris, as well as muscles of the anterior and lateral leg compartments.
It is the most commonly damaged nerve in the lower extremity, as it is easily compressed by a plaster cast or injured when the fibula is fractured.
Damage to the common peroneal nerve will result in loss of dorsiflexion at ankle (footdrop, as feet are permanently plantarflexed), with the accompanying high stepping gait.
The saphenous and sural nerve only provide sensory innervation.
The tibial nerve arises from the sciatic nerve (like the common peroneal), but it provides motor innervation to the posterior leg compartments and intrinsic foot muscles. Injury to the tibial nerve will cause loss of plantar flexion, toe flexion and weakened foot inversion.
Extreme hip flexion into the lithotomy or Lloyd-Davies position can result in stretch damage to the neurones (sciatic and obturator nerves) or by applying direct pressure (femoral nerve compression).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 72
Incorrect
-
A laceration to the upper lateral margin of the popliteal fossa will pose the greatest risk of injury for which nerve?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve
Explanation:The common peroneal (fibular) nerve descends obliquely along the lateral side of the popliteal fossa to the fibular head, medial to biceps femoris.
The sural nerve exits at the fossa’s lower inferolateral aspect and is more at risk in short saphenous vein surgery.
The tibial nerve lies more medially and is even less likely to be injured in this location.
The boundaries of the popliteal fossa are:
Superolateral – the biceps femoris tendon
Superomedial – semimembranosus reinforced by semitendinosus
Inferomedial and inferolateral – medial and lateral heads of gastrocnemiusThe contents of the Popliteal fossa are:
1. The popliteal artery
2. The popliteal vein
3. The Tibial nerve and common Fibular nerve
4. Posterior femoral cutaneous nerve: descends and pierces the roof
5. Small saphenous vein
6. popliteal lymph nodes
7. fat -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 73
Incorrect
-
Regarding the Manley MP3 ventilator, which statement is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Is a minute volume divider
Explanation:It’s a minute volume divider – True
The Manley MP3 ventilator is classed as a minute volume divider. The entire fresh gas flow or minute volume is delivered to the patient, having been divided into readily set tidal volumes.Can efficiently ventilate patients with poor pulmonary compliance – False
Ventilating patients with poor pulmonary compliance is not easily achieved, which makes it an unsuitable ventilator for a modern ICU.Can generate tidal volume up to 1500ml – False
It can generate tidal volumes up to 1000 ml (not 1500 ml), and the inflation pressure can be adjusted by sliding a weight along a rail.Functions like a Mapleson A system during spontaneous ventilation – False
The ventilator functions like a Mapleson D breathing system (not Mapleson A) during spontaneous ventilation.Has three sets of bellows – False
The fresh gas flow drives the ventilator which allows rapid detection of gas supply failure. It has two sets of bellows (not three) and three unidirectional valves. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
-
-
Question 74
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is true with regards to 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Production is increased in heart failure
Explanation:During glycolysis, 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG) is
created in erythrocytes by the Rapoport-Luebering shunt.The production of 2,3-DPG increases for several conditions
in the presence of decreased peripheral tissue O2 availability.
Some of these conditions include hypoxaemia, chronic lung
disease anaemia, and congestive heart failure. Thus,
2,3-DPG production is likely an important adaptive mechanism.High levels of 2,3-DPG cause a shift of the curve to the right.
Low levels of 2,3-DPG cause a shift of the curve to the left,
as seen in states such as septic shock and hypophosphatemia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 75
Incorrect
-
Which of the following anaesthetic is the least powerful trigger of malignant hyperthermia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Desflurane
Explanation:Desflurane is a highly fluorinated methyl ethyl ether used for the maintenance of general anaesthesia. It has been identified as a weak triggering anaesthetic of malignant hyperthermia. That, in the absence of succinylcholine, may produce a delayed onset of symptoms.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 76
Incorrect
-
Among the following, which statement is true regarding electrical safety in an operation theatre?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The higher the frequency of the current the less risk to the patient
Explanation:The operating theatre is an unusual place with several applications of electrical equipment to the human body. This can lead to potential dangers associated with it that need to be prevented. Electrical safety in the operation theatre is the understanding of how these potential dangers can occur and how they can be prevented.
Electricity can cause morbidity or mortality by one of the following ways:
(i) electrocution
(ii) burns
(iii) ignition of a flammable material, causing a fire or explosion.Electrocution is dependant on factors like duration of contact with electric current, the current pathway and the frequency and size of current.
Option A: The higher the frequency, the less effects of electrocution on the body.
Option B & D: Equipment can be classified in classes and types.
The class designation describes the method used for protection against electrocution. Class I is basic protection, class II is double insulation and class III is safety extra low voltage.
The type designation describes the degree of protection based on the maximum permissible leakage currents under normal and fault conditions.
Type B:
can be class I, II or III but the maximum leakage current must not exceed 100 µA. It is therefore not suitable for direct connection to the heart.
Type BF
Similar to type B, but uses an isolated (or floating) circuit.
Type CF
Only type CF protect against microshock as they allow leakage currents of 0.05 mA per electrode for class I and 0.01 mA for class II. Microshock is a small leakage current that can cause harm because of direct connection to the heart via transvenous lines or wires, bypassing the impedance of the skin, leading to ventricular fibrillation. Microshock current of 100 ?A is sufficient to cause VF.Option C: A 75mA electrocution can cause ventricular fibrillation. Use the following as a general guide to understand the effect of current size on the body.
1 mA – tingling pain
5 mA – pain
15 mA – tonic muscular contraction
50 mA – respiratory muscle paralysis
75 mA – ventricular fibrillation.Option E: Wet skin reduces the resistance to current flow and therefore increases the effects of electrocution.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
-
-
Question 77
Incorrect
-
A bolus of alfentanil has a faster onset of action than an equal dose of fentanyl.
Which of the following statements most accurately describes the difference?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The pKa of alfentanil is less than that of fentanyl
Explanation:Unionised molecules are more likely than ionised molecules to cross membranes (such as the blood-brain barrier).
Because alfentanil and fentanyl are weak bases, the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation says that the ratio of ionised to unionised molecules is determined by the parent compound’s pKa in relation to physiological pH.
Alfentanil has a pKa of 6.5, while fentanyl has a pKa of 8.4.
At a pH of 7.4, 89 percent of alfentanil is unionised, whereas 9% of fentanyl is.As a result, alfentanil has a faster onset than fentanyl.
Fentanyl is 83% plasma protein bound
Alfentanil is 90% plasma protein bound.Alfentanil’s pharmacokinetics are affected by its higher plasma protein binding. Because alfentanil has a low hepatic extraction ratio (0.4), clearance is determined by the degree of protein binding rather than the time it takes to take effect.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 78
Incorrect
-
A 20-year old lady has been having excessive bruising and bleeding of her gums. She is under investigation for the extrinsic pathway of coagulation. Which is the best investigation to order?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prothrombin time (PT)
Explanation:The extrinsic pathway is best assessed by the PT time.
D-dimer is a fibrin degradation product which is raised in the presence of blood clots.
A 50:50 mixing study is used to assess if a prolonged PT or aPTT is due to factor deficiency or a factor inhibitor.
The thrombin time is a test used to assess fibrin formation from fibrinogen in plasma. Factors that prolong the thrombin time include heparin, fibrin degradation products, and fibrinogen deficiency.
Intrinsic pathway – Best assessed by APTT. Factors 8,9,11,12 are involved. Prolonged aPTT can be seen in haemophilia and use of heparin.
Extrinsic pathway – Best assessed by Increased PT. Factor 7 involved.
Common pathway – Best assessed by APTT & PT. Factors 2,5,10 involved.
Vitamin K dependent factors are factors 2,7,9,10
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
-
-
Question 79
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old male is admitted to the critical care unit. He has suffered a heroin overdose and requires intubation and ventilatory support.
What would be his predicted total static compliance (lung and chest wall) measurements.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 100 ml/cmH2O
Explanation:Static lung compliance refers to the change in volume within the lung per given change in unit pressure. It is usually measured when air flow is absent, such as during pauses in inhalation and exhalation.
It is a combination of:
Chest wall compliance: normal value is 200 mL/cmH2O
Lung tissue compliance: normal value is 200 mL/ cmH2OIt is represented mathematically as:
1/Crs = 1/Cl + 1/Ccw
Where,
Crs = total compliance of the respiratory system
Cl = compliance of the lung
Ccw = compliance of the chest wallTherefore in this case:
1/Crs = 1/200 + 1/200
1/Crs = 0.005 + 0.005 = 0.01
1/Ct = 0.01
Rearranging equation gives:
Ct = 1/0.01 = 100 mL/cmH2O.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
-
-
Question 80
Incorrect
-
Fixed performance devices like high air flow oxygen enrichment (HAFOE) masks have large volumes of air entrained into a flow of 100% oxygen.
The term that best describes the physics behind air entrainment is?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bernoulli's principle
Explanation:Bernoulli’s principle states that as the speed of a moving fluid increases, there is a simultaneously decrease in static pressure or a decrease in the fluid’s potential energy.
This is seen in the simultaneous increase in speed and kinetic energy and fall in pressure that causes entrainment of large volumes of air into a flow of 100% oxygen in the nozzle of HAFOE masks.The reduction in fluid pressure that happens when a fluid flows through a constriction in a tube is the Venturi effect.
When a flow of gas or liquid attaches itself to a nearby surface and remains attached even when the surface curves away from the initial direction of flow, this is the Coanda effect.
The branch of engineering and technology that is concerned with the building of devices that use the flow and pressure of a fluid for functions usually performed by electronic devices is Fluidics . Fluidic logic is used to power some ventilators.
The branch of engineering that utilises pressurised gases is Pneumatics.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
-
-
Question 81
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following statement is true regarding United Kingdom gas cylinders?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tensile tests are performed on sections of one cylinder in every hundred
Explanation:Medical gas cylinders are made up of molybdenum steel but not cast iron. They are checked and assessed at a regular interval.
At least one cylinder in each hundred are tested for tensile, pressure, smash, twist and straightening.
Nitrous Oxide cylinders contain a mixture of liquid and vapour at a pressure of approx. 4500 kPa or 45 Bar. Carbon dioxide cylinder contain gas at the pressure of 5000kPa.
The filling ratio is the ratio of mass of liquified gas in the cylinder to the mass of water required to fill the cylinder at the temperature of 15ºC. In the united kingdom, filling ratio of liquid nitrous oxide is 0.75. The cylinders are usually attached to the anaesthetic machine. As nitrous oxide is an N-methyl-d-aspartate receptor antagonist that may reduce the incidence of chronic post-surgical pain.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
-
-
Question 82
Incorrect
-
Your manager asks you to inform patients that are suffering from a chronic pain about a trial that is going to be conducted in order to determine the efficacy of a novel analgesic. What phase is the trial currently in?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phase 2
Explanation:Phase 0 trials assist the scientists in studying the behaviour of drugs in humans by micro dosing patients. They are used to speed up the developmental process. They have no measurable therapeutic effect and efficiency.
Phase 1 is associated with assessing whether a drug is safe to use or not. The process is extensive and can take up to several months. It also involves healthy participants (less than 100) that are paid to take part in the study. The side effects upon increasing dosage are also addressed by the study. The effects the drug has on humans including how its absorbed, metabolized and excreted are studied. Approximately 70% of the drugs pass this phase.
Phase 2 trials involve patients that are suffering from the disease under study and are associated with determining the efficiency and the optimum dosage of the drug.
Phase 3 also assesses the efficacy but at a higher scale with larger population sample.
Phase 4 trials are involved with the long term effects and side effects of the drug.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 83
Incorrect
-
Cells use adenosine-5-triphosphate (ATP) as a coenzyme and is a source of energy.
Glucose metabolism produces the most ATP from which of the following biochemical processes?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Electron transport phosphorylation in the mitochondria
Explanation:Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell. It converts 1 glucose molecule (6-carbon) to pyruvate (two 3-carbon molecules) and produces 4 ATP molecules and 2NADH but uses 2 ATP in the process with an overall net energy production of 2 ATP.
Pyruvate is then oxidised to acetyl coenzyme A (generating 2 NADH per pyruvate molecule). This takes place in the mitochondria and then enters the Krebs cycle (citric acid cycle). It produces 2 ATP, 8 NADH and 2 FADH2 per glucose molecule.
Electron transport phosphorylation takes place in the mitochondria. The aim of this process is to break down NADH and FADH2 and also to pump H+ into the outer compartment of the mitochondria. It produces 32 ATP with an overall net production of 36ATP.
In anaerobic respiration which occurs in the cytoplasm, pyruvate is reduced to NAD producing 2 ATP.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 84
Incorrect
-
Risk stratification is done prior to a major cardiac surgery using cardiopulmonary exercise testing. Given the following options, which one is most likely to have the highest risk for post-operative cardiac morbidity?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anaerobic threshold (AT) of less than 11 mL/kg/minute
Explanation:The ventilatory anaerobic threshold (VAT), formerly referred to as the anaerobic threshold, is an index used to estimate exercise capacity. During the initial (aerobic) phase of CPET, which lasts until 50–60% of Vo2max is reached, expired ventilation (VE) increases linearly with Vo2 and reflects aerobically produced CO2 in the muscles. Blood lactate levels do not change substantially during this phase, since muscle lactic acid production is minimal.
During the latter half of exercise, anaerobic metabolism occurs because oxygen supply cannot keep up with the increasing metabolic requirements of exercising muscles. At this time, there is a significant increase in lactic acid production in the muscles and in the blood lactate concentration. The Vo2 at the onset of blood lactate accumulation is called the lactate threshold or the VAT. The VAT is also defined as the point at which minute ventilation increases disproportionately relative to Vo2, a response that is generally seen at 60–70% of Vo2max.
The VAT is a useful measure as work below this level encompasses most daily living activities. The ability to achieve the VAT can help distinguish cardiac and non‐cardiac (pulmonary or musculoskeletal) causes of exercise limitation, since patients who fatigue before reaching VAT are likely to have a non‐cardiac problem.
When VAT is detected, patients with PVo2 of ⩽10 ml/kg/min have a high event rate.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 85
Incorrect
-
A 35-year old male is found to be bradycardic in the emergency room. His cardiac muscle will most likely stay in a prolonged phase 4 state of the cardiac action potential. During phase 4 of the cardiac action potential, which of these occurs?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Na+/K+ ATPase acts
Explanation:Cardiac conduction
Phase 0 – Rapid depolarization. Opening of fast sodium channels with large influx of sodium
Phase 1 – Rapid partial depolarization. Opening of potassium channels and efflux of potassium ions. Sodium channels close and influx of sodium ions stop
Phase 2 – Plateau phase with large influx of calcium ions. Offsets action of potassium channels. The absolute refractory period
Phase 3 – Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close. Relative refractory period
Phase 4 – Repolarization continues as sodium/potassium pump restores the ionic gradient by pumping out 3 sodium ions in exchange for 2 potassium ions coming into the cell. Relative refractory period
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
-
-
Question 86
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old man, presents with an embolus in the lower limbs. He has previous medical history of atrial fibrillation. After examination and diagnostic investigations, he is scheduled for a transpopliteal embolectomy, which will require the surgeons to explore the central region of the popliteal fossa.
What structures will the surgeons come across after incising the deep fascia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tibial nerve
Explanation:The tibial nerve lies on top of the vessels contained within the inferior aspect of the popliteal fossa.
In the superior aspect of the fossa, the tibial nerve runs lateral to the vessels, before then travelling superficial to the vessels, and then finally changing course to lie medial to the vessels.
The popliteal artery is the most deep structure present in the popliteal fossa
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 87
Incorrect
-
A 6-year-old child is scheduled for general anaesthesia day surgery. You decide to perform an inhalational induction because he is otherwise medically fit.
Which of the following is the most important factor in deciding which volatile anaesthetic agents to use?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The low blood:gas solubility of sevoflurane
Explanation:The ideal volatile agent for a day case surgery inhalational induction should have the following characteristics:
It has a pleasant scent that is not overpowering.
Breathing difficulties, coughing, or laryngeal spasm are not caused by this substance.
The action has a quick onset and a quick reversal.The blood:gas partition coefficient is a physicochemical property of a volatile agent that determines the onset and offset of anaesthesia. The greater an agent’s insolubility in plasma, the faster its alveolar concentration rises.
The blood gas partition coefficients of the most commonly used volatile anaesthetic agents are as follows:
Halothane 2.3
Desflurane 0.45
Sevoflurane 0.6
Nitrous oxide 0.47
Isoflurane 1.4Although halothane has a pleasant odour, it has a slower offset than sevoflurane.
Sevoflurane also has a pleasant odour and is less likely than desflurane to cause airway irritation and breath-holding.
The choice of agent for inhalational induction is unaffected by potency/lipid solubility measures such as the oil: gas partition coefficient and MAC.
In this case, an agent’s saturated vapour pressure is irrelevant.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 88
Incorrect
-
An 84-year-old woman has a fall. She fractures the neck of her femur and requires emergency surgery.
On history and examination, she appears to also have a possible heart failure for which an echocardiogram is scheduled.
Her measurements are:
End-diastolic volume: 40mL (70-240)
End-systolic volume: 30mL (16-140)
Calculate her approximate ejection fraction.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 25%
Explanation:An echocardiogram provides real-time visualisation of cardiac structures. The ejection fraction (EF) is normally measured using this system.
The ejection fraction (EF) can be deduced mathematically if the patient’s end-diastolic volume (EDV), end-systolic volume (ESV) and stroke volume (SV) are known, as:
SV = EDV – ESV, and
EF = SV/EDV x 100
The normal range for EF is >55-70%.
For this patient,
SV= 40 – 30 = 10 mL, therefore
EF = 10/40 x 100 = 25%
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
-
-
Question 89
Incorrect
-
Concerning the pathway of endothelial nitric oxide (eNO), one of the following best describes it.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stimulation of guanylyl cyclase, increases cGMP concentration leading to vasodilation
Explanation:Nitric oxide (NO), an endothelial-derived relaxant factor (EDRF), is a powerful vasodilator. Its cell-signalling molecule is calcium-dependant and generated endogenous by nitric oxide synthetases from the precursor L-arginine, oxygen and NADPH. Three main isoforms have been isolated and they are inducible (iNO), neuronal (nNO) and endothelial (eNO).
Endothelial NO stimulates intracellular guanylyl cyclase which generates cyclic GMP (cGMP) from its action on guanylyl tri-phosphate (GTP). The cGMP goes on to activate protein kinase G (PKG). PKG phosphorylates cell membrane proteins that regulate intracellular calcium concentrations and level of calcium sensitisation.
Smooth muscle vasodilatation results from:
1. Light chain phosphatase activation.
2. Inhibition of calcium entry into the cell (reducing Ca2+ concentrations) and
3. Hyperpolarisation of cells by activation of H+ channels. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 90
Incorrect
-
A 41-year-old man, with symptomatic tracheal compression is scheduled for a thyroidectomy. He has previous personal history of hyperthyroidism, controlled by a carbimazole prescription.
He has previously presented to the emergency department with dyspnoea and stridor, for which the surgery is indicated. Prior to his thyroidectomy, excessive bleeding is controlled for by ligation of the superior thyroid artery.
The superior thyroid artery branches into the superior laryngeal artery which is closely related to a structure which upon injury will cause loss of sensation in the laryngeal mucosa.
What is the name of this structure?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Internal laryngeal nerve
Explanation:The internal laryngeal nerve provides sensory innervation to the laryngeal mucosa, and injury to it will cause loss of sensation.
The internal laryngeal nerve lies inferior to the piriform recess mucous membrane, placing it at high risk of irritation or damage by objects which become lodged in the recess.
The internal laryngeal artery branches off the superior laryngeal artery accompanied by the superior laryngeal nerve, inferior to the thyroid artery which branches off the superior thyroid artery close to its bifurcation from the external carotid artery.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 91
Incorrect
-
Infrared radiation is absorbed by asymmetric, polyatomic polar molecules like carbon dioxide (CO2).
When measuring CO2 in gas samples, mainstream capnography uses this physical principle.
Which of the following gases is most likely to interfere with carbon dioxide's absorption spectrum?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nitrous oxide
Explanation:Carbon dioxide absorbs the most infrared (IR) light between the wavelengths of 4.2-4.4m (4.26m is ideal).
Nitrous oxide absorbs infrared light at wavelengths of 4.4-4.6m (very similar to CO2) and less so at 3.9m.
At a frequency of 4.7m, carbon monoxide absorbs the most IR light.
At 3.3 m and throughout the ranges 8-12 m, the volatile agents have strong absorption bands.
Although oxygen does not absorb infrared light, it collides with CO2 molecules, interfering with absorption. The absorption band is widened as a result of this (so called collision or pressure broadening). A drop of 0.5 percent in measured CO2 can be caused by 95% oxygen.
Nitrous oxide causes a greater inaccuracy of 0.1 percent per ten percent of nitrous oxide.
Water vapour absorbs infrared light as well, resulting in absorption band overlap, collision broadening, and partial pressure dilution. Water traps and water permeable tubing are used to reduce inaccuracies.
Collision broadening is compensated for in modern gas multi-gas analysers.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 92
Incorrect
-
A sevoflurane vaporiser with a 2 percent setting and a 200 kPa ambient pressure is used.
At this pressure, which of the following options best represents vaporiser output?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The output is 1% because the saturated pressure of sevoflurane is unaffected by ambient pressure
Explanation:Ambient pressure has no effect on a volatile agent’s saturated vapour pressure (SVP). At a temperature of 20°C, the SVP of sevoflurane is approximately 21 kPa, or 21% of atmospheric pressure (100 kPa).
The SVP of sevoflurane remains the same when the ambient pressure is doubled to 200 kPa, but the output of the vaporiser is halved, now 21 percent of 200 kPa, equalling 10.5 percent. The vaporiser’s output has increased to 1%, but the partial pressure output has remained unchanged. The splitting ratio will not change because it is determined by temperature changes.
Calculations can be made as follows:
Vaporizer output % (ambient pressure) = % volatile (calibrated) x 100 kPa calibrated pressure/ambient pressure
2% = 2% (dialled) × 100/100
2% of 100 = 2 kPaAltitude, pressure 50 kPa
4% = 2% (dialled) × 100/50
4% of 50 = 2 kPaHigh pressure at 200 kPa
1% = 2% (dialled) × 100/200
1% of 200 = 2 kPaSevoflurane has a boiling point of 58°C and, unlike desflurane (which has a boiling point of 22.8°C), does not need to be heated and pressurised with a Tec 6 vaporiser.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
-
-
Question 93
Incorrect
-
A study aimed at assessing the validity of a novel diagnostic test for heart failure is being performed. The curators are worried that not all the patients will get the prevalent gold standard test.
Which type of bias is that?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Work-up bias
Explanation:Work up bias involves comparing the novel diagnostic test with the current standard test. A portion of the patients undergo the standard test while others undergo the new test as the standard test is costly. The result can be alteration in specify and sensitivity.
Selection bias is when randomisation is not achieved.
Attention bias refers to the person’s failure to consider various alternatives when he pre occupied by some other thoughts.
Instrument bias is related to the experience and extent of familiarization of the participating individuals with the test.
Co intervention bias is characterized by the groups receiving different co interventions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 94
Incorrect
-
During the analysis phase, which of the provided options serves to control confounding factors?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stratification
Explanation:During analytical stage a technique called stratification is used for controlling confounding variables. This technique involves sorting out the data into discernible groups.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 95
Incorrect
-
A 30-year old female athlete was brought to the Emergency Room for complaints of light-headedness and nausea. Clinical chemistry studies were done and the results were the following:
Na: 144 mmol/L (Reference: 137-144 mmol/L)
K: 6 mmol/L (Reference: 3.5-4.9 mmol/L)
Cl: 115 mmol/L (Reference: 95-107 mmol/L)
HCO3: 24 mmol/L (Reference: 20-28 mmol/L)
BUN: 9.5 mmol/L (Reference: 2.5-7.5 mmol/L)
Crea: 301 µmol/l (Reference: 60 - 110 µmol/L)
Glucose: 3.5 mmol/L (Reference: 3.0-6.0 mmol/L)
Taking into consideration the values above, in which of the following ranges will his osmolarity fall into?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 300-313
Explanation:Osmolarity refers to the osmotic pressure generated by the dissolved solute molecules in 1 L of solvent. Measurements of osmolarity are temperature dependent because the volume of the solvent varies with temperature. The higher the osmolarity of a solution, the more it attracts water from an opposite compartment.
Osmolarity can be computed using the following formulas:
Osmolarity = Concentration x number of dissociable particles; OR
Plasma osmolarity (Posm) = 2([Na+]) + (glucose in mmol/L) + (BUN in mmol/L)Posm = 2 (144) + 3.5 + 9.5 = 301 mOsm/L
Suppose there is electrical neutrality, the formula will double the cation activity to account for the anions.
Plasma osmolarity (Posm) = 2([Na+] + [K+]) + (glucose in mmol/L) + (BUN in mmol/L)
Posm = 2 (144 + 6) + 3.5 + 9.5 = 313 mOsm/L
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 96
Incorrect
-
An 80 year old woman is due for cataract surgery.
There are no contraindications to regional anaesthesia so a peribulbar block was performed. 8mls of 2% lidocaine was injected using an infratemporal approach. However, there is still movement of the globe after 5 mins.
The least likely extraocular muscle to develop akinesia is:Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Superior oblique
Explanation:The fibrotendinous ring formed by the congregation of the rectus muscles at the apex of the orbit does not include superior oblique. This muscle is completely outside the ring and so it is the most difficult muscle to anaesthetise completely. A good grasp of the anatomy of the area being anaesthetised is important with all regional anaesthetic techniques so that potential problems and complications with a block can be anticipated.
The borders of this pyramid whose apex points upwards and outwards of the bony orbit are as follows:
Floor – Zygoma and Maxilla
Roof – frontal bone
Medial wall – maxilla, ethmoid, sphenoid and lacrimal bones.
Lateral wall – greater wing of the sphenoid and the zygoma.The four recti muscles (superior, medial, lateral and inferior) originate from a tendinous ring (the annulus of Zinn) and extend anteriorly to insert beyond the equator of the globe. Bands of connective tissue are present between the rectus muscles forming a conical structure and hinder the passage of local anaesthetic.
The superior oblique muscle is situated outside this ring and is the most difficult muscle to anaesthetise completely, particularly with a single inferotemporal peribulbar injection. An additional medial injection may help to prevent this.
The cranial nerve supply to the extraocular muscles are:
3rd (inferior oblique, inferior recti, medial and superior)
4th (superior oblique), and
6th (lateral rectus).The long and short ciliary nerves provide the sensory supply to the globe and these are branches of the nasociliary nerve, (which is itself a branch of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve).
To achieve anaesthesia for the eye, these nerves which enter the fibrotendinous ring need to be fully blocked to anaesthetise the eye for surgery.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 97
Incorrect
-
About the mechanism of action of bendroflumethiazide, Which of the following is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sodium-chloride symporter inhibitor
Explanation:Sodium-chloride symporter inhibitor.
The thiazide sensitive sodium chloride symporter is inhibited by thiazides at the proximal portion of the distal convoluted tubule leading to increased sodium and water excretion. Increased delivery of sodium to the distal portion of the distal convoluted tubule promotes potassium loss. This is why thiazides are associated with hyponatraemia and hypokalaemia.
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors are used mainly in the treatment of glaucoma. They act on the proximal convoluted tubule to promote bicarbonate, sodium and potassium loss.
Sodium potassium chloride symporter is inhibited by Loop diuretics.
Epithelial sodium channels are inhibited by Amiloride.
Drugs which lead to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus such as lithium and demeclocycline, are Inhibitors of vasopressin. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 98
Incorrect
-
Which vessel is the first to branch from the external carotid artery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Superior thyroid artery
Explanation:The superior thyroid artery is the first branch of the external carotid artery. The other branches of the external carotid artery are:
1. Superior thyroid artery
2. Ascending pharyngeal artery
3. Lingual artery
4. Facial artery
5. Occipital artery
6. Posterior auricular artery
7. Maxillary artery
8. Superficial temporal arteryThe inferior thyroid artery is derived from the thyrocervical trunk.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 99
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old man has complaints of severe tearing chest pain. A preliminary diagnosis of aortic dissection is made in the emergency department. In aortic dissection, which layers have blood flowing in between them?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tunica intima and tunica media
Explanation:The wall of an artery has three layers: (innermost to outermost)
1. Tunica intima – in direct contact with the blood inside the vessel and contains endothelial cells separated by gap junctions.
2. Tunica media – contains smooth muscle cells and is separated from the intima by the internal elastic lamina and the adventitia by the external elastic lamina.
3. Tunica adventitia – contains the vasa vasorum, fibroblast, and collagen.Aortic dissection is when a tear arises in the innermost layer of the aorta and penetrates through the tear, entering the media layer. The inner and middle layers of the aorta split (dissect).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 100
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old man is being operated on for emergency laparotomy as he presented with bowel perforation. During the surgery, the marginal artery of Drummond is encountered and preserved.
Which of the following two arteries fuse to form the marginal artery of Drummond?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Superior mesenteric artery and inferior mesenteric artery
Explanation:The arteries of the midgut (superior mesenteric artery) and hindgut (inferior mesenteric artery) give off terminal branches that form an anastomotic vessel called the marginal artery of Drummond. It runs in the inner margins of the colon and gives off short terminal branches to the bowel wall.
The marginal artery is formed by the main branches and arcades arising from the ileocolic, right colic, middle colic, and left colic arteries. It is most apparent in the ascending, transverse, and descending colons and poorly developed in the sigmoid colon.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 101
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is not true regarding Adrenaline?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Exerts its effect by decreasing intracellular calcium
Explanation:Noradrenaline also called norepinephrine belongs to the catecholamine family that functions in the brain and body as both a hormone and neurotransmitter.
They have sympathomimetic effects acting via adrenoceptors (?1, ?2,?1, ?2, ?3) or dopamine receptors (D1, D2).
May cause reflex bradycardia, reduce cardiac output and increase myocardial oxygen consumption
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 102
Incorrect
-
Prophylactic antibiotics are required for which of the following procedures?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Appendicectomy
Explanation:Correctly used, antibiotic prophylaxis can reduce
the total use of antibiotics.
There is strong scientific support that antibiotic
prophylaxis reduces the development of infection after:- Operations and endoscopic procedures in the large intestine,
the rectum, and the stomach (including appendectomies and
penetrating abdominal trauma), and after percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) - Cardiovascular surgery, and insertion of pacemakers
- Breast cancer surgery
- Hysterectomy
- Reduction of simple fractures and prosthetic limb surgery
- Complicated surgery for cancer in the ear, nose, and throat
regions - Transrectal biopsy and resection of the prostate (febrile urinary
tract infection and blood poisoning).
In most cases the scientific evidence is inadequate to determine
which type of antibiotic is most effective for antibiotic prophylaxis. - Operations and endoscopic procedures in the large intestine,
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
-
-
Question 103
Incorrect
-
A 60-year old male has anaemia and is being investigated. The most common combination of globin chains in a normal adult is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: α2β2
Explanation:There are 4 different types of globin chains which surround 4 heme molecules in haemoglobin (Hb) – α (alpha), β (beta), γ (gamma), and δ (delta)
α chains are essential.
δ2β2 and β2γ2 are not found in a healthy adult.
97% of the Hb in a healthy adult is made of α2β2 (2 α chains and 2 β chains).
α2δ2 accounts for around 1.5-3% of the adult Hb.
α2γ2 accounts for less than 1%.With respect to oxygen transport in cells, almost all oxygen is transported within erythrocytes. There is limited solubility and only 1% is carried as solution. Thus, the amount of oxygen transported depends upon haemoglobin concentration and its degree of saturation.
Haemoglobin is a globular protein composed of 4 subunits. Haem is made up of a protoporphyrin ring surrounding an iron atom in its ferrous state. The iron can form two additional bonds – one is with oxygen and the other with a polypeptide chain. There are two alpha and two beta subunits to this polypeptide chain in an adult and together these form globin. Globin cannot bind oxygen but can bind to CO2 and hydrogen ions. The beta chains are able to bind to 2,3 diphosphoglycerate. The oxygenation of haemoglobin is a reversible reaction. The molecular shape of haemoglobin is such that binding of one oxygen molecule facilitates the binding of subsequent molecules.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
-
-
Question 104
Incorrect
-
A patient under brachial plexus regional block complains of pain under the cuff after the torniquet is inflated.
Which nerve was most probably 'missed' by the local anaesthetic?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intercostobrachial nerve
Explanation:The area described in the question is supplied by the intercostobrachial nerve, which provides sensory innervation to the portions of the axilla, tail of the breast, lateral chest wall and medial side of the arm.
It is a common for it to be ‘missed’ during administration of local anaesthesia because of its very superficial anatomic course. It may be anesthetized by giving an analgesia from the upper border of the biceps at the anterior axillary fold, to the margin of the triceps by the axillary floor.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 105
Incorrect
-
Regarding laminar gas flow, which of the following options has the most influence on laminar flow?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diameter of tube
Explanation:Laminar flow can be defined as the motion of a fluid where every particle in the fluid follows the same path of its previous particles. The following are properties of laminar flow of gas or fluids:
1. Smooth unobstructed flow of gas through a tube of relatively uniform diameter
2. Few directional changes
3. Slow, steady flow through straight smooth, rigid, large calibre, cylindrical tube
4. Outer layer flow slower than the centre due to friction, results in discrete cylindrical layers, or streamlines
5. Double flow by doubling pressure as long as the flow pattern remains laminarPoiseuille’s Law relates the factors that determine laminar flow. It indicates the degree of resistance to fluid flow through a tube. The resistance to fluid flow through a tube is directly related to the length, flow and viscosity; and inversely related to the radius of the tube to the fourth power. This means that, when the radius is doubled, there is increase in flow by a factor of 16.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
-
-
Question 106
Incorrect
-
Prior to an urgent appendicectomy, a 49-year-old man requires a rapid sequence induction.
His BMI is equal to 50.
Which of the following formulas is the most appropriate for calculating a suxamethonium dose in order to achieve optimal intubating conditions?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1-1.5 × actual body weight (mg)
Explanation:The usual method of calculating the dose of a drug to be given to patients of normal weight is to use total body weight (TBW). This is because the lean body weight (LBW) and ideal body weight (IBW) dosing scalars are similar in these patients.
Because the LBW and fat mass do not increase in proportion in patients with morbid obesity, this is not the case. Drugs that are lipid soluble, such as propofol or thiopentone, can cause a relative overdose. Lean body mass is a better scalar in these situations.
Suxamethonium has a small volume of distribution, so the dose is best calculated using the TBW to ensure optimal and deep intubating conditions. The higher dose was justified because these patients’ plasma cholinesterase activity was elevated.
Other scalars include:
The dose of highly lipid soluble drugs like benzodiazepines, thiopentone, and propofol can be calculated using lean body weight (LBW). The formula LBW = IBW + 20% can be used on occasion.
Fentanyl, rocuronium, atracurium, vecuronium, morphine, paracetamol, bupivacaine, and lidocaine are all administered with LBW.
Formulas can be used to calculate the ideal body weight (IBW). There are a number of drawbacks, including the fact that patients of the same height receive the same dose, and the formulae do not account for changes in body composition associated with obesity. Because IBW is typically lower than LBW, administering a drug based on IBW may result in underdosing. The body mass index (BMI) isn’t used to calculate drug dosage directly.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 107
Incorrect
-
A human's resting oxygen consumption (VO2) is typically 3.5 ml/kg/minute (one metabolic equivalent or 1 MET).
Which of the following options is linked to the highest VO2 when a person is at rest?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Neonate
Explanation:The oxygen consumption rate (VO2) at rest is 3.5 ml/kg/minute (one metabolic equivalent or 1 MET).
3.86 ml/kg/minute thyrotoxicosisYoung children consume a lot of oxygen: around 7 ml/kg/min when they are born. The metabolic cost of breathing is higher in children than in adults, and it can account for up to 15% of total oxygen consumption. Similarly, an infant’s metabolic rate is nearly twice that of an adult, resulting in a larger alveolar minute volume and a lower FRC.
At term, oxygen consumption at rest can increase by as much as 40% (5 ml/kg/minute) and can rise to 60% during labour.
When compared to normal basal metabolism, sepsis syndrome increases VO2 and resting metabolic rate by 30% (4.55 ml/kg/minute). In septicaemic shock, VO2 decreases.
Dobutamine hydrochloride was infused into 12 healthy male volunteers at a rate of 2 micrograms per minute per kilogramme, gradually increasing to 4 and 6 micrograms per minute per kilogramme. Dobutamine was infused for 20 minutes for each dose. VO2 increased by 10% to 15%. (3.85-4.0 ml/kg/min).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 108
Incorrect
-
What is factually correct regarding correlation and regression?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Regression allows one variable to be predicted from another variable
Explanation:Linear regression, using a technique called curve fitting, allows us to make predictions regarding a certain variable.
Correlation coefficient gives us an idea whether or not the two parameters provide have any relation of some sort or not i.e. does change in one prompt any change in other?
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 109
Incorrect
-
Heights of 100 individuals(adults) who were administered steroids at any stage during childhood was studied. The mean height was found to be 169cm with the data having a standard deviation of 16cm. What will be the standard error associated with the mean?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1.6
Explanation:Standard error can be calculated by the following formula:
Standard Error= (Standard Deviation)/√(Sample Size)
= (16) / √(100)
= 16 / 10
= 1.6 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 110
Incorrect
-
Which of the following herbal drug side effects or herb-drug interactions is the most likely?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: St. John's Wort : serotonin syndrome
Explanation:Patients who present for surgery may be on prescription medication or natural/herbal therapies. These have relevance for anaesthesia since they can cause drug interactions.
Ephedra (Ma Huang) is a drug derived from the plant Ephedra sinica that is used as a CNS stimulant, weight reduction aid, and asthma therapy. It is a combination of alkaloids that includes ephedrine which stimulates noradrenaline release from pre-synaptic neurones by acting directly on alpha and beta adrenoreceptors. The use of sympathomimetic drugs together can cause cardiovascular instability.
Ginkgo Biloba contains anti-oxidant characteristics and is used to treat Alzheimer’s disease, vascular dementia, and peripheral vascular disease. It lowers platelet adhesiveness and raises the risk of bleeding by decreasing platelet activating factor (PAF), especially in individuals who are also taking anticoagulants and antiplatelet drugs.
The extract from St. John’s Wort is utilised as an antidepressant because it is a cytochrome P450 isoenzyme inhibitor as well as a serotonin uptake inhibitor. When drugs like fentanyl or tramadol are used during an anaesthetic, there is a risk of serotonin syndrome developing.
The root of a pepper is used to make kava (Piper methysticum). It is a weak GABAA agonist which has the potential to augment the effects of propofol and benzodiazepines, which are volatile anaesthetics.
Garlic is made from the allium sativum plant and is used to treat hypertension and hyperlipidaemia. It includes cysteine, which inhibits platelet aggregation irreversibly, amplifying the effects of aspirin and NSAIDs.
Echinacea is a common herbal medicine that stimulates the immune system by modulating cytokine signalling. In individuals who require organ transplantation, it should be avoided.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 111
Incorrect
-
A 63-year old man has palpitations and goes to the emergency room. An ECG shows tall tented T waves, which corresponds to phase 3 of the cardiac action potential.
The shape of the T wave is as a result of which of the following?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Repolarisation due to efflux of potassium
Explanation:Cardiac conduction
Phase 0 – Rapid depolarization. Opening of fast sodium channels with large influx of sodium
Phase 1 – Rapid partial depolarization. Opening of potassium channels and efflux of potassium ions. Sodium channels close and influx of sodium ions stop
Phase 2 – Plateau phase with large influx of calcium ions. Offsets action of potassium channels. The absolute refractory period
Phase 3 – Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close. Relative refractory period
Phase 4 – Repolarization continues as sodium/potassium pump restores the ionic gradient by pumping out 3 sodium ions in exchange for 2 potassium ions coming into the cell. Relative refractory period
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
-
-
Question 112
Incorrect
-
In medical testing, there are true negative, true positive, false positive and false negative results for some test.
How are the sensitivity of these predictive tests calculated?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: True positives / (true positives + false negatives)
Explanation:The following terms are used in medical testing:
True negative – The test is negative and the patient does not have the disease.
True positive – The test is positive and the patient has the disease.
False positive – The test is positive but the patient does not have the disease.
False negative – The test is negative but the patient has the disease.The sensitivity of a predictive test = true positives / (true positives + false negatives).
The specificity of a test = true negatives / (false positives + true negatives).
The negative predictive value of a test = true negatives / (false negatives + true negatives).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 113
Incorrect
-
Which of the following options is correct regarding the coagulation pathway?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tissue factor released by damaged tissue initiates the extrinsic pathway
Explanation:The extrinsic pathway is considered as the main pathway of coagulation cascade.
Heparin is known to inhibit the activation of coagulation factors 2,9,10, and 11.
The extrinsic and intrinsic pathways meet at the activation of coagulation factor 10.
Fibrinogen is converted into Fibrin in the presence of Thrombin. Plasminogen is converted into plasmin during fibrinolysis to breakdown fibrin clot.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
-
-
Question 114
Incorrect
-
A 46-year-old woman is listed for clipping of a cerebral aneurysm, following a diagnosis of surgical third nerve palsy.
Which of the following clinical findings correlate with surgical third nerve palsy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ptosis, inferolateral rotation of globe and mydriasis
Explanation:Ptosis and mydriasis are visible in surgical third nerve palsy, and the eye looks ‘down and out.’ The loss of innervation to all of the major structures supplied by the oculomotor nerve is reflected in these characteristics.
Ptosis is caused by the paralysis of the levator palpebrae superioris in oculomotor nerve palsy. Due to the unopposed actions of the superior oblique and lateral rectus muscles, the eye rotates down and out.
Mydriasis is caused by surgical (compressive) causes of third nerve palsy, which disrupt the parasympathetic pupillomotor fibres on the nerve’s periphery.
Medical (ischaemic) causes of a third nerve palsy, on the other hand, leave the superficial parasympathetic fibres relatively unaffected and the pupil unaffected.
Horner’s syndrome is characterised by ptosis, anhidrosis, and miosis, which are caused by a loss of sympathetic innervation to the tarsal muscle of the upper lid, facial skin, and dilator pupillae, respectively.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 115
Incorrect
-
What is the primary purpose of funnel plots?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Demonstrate the existence of publication bias in meta-analyses
Explanation:Funnel plot is essentially a scatterplot of the effect of treatment against a particular measure of study precision. Its primal purpose is to serve as a visual aid and help in detection of bias or systematic heterogenity.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 116
Incorrect
-
The arterial-venous oxygen (a-vO2) difference is the difference between the oxygen content of arterial blood (CaO2) and mixed-venous blood (CvO2).
At rest, which organ has the greatest a-vO2 difference?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Heart
Explanation:At rest, the heart has the greatest a-vO2 difference, a high capillary to myocyte ratio, short diffusion distances, and a high mitochondrial density. The flow of blood through the coronary arteries is also tightly controlled. At rest, 70-80 percent of the oxygen available to the cardiac muscle is extracted, increasing to 90 percent during exercise.
The a-vO2 difference indicates the body’s or an individual organ’s ability to extract oxygen from the blood.
CaO2 is influenced by a number of factors, including Hb concentration, PaO2 and pulmonary diffusion capacity.
CvO2 is influenced by a number of factors, including capillary density, regional blood flow, heart, resting skeletal muscle, kidney, intestine and skin.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 117
Incorrect
-
The following are pairs of neurotransmitters with their corresponding synthesising enzymes.
Which pair is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Glutamic acid decarboxylase and gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
Explanation:Glutamic acid decarboxylase is responsible for the catalyses of glutamate to gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
Catechol-o-methyl transferase catalyses the degradation and inactivation of dopamine into 3-methoxytyramine, epinephrine into metanephrine, and norepinephrine into normetanephrine and vanylmethylmandelic acid (VMA).
Monoamine oxidase catalyses the oxidation of norepinephrine to vanylmethylmandelic acid (VMA) and serotonin to 5-hydeoxyindole acetic acid (5-HIAA).
Cholinesterase functions to catalyse the split of acetylcholine into choline and acetic acid.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 118
Incorrect
-
Campylobacter is which type of bacteria?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: sdgsdf
Explanation:Campylobacter is the commonest bacterial cause of infectious intestinal disease in the UK. The majority of cases are caused by the Gram-negative bacillus Campylobacter jejuni which is spread by the faecal-oral route. The incubation period is 1-6 days.
Features include a prodrome phase with headaches and malaise, then diarrhoea occurs which is often bloody.
There is often abdominal pain which may mimic appendicitis.It is usually self-limiting but treatment is warranted if the infection is severe or the infection occurs in an immunocompromised patient.
Severe infection comprises of high fever, bloody diarrhoea, or more than eight stools per day or symptoms last for more than one week.
This management would include antibiotics and the first-line antibiotic is clarithromycin.
Ciprofloxacin is an alternative but there are strains with decreased sensitivity to ciprofloxacin which can be frequently isolated.Complications include:
1.Guillain-Barre syndrome may follow Campylobacter
2. Jejuniinfections
3. Reactive arthritis
4. Septicaemia, endocarditis, arthritis -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
-
-
Question 119
Incorrect
-
A 25-year old lady is in the operating room and has had general anaesthesia for a knee arthroscopy.
Induction was done with fentanyl 1mcg/kg and propofol 2mg/kg. A supra-glottic airway was inserted and using and air oxygen mixture with 2.5% sevoflurane, her anaesthesia was maintained. The patient is allowed to spontaneously breathe using a Bain circuit, and the fresh gas flow is 9L/min. Over the next 30 minutes, the end-tidal Co2 rises from 4.5kPa to 8.4kPa, and the baseline reading on the capnograph is 0kPa.
The most appropriate initial action is which of the following?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypoventilation
Explanation:The commonest and most likely cause of a gradual rise in end-tidal CO2 (EtCO2) occurring during anaesthesia in a spontaneously breathing patient is hypoventilation. This occurs from the respiratory depressant effects of the opioid and sevoflurane.
Malignant hyperthermia should be sought if the EtCO2 shows further progressive rise.
Causes of rebreathing and a rise in the baseline of the capnograph can be caused by exhausted soda lime and inadequate fresh gas flow into the Bain circuit.
A sudden rise in EtCO2 can be caused deflation of the tourniquet.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 120
Incorrect
-
A paediatric patient was referred to the surgery department after an initial assessment of acute gastroenteritis was proven otherwise to be a case acute appendicitis. History revealed multiple episodes of non-bloody emesis. In the paediatric ward, the patient had already undergone fluid resuscitation and replacement, and electrolytes were already corrected. Other pertinent laboratory studies were the following:
Serum Na: 138 mmol/l
Blood glucose: 6.4 mmol/l
If the patient weighed 25 kg, which intravenous fluid maintenance regimen would be best for the child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 65 ml/hr Hartmann's solution with 0% glucose
Explanation:Maintenance therapy aims to replace water and electrolytes lost under ordinary conditions. In the perioperative period, maintenance fluid administration may not sufficiently account for the increased fluid requirements caused by third-space losses into the interstitium and gut. Specific recommendations vary with the patient, the procedure, and the type and amount of fluid administered during the operation. The fluid for maintenance therapy replaces deficits arising primarily from insensible losses and urinary or gastrointestinal (GI) losses.
The maintenance fluid volume can be computed using the Holliday-Segar method.
Body weight Fluid volume
first 10 kg 4 ml/kg/hr
next 10-20 kg 2 ml/kg/hr
>20 kg 1 ml/kg/hrIn the past few years, there has been growing recognition of the increased risk of hyponatremia in hospitalized children in intensive care and postoperative settings who receive hypotonic maintenance fluids. Several studies, including a randomized controlled trial and a Cochrane analysis, found that the use of isotonic fluids is associated with fewer electrolyte derangements and concluded that isotonic maintenance fluids are preferable to hypotonic solutions in hospitalized children.
A European consensus statement suggests that an intraoperative fluid should have an osmolarity close to the physiologic range in children in order to avoid hyponatremia, an addition of 1-2.5% in order to avoid hypoglycaemia, lipolysis or hyperglycaemia and should also include metabolic anions as bicarbonate precursors to prevent hyperchloremic acidosis.
A rate of 40 ml/hr is suboptimal.
If 0.9% NaCl with 0% glucose is given at a rate of 65 ml/hr, despite of the correct infusion rate, large volumes can lead to hyperchloremic acidosis.
If 0.18% NaCl with 4% glucose is given at a rate of 65 ml/hr, infusion of this fluid regimen can lead to hyponatremia because of its hypotonicity.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
-
-
Question 121
Incorrect
-
Buffers are solutions that resist a change in pH when protons are produced or consumed. They consist of weak acids and their conjugate bases. Buffers are also present in our bodies, and they are known as physiologic buffers.
Which of these is the most effective buffer in the blood?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bicarbonate
Explanation:The first line of defence against acid-base disorder is buffering. The blood mainly utilizes bicarbonate ion (HCO3-) for its buffering capacity (total of 53%, plasma and red blood cells combined).
Strong acids, when acted upon by a buffer, release H+, which then combines to HCO3- and forms carbonic acid (H2CO3). When acted upon by the enzyme carbonic anhydrase, H2CO3 dissociates into H2O and CO.
The rest are the percentage of utilization for the following buffers:
Haemoglobin (by RBCs) – 35%
Plasma proteins (by plasma) – 7%
Organic phosphates (by RBCs) – 3%
Inorganic phosphates (by plasma) – 2% -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 122
Incorrect
-
Out of the following, which is NOT true regarding the external carotid?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It ends by bifurcating into the superficial temporal and ascending pharyngeal artery
Explanation:The external carotid artery has eight important branches:
Anterior surface:
1. Superior thyroid artery (first branch)
2. Lingual artery
3. Facial artery
Medial branch
4. Ascending pharyngeal artery
Posterior branches
5. Occipital artery
6. Posterior auricular artery
Terminal branches
7. Maxillary artery
8. Superficial temporal arteryThe external carotid has eight branches, 3 from its anterior surface ; thyroid, lingual and facial. The pharyngeal artery is a medial branch. The posterior auricular and occipital are posterior branches.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 123
Incorrect
-
Regarding the basal metabolic rate (BMR), one of the following is correct.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Is the single largest component of energy expenditure
Explanation:BMR is lower in females than males.
It decreases with increasing age.
There is an increase in BMR with increased muscle (i.e. lean tissue)
BMR is increased in stress and illness. There is also an catabolic state in these conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 124
Incorrect
-
When combined with a general anaesthetic or central neuraxial block, which of the following medications used to treat dementia involves the risk of significant hypotension?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Risperidone
Explanation:Atypical antipsychotic drugs include risperidone and quetiapine. They not only inhibit dopamine receptors in the limbic system, but also histamine (H1) and alpha2 adrenoreceptors. When combined with general and/or central neuraxial block, this might result in severe hypotension.
Donepezil (Aricept) is an acetylcholinesterase (AChE) inhibitor that increases the neurotransmitter acetylcholine in the cerebral cortex and hippocampus in a reversible, non-competitive manner. It is used to reduce the advancement of Alzheimer’s disease symptoms (AD). Rivastigmine and galantamine are two more drugs that work in the same way.
Ginkgo Biloba contains anti-oxidant characteristics and is used to treat early-stage Alzheimer’s disease, vascular dementia, and peripheral vascular disease. It lowers platelet adhesiveness and decreases platelet activating factor (PAF) increasing the risk f bleeding, especially in individuals who are also taking anticoagulants and antiplatelet medication.
Memantine is an antagonist of the NMDA receptor. Synaptic plasticity, which is thought to be a critical component of learning and memory, can be inhibited at high doses. The use of ketamine is a relative contraindication since antagonism of this receptor can cause a dissociative state.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 125
Incorrect
-
According to the statements given which one is most correct concerning the spinal cord?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There are 31 pairs of spinal roots
Explanation:The cylindrical structure(spine), starts from the foramen magnum in medulla oblongata at the skull’s base. Its length varies in gender with men having 45cm and women having up to 43 cm. The spine contains 31 pairs of spinal nerves, named according to the spinal region:
– 8 cervical nerve pairs ( C1-C8)
– 12 thoracic nerve pairs ( T1-T12)
– 5 lumbar nerve pairs (L1-L5)
– 5 sacral nerves (S1-S5) and
– 1 coccygeal nerve pair.
These spinal nerves are classified as the peripheral nervous system though they branch from the spinal cord and central nervous system. They interact directly with the spinal cord to modulate the motor and sensory information from the peripheral’s region. As the nerves emerges form the spinal cords they are known as rootlets. They join to form nerve roots, and depending on their position, we have anterior nerve roots and posterior.The spinal cord is supplied by two posterior and one anterior spinal arteries which anastomoses caudally, at the conus medullaris.
The anterior spinal artery supplies the anterior two-thirds of the spinal cord and medulla. Disruption of the anterior spinal artery supply is characterised by ischaemia or infarction of motor tracts (corticospinal) and loss of pain and temperature sensation below the level of the lesion.
The posterior spinal arteries supply the posterior columns (posterior third of the spinal cord). Infarction of the posterior columns results in the loss of proprioceptive, vibration and two-point discrimination.
The spinal cord normally ends at the level of L1 or L2 in an adult and L3 in a newborn.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 126
Incorrect
-
The typical fluid compartments in a normal 70kg male are:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: intracellular>extracellular
Explanation:Body fluid compartments in a 70kg male:
Total volume=42L (60% body weight)
Intracellular fluid compartment (ICF) =28L
Extracellular fluid compartment (ECF) = 14LECF comprises:
Intravascular fluid (plasma) = 3L
Extravascular fluid = 11LExtravascular fluids comprises:
Interstitial fluid = 10.5L
Transcellular fluid = 0.5L -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 127
Incorrect
-
What part of the male urethra is completely surrounded by Bucks fascia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spongiosa part
Explanation:Bucks fascia refers to the layer of loose connective tissue, nerves and blood vessels that encapsulates the penile erectile bodies, the corpa cavernosa and the anterior part of the urethra, including the entirety of the spongiose part of the urethra.
It runs with the external spermatic fascia and the penile suspensory ligament.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 128
Incorrect
-
An elderly man complains of a vague lump near his stomach to his physician. On examination, the lump is visible on coughing and is found within Hesselbach's triangle.
Which of the following is true regarding the borders for this triangle?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inguinal ligament inferiorly, inferior epigastric vessels laterally, lateral border of rectus sheath medially
Explanation:The inguinal triangle of Hesselbach is an important clinical landmark on the posterior wall of the inguinal canal. It has the following relations:
Inferiorly – medial third of the inguinal ligament
Medially – lower lateral border of the rectus abdominis
Laterally – inferior epigastric vesselsDirect inguinal hernia is when the bowel bulges directly through the abdominal wall. These hernias usually protrude through Hesselbach’s triangle
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 129
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man, presents to the emergency department. He explains that an hour ago, he experienced central chest pain, which moved down his left arm.
On ECG, elevation in the ST-segment was noted in the anterior leads. He undergoes emergency percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) which requires the cardiologist to access the heart via the femoral artery.
Where is the surface marking for identifying the femoral artery?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Midway between the ASIS and the pubic symphysis
Explanation:The surface marking for locating the femoral artery is the mid-inguinal point, which is the halfway point between the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) and the pubic symphysis.
The other mentioned options are not specific for any landmark.
However, it is important to note the difference between the mid inguinal point and the midpoint of the inguinal ligament, which is travels from the ASIS to the pubic tubercle.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 130
Incorrect
-
When there is a relation between two variables due to the existence of a confounding factor, this association is termed as:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Indirect
Explanation:When the association among any two classes of object is defined by the presence of a third entity it is termed as indirect association. For an instance, the age of the employee may affect the rate of pay, which would have implications on job satisfaction. So, in this example, an indirect relationship between age and job satisfaction exists due to a third party i.e. rate of pay.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 131
Incorrect
-
Very small SI units are easily expressed using mathematical prefixes.
One femtolitre is equal to which of the following volumes?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 0.000, 000, 000, 000, 001 L
Explanation:Small measurement units are denoted by the following SI mathematical prefixes:
1 deci = 0.1
1 milli = 0.001
1 micro = 0.000001
1 nano = 0.000000001
1 pico = 0.000000000001
1 femto = 0.000000000000001 (used to measure red blood cell volume)
1 atto = 0.000000000000000001 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
-
-
Question 132
Incorrect
-
A 66-year-old man, present to the emergency department with dyspepsia. On history taking, he admits to being a heavy smoker, and on testing is noted to be positive for a helicobacter pylori infection. A few evenings later, he suffers from haematemesis and collapses.
What vessel is most likely to be involved?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastroduodenal artery
Explanation:The most likely of the differential diagnosis in this case is a duodenal ulcer located on the posterior abdominal wall.
These can cause an erosion of the abdominal wall, eventually affecting the gastroduodenal artery and resulting in major bleeding and haematemesis.
Gastroduodenal artery supplies the pylorus, proximal part of the duodenum, and indirectly to the pancreatic head (via the anterior and posterior superior pancreaticoduodenal arteries)
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 133
Incorrect
-
Question 134
Incorrect
-
A 4-year-old boy with status epilepticus was brought to ER and has already received two doses of intravenous lorazepam but is still continuing to have seizures.
Which of the following drug would be best for his treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phenytoin 20 mg/kg IV
Explanation:When the convulsion lasts for five or more than five minutes, or if there are recurrent episodes of convulsions in a 5 minute period without returning to the baseline, it is termed as Status Epilepticus.
The first priority in the patient with seizures is maintaining the airway, breathing, and circulation.Guideline for the management of Status Epilepticus in children by Advanced Life Support Group is as follow:
Step 1 (Five minutes after the start of seizures):
If intravascular access is available start treatment with lorazepam 0.1 mg/kg IV
If no intravascular access then give buccal midazolam 0.5 mg/kg or rectal diazepam 0.5 mg/kg.Step 2 (Ten minutes after the start of seizure):
If the convulsions continue then a second dose of benzodiazepine should be given. Senior should be called on-site and phenytoin should be prepared.
No more than two doses or benzodiazepines should be given (including any doses given before arrival at the hospital)
If still no IV access then obtain intraosseous access (IO).Step 3 (Ten minutes after step 2)
Senior help along with anaesthetic/ICU help should be sought
Phenytoin 20 mg/kg IV over 20 minutes
If the seizure stops before the full dose of phenytoin is given then the infusion should be completed as this provides up to 24 hours of anticonvulsant effect
In children already receiving phenytoin as treatment for epilepsy then an alternative is phenobarbitone 20 mg/kg IV over five minutes
Once the phenytoin is started, senior staff may wish to give rectal paraldehyde 0.4 mg/kg although this is no longer included in the routine algorithm recommended by APLS.Step 4 (20 minutes after step 3)
If 20 minutes after starting phenytoin the child remains in status epilepticus then rapid sequence induction of anaesthesia with thiopentone and a short acting paralysing agent is needed and the child transferred to paediatric intensive care.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 135
Incorrect
-
What can an outbreak of flu that has spread globally be termed as?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pandemic
Explanation:An epidemic is declared when the increase in a give disease is above a certain level in a specific interval of time.
An endemic is the general, usual level of a disease in a population at a particular time.
A pandemic is an epidemic that is spread across many countries and continents.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 136
Incorrect
-
What is the most sensitive method of detecting an intra-operative air embolism?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Transoesophageal echocardiogram
Explanation:An intra-operative air embolism occurs when air becomes trapped in the blood vessels during surgery.
A transoesophageal echocardiography (OE) uses invasive echocardiography to monitor the integrity and performance of the heart. It is the gold standard as it provides real-time imaging of the heart to enable early diagnosis and treatment.
Precordial doppler ultrasonography can also be used to detect into-operative air emboli. It is non-invasive and more practical, but is less sensitive.
A change in end-tidal CO2 could be indicative of and increase in physiological dead-space, but could also be indicative of any processes that reduces the excretion or increases the production of CO2, making it non-specific.
A transoesophageal stethoscope can be used to listen for the classic mill-wheel murmur produced by a large air embolus.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 137
Incorrect
-
A survey aimed at finding out mean glucose level in individuals that took antipsychotics medicines was conducted. The results were as follows:
Mean Value: 7mmol/L
Standard Deviation: 6mmol/L
Sample Size: 9
Standard Error: 2mmol/L
For a confidence interval of 95%, which of the option presents the correct range up to the nearest value?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3-11 mmol/L
Explanation:Key Point: While finding out confidence intervals, standard errors are used. Standard error and Standard deviation are two distinct entities and should not be confused.
For 99.7% confidence interval, you can find the range as follows:
Multiply the standard error by 3.
Subtract the answer from mean value to get the lower limit.
Add the answer obtained in step 1 from the mean value to get the upper limit.
The range turns out to be 1-13 mmol/L.
For a confidence interval of 68%, multiply the standard error with 1 and repeat the process. The range found for this interval is 3-11 mmol/L.
For a 95% confidence interval. Standard Error is multiplied by 1.96 which gives us the limit ranging from 3.08 to 10.92 mmol/L which could be approximated to 3-11 mmol/L.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 138
Incorrect
-
Regarding bilirubin, which one of the following statement is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Conjugated bilirubin is stored in the gall bladder
Explanation:Bilirubin is the tetrapyrrole and a catabolic product of heme. 70-90% of bilirubin is end product of haemoglobin degradation in the liver.
Bilirubin circulates in the blood in 2 forms; unconjugated and conjugated bilirubin.
Unconjugated bilirubin is insoluble in water. It travels through the bloodstream to the liver, where it changes from insoluble into a soluble form (i.e.; unconjugated into conjugated form).
This conjugated bilirubin travels from the liver into the small intestine and the gut bacteria convert bilirubin into urobilinogen and then into urobilin (not urobilin to urobilinogen). A very small amount passes into the kidneys and is excreted in urine.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 139
Incorrect
-
The phenomenon that the patients behaved in a different manner when they know that they are being observed is termed as?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hawthorne effect
Explanation:Hawthorne effect explains the change in any behavioural aspect owing to the awareness that the person is being observed.
Simpson’s Paradox explains the association developed when the data from several groups is combined to form a single larger group.The remaining terms are made up.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 140
Incorrect
-
The rapid depolarisation phase of the myocardial action potential is caused by:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rapid sodium influx
Explanation:The cardiac action potential has several phases which have different mechanisms of action as seen below:
Phase 0: Rapid depolarisation – caused by a rapid sodium influx.
These channels automatically deactivate after a few msPhase 1: caused by early repolarisation and an efflux of potassium.
Phase 2: Plateau – caused by a slow influx of calcium.
Phase 3 – Final repolarisation – caused by an efflux of potassium.
Phase 4 – Restoration of ionic concentrations – The resting potential is restored by Na+/K+ATPase.
There is slow entry of Na+into the cell which decreases the potential difference until the threshold potential is reached. This then triggers a new action potentialOf note, cardiac muscle remains contracted 10-15 times longer than skeletal muscle.
Different sites have different conduction velocities:
1. Atrial conduction – Spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibres at 1 m/sec2. AV node conduction – 0.05 m/sec
3. Ventricular conduction – Purkinje fibres are of large diameter and achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec, the fastest conduction in the heart. This allows a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
-
-
Question 141
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old female, presents to the emergency department via ambulance. The paramedics have noted the patient's symptoms as unilateral left-sided weakness of the upper and lower limbs, homonymous hemianopia and dysphasia.
She has previous personal and family history of deep vein thromboses.
The report of her CT scan suggests a stroke involving the middle cerebral artery.
Post recovery, she undergoes further diagnostic investigations to determine the cause of a stroke at her young age. She is eventually diagnosed with a hypercoagulable state disease called Factor V Leiden thrombophilia.
An emboli in the middle cerebral artery results in dysfunction of which areas of the brain?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Frontal, temporal and parietal lobes
Explanation:The middle cerebral artery is a part of the circle of Willis system of anastomosis within the brain, and the most often affected by brain pathology.
The primary function of the middle cerebral artery is providing oxygenated blood to related regions of the brain. It achieves this by giving off different branches to supply different brain regions, namely:
The cortical branches: which supplies the primary motor and somatosensory cortical areas of some parts of the face, trunk and upper limbs.
The small central branches: which supply the basal ganglia and internal capsule via the lenticulostriate vessels.
The superior division: which supplies the lateral inferior frontal lobe, including the Broca area which is responsible for production of speech, language comprehension, and writing.
The inferior division: which supplies the superior temporal gyrus, including Wernicke’s area which controls speech comprehension and language development.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 142
Incorrect
-
Which of the following nerves is responsible for carrying taste sensation from the given part of the tongue?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anterior two thirds of tongue - facial nerve
Explanation:Taste sensation from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is carried by chorda tympani, a branch of the facial nerve.
The general somatic sensation of the anterior two-third of the tongue is supplied by the lingual nerve, a branch of the mandibular nerve.
Both general somatic sensation and taste from the posterior third of the tongue are carried by the glossopharyngeal nerve.
All the muscles of the tongue except palatoglossus are supplied by the hypoglossal nerve whereas palatoglossus is supplied by the vagus nerve. (This is because palatoglossus is the only tongue muscle derived from the fourth branchial arch)
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 143
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old businesswoman presents to the emergency department complaining of shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain. Her work requires her to travel internationally frequently. The consultant makes a diagnosis and treats her.
Now, the consultant recommends placing a filter that will prevent future incidents. A needle is placed into the femoral vein and passed up into the abdomen to insert the filter.
What is true regarding the organ where the filter is placed for this patient's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is located posteriorly to the peritoneum
Explanation:The patient likely suffers from pulmonary embolism due to her history of frequent international travels. A filter is placed in the inferior vena cava to decrease the risk of future episodes of pulmonary embolism. The IVC filter is a small, wiry device that can catch blood clots and stop them from going into the heart and lungs. Your IVC is a major vessel that brings deoxygenated blood from the lower body to the heart, from where it is pumped into the lungs.
The filter is placed via a thin catheter inserted into the femoral vein in the groin. The catheter is gently moved up into your IVC, and a filter is introduced.
The IVC is a retroperitoneal organ.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 144
Incorrect
-
Which of the following options will likely play a major role in falling coronary blood flow?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intracoronary artery infusion of endothelin-1
Explanation:Endothelin-1 is considered as a powerful coronary vasoconstrictor, produced by the endothelium. It acts to counter the effects of Nitric oxide (NO).
Neuropeptide-Y, angiotensin1, cocaine, vasopressin, and nicotine are some other coronary vasoconstrictors.Chronotrophy and inotrophy occur after the activation of sympathetic nerve fibres, which in turn results in increasing the myocardial oxygen consumption, leading to increased coronary blood flow via local metabolic processes.
An alpha-receptor mediated coronary vasoconstrictor effect is also initiated that usually competes with vasodilation, resulting in decreased coronary vascular resistance. Some of the other dilators include hydrogen ions, CO2, potassium, and lactic acid. The action of endothelial NO synthase (eNOS) on L-arginine results in the formation of NO. This messenger also plays a vital role in the regulation of coronary blood flow via vasodilation, inhibition of platelet aggression, and decreasing vascular resistance.
Adenosine is considered as purine nucleoside that forms after the breakdown of adenosine triphosphate (ATP). Adenosine binds to adenosine type 2A (A2A) receptors in coronary vascular smooth muscles. These are coupled to the Gs protein. This mechanism leads to hyperpolarisation of muscle cells, resulting in relaxation and increased coronary blood flow.GTN is an veno and arteriolar dilator, which behaves as pro-drug with NO.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 145
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements most accurately describes a drug's efficacy or intrinsic activity?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Describes the ability of a drug to produce a therapeutic effect
Explanation:An agonist is a molecule with intrinsic efficacy and affinity for a receptor. The ability of a drug-receptor interaction to produce a maximal response is referred to as intrinsic efficacy or activity. Efficacy also refers to a drug’s ability to have a therapeutic or beneficial effect. Although the potencies of morphine and fentanyl differ, they both have the same intrinsic efficacy.
The amount of drug required to produce a given effect is referred to as potency. If drug X is effective in a dose of 100 mcg, its potency is greater than if drug Y is effective in a dose of 10 mg.
The therapeutic index, also known as the margin of safety, is a ratio of the lethal or serious side effect dose of a drug divided by the therapeutic dose of the same drug.
The term bioavailability refers to the ability of a substance to be absorbed. The area under a curve (AUC) of a graphic plot of plasma concentration and time is used to calculate oral bioavailability. It’s used to figure out how much of a drug to take and when to take it.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 146
Incorrect
-
A pre-operative evaluation for a trans-sphenoidal pituitary adenectomy is being performed on a 57-year-old woman. Her vision is causing her problems.
A macroadenoma compressing the optic chiasm is visible on MRI.
What is the most likely visual field defect to be discovered during an examination?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bitemporal hemianopia
Explanation:The pituitary gland plays a crucial role in the neuro-endocrine axis. It is located at the base of the skull in the sella turcica of the sphenoid bone. It is connected superiorly to the hypothalamus, third ventricle, and visual pathways, and laterally to the cavernous sinuses, internal carotid arteries, and cranial nerves III, IV, V, and VI.
Pituitary tumours make up about 10-15% of all intracranial tumours. The majority of adenomas are benign. Over-secretion of pituitary hormones (most commonly prolactin, growth hormone, or ACTH), under-secretion of hormones, or localised or generalised pressure effects can all cause symptoms.
Compression of the optic chiasm can result in visual field defects, the most common of which is bitemporal hemianopia. This is caused by compression of the nasal retinal fibres, which carry visual impulses from temporal vision across the optic chiasm to the contralateral sides before continuing to the optic tracts.
The interruption of the visual pathways distal to the optic chiasm causes a homonymous visual field defect. The loss of the right or left halves of each eye’s visual field is referred to as homonymous hemianopia. It’s usually caused by a middle or posterior cerebral artery territory stroke that affects the occipital lobe’s optic radiation or visual cortex.
Binasal hemianopia is a condition in which vision is lost in the inner half of both eyes (nasal or medial). It’s caused by compression of the temporal visual pathways, which don’t cross at the optic chiasm and instead continue to the ipsilateral optic tracts. Binasal hemianopia is a rare complication caused by the internal carotid artery impinging on the temporal (lateral) visual fibres.
A monocular visual loss (that is, loss of vision in only one eye) can be caused by a variety of factors, but if caused by nerve damage, the damage would be proximal to the optic chiasm on the ipsilateral side.
A central scotoma is another name for central visual field loss. Every normal mammalian eye has a scotoma, also known as a blind spot, in its field of vision. The optic disc is a region of the retina that lacks photoreceptor cells and is where the retinal ganglion cell axons that make up the optic nerve exit the retina. When both eyes are open, visual signals that are absent in one eye’s blind spot are provided for the other eye by the opposite visual cortex, even if the other eye is closed.
Scotomata can be caused by a variety of factors, including demyelinating disease such as multiple sclerosis, damage to nerve fibre layer in the retina, methyl alcohol, ethambutol, quinine, nutritional deficiencies, and vascular blockages either in the retina or in the optic nerve.
Bilateral scotoma can occur when a pituitary tumour compresses the optic chiasm, causing a bitemporal paracentral scotoma, which then spreads out to the periphery, causing bitemporal hemianopsia. A central scotoma in a pregnant woman could be a sign of severe pre-eclampsia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 147
Incorrect
-
Which of the following best describes the phenomenon of higher partial pressures of oxygen in the alveoli (PAO2) in the lung apices when in the upright position?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) ratio is greater than in the basal units
Explanation:The ventilation/perfusion ratio varies in different areas of the lung. In an upright individual, although both ventilation and perfusion increase from the apex to the base of the lung, the increase in ventilation is less than the increase in blood flow. As a result, the normal V̇ /Q̇ ratio at the apex of the lung is much greater than 1 (ventilation exceeds perfusion), whereas the V̇ /Q̇ ratio at the base of the lung is much less than 1 (perfusion exceeds ventilation).
There is more volume in the alveoli found in the apices than in the bases of the lungs. This is due to the weight of the lung stretching the apical alveoli to the maximum size. Also, the weight of the lungs pull themselves away from the chest wall, creating a negative intrapleural pressure. These factors, however, do not directly affect the PAO2.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 148
Incorrect
-
An individual who recently moved his residence from the plains to the mountains will experience immediately which physiologic response to high altitude and hypoxia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased cardiac output
Explanation:A person remaining at high altitudes for days, weeks, or years becomes more and more acclimatized to the low PO2, so it causes fewer deleterious effects on the body.
After acclimatization, it becomes possible for the person to work harder without hypoxic effects or to ascend to still higher altitudes. The principal means by which acclimatization comes about are (1) a great increase in pulmonary ventilation, (2) increased numbers of red blood cells, (3) diffusing capacity of the lungs, (4) increased vascularity of the peripheral tissues, and (5) increased ability of the tissue cells to use oxygen despite low PO2.
The cardiac output often increases as much as 30% immediately after a person ascends to high altitude but then decreases back toward normal over a period of weeks as the blood haematocrit increases, so the amount of oxygen transported to the peripheral body tissues remains about normal.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 149
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old woman's blood pressure readings in the clinic are 170/109 mmHg, 162/100 mmHg and 175/107 mmHg and her routine haematology, biochemistry, and 12-lead ECG are normal.
She is assessed on the day of surgery prior to laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair and is found to be normally fit and well. Documentation of previous blood pressure measurements from her general practitioner in the primary healthcare setting are not available.
What is your next course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Proceed with scheduled surgery without treatment
Explanation:The AAGBI and the British Hypertension Society has published guidelines for the measurement of adult blood pressure and management of hypertension before elective surgery.
The objective is to ensure that patients admitted for elective surgery have a known systolic blood pressure below 160 mmHg and diastolic blood pressures below 100 mmHg. The primary health care teams, if possible, should ensure that this is the case and provide evidence to the pre-assessment clinic staff or on admission.
Avoiding cancellation on the day of surgery because of white coat hypertension is a secondary objective.
Patients with blood pressures below 180 mmHg systolic and 110 mmHg diastolic (measured in the preop assessment clinic), who present to pre-operative assessment clinics without documented evidence of primary care blood pressures should proceed to elective surgery.
In this question, the history/assessment does not appear to point to obvious end-organ damage so there is no indication for further investigation for secondary causes of hypertension or an echocardiogram at this point. Further review and treatment at this point is not required.
However, you should write to the patient’s GP and encourage serial blood pressure measurements in the primary health care setting.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 150
Incorrect
-
A subject in a study is to take 100 mg of tramadol tablets for the next eight hours. Urine samples will be taken during the 8-hour course, which will undergo analysis via liquid chromatography.
Given the following metabolites, which one would have the highest analgesic property?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mono-O-desmethyl-tramadol
Explanation: -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 151
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old woman arrives at the emergency room after intentionally ingesting 2 g of amitriptyline.
A Glasgow coma score of 6 was discovered, as well as a pulse rate of 140 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 80/50 mmHg.
Which of the following ECG changes is most likely to indicate the onset of life-threatening arrhythmias?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prolongation of the QRS complex
Explanation:Arrhythmias and/or hypotension are the most common causes of death from tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) overdose.
The quinidine-like actions of tricyclic antidepressants on cardiac tissues are primarily responsible for their toxicity. Conduction through the His-Purkinje system and the myocardium slows as phase 0 depolarisation of the action potential slows. QRS prolongation and atrioventricular block are caused by slowed impulse conduction, which also contributes to ventricular arrhythmias and hypotension.
Arrhythmias can also be caused by abnormal repolarization, impaired automaticity, cholinergic blockade, and inhibition of neuronal catecholamine uptake, among other things.
Acidaemia, hypotension, and hyperthermia can all exacerbate toxicity.
The anticholinergic effects of tricyclic antidepressants, as well as the blockade of neuronal catecholamine reuptake, cause sinus tachycardia. Sinus tachycardia is usually well tolerated and does not require treatment. It can be difficult to tell the difference between sinus tachycardia and ventricular tachycardia with QRS prolongation.
A QRS duration of more than 100 milliseconds indicates a higher risk of arrhythmia and should be treated with systemic sodium bicarbonate.
The tricyclic is dissociated from myocardial sodium channels by serum alkalinization, and the extracellular sodium load improves sodium channel function.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
-
-
Question 152
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old man presented with a bitemporal hemianopia with enlarged hands and feet. On examination, he was found to be hypertensive.
Which of the following correctly explains the cause of his visual field defect?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pituitary macroadenoma secreting growth hormone (GH)
Explanation:Pituitary macroadenoma is a benign tumour with growth larger than 10mm (those under 10mm are called microadenoma)
Compression of optic chiasm by pituitary adenoma is responsible for causing visual field defects like bitemporal hemianopia, optic neuropathy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 153
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following patients presenting for elective surgery has an American Society of Anaesthesiologists (ASA) preoperative physical status grading of III?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A 50-year old man with a BMI of 41 with a reduced exercise tolerance
Explanation:The ASA physical status classification system is a system for assessing the fitness of patients before surgery. It was last updated in October 2014.
ASA I A normal healthy patient
ASA II A patient with mild systemic disease
ASA III A patient with severe systemic disease
ASA IV A patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life
ASA V A moribund patient who is not expected to survive without the operation
ASA VI A declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposesA 20-year old woman who is 39-weeks pregnant with no other medical conditions – ASA II
A 35-year-old man with a BMI of 29 with a good exercise tolerance who smokes-ASA II
A 50-year old man with a BMI of 41 with a reduced exercise tolerance -ASA III
A 65-year old woman with a BMI of 34 with treated hypertension with no functional limitations-ASA II
A 73-year old man who has had a TIA ten-weeks ago but has a good exercise tolerance and is a non-smoker-ASA IV
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
-
-
Question 154
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements about the central venous pressure (CVP) waveform is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Third degree heart block causes canon A waves
Explanation:The central venous pressure (CVP) waveform depicts changes of pressure within the right atrium. Different parts of the waveform are:
A wave: which represents atrial contraction. It is synonymous with the P wave seen during an ECG. It is often eliminated in the presence of atrial fibrillation, and increased tricuspid stenosis, pulmonary stenosis and pulmonary hypertension.
C wave: which represents right ventricle contraction at the point where the tricuspid valve bulges into the right atrium. It is synonymous with the QRS complex seen on ECG.
X descent: which represents relaxation of the atrial diastole and a decrease in atrial pressure, due to the downward movement of the right ventricle as it contracts. It is synonymous with the point before the T wave on ECG.
V wave: which represents an increase in atrial pressure just before the opening of the tricuspid valve. It is synonymous with the point after the T wave on ECG. It is increased in the background of a tricuspid regurgitation.
Y descent: which represents the emptying of the atrium as the tricuspid valve opens to allow for blood flow into the ventricle in early diastole.
Canon waves: which refer to large waves present on the trace that do not correspond to the A, V or C waves. They usually occur in a background of complete heart blocks or junctional arrythmias.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
-
-
Question 155
Incorrect
-
Among the following options, which one can not be the value of Pearson's correlation coefficient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1.5
Explanation:The correlation coefficient gives us the idea about relation between two parameters. i.e. to what extent change in parameter A could prompt a change in parameter B. The numerical value of correlation coefficient could not be greater than 1.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 156
Incorrect
-
With regards to the internal carotid artery, which of these statements is correct.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Enters the skull and divides into the anterior and middle cerebral arteries
Explanation:The internal carotid artery passes through the carotid canal in the petrous part of the temporal bone into the cranial cavity. It does NOT groove the sphenoid bone.
The internal carotid artery gives off no branches in the neck and is a terminal branch of the common carotid artery.
These structures pass between the external and internal carotid arteries: the styloglossus and stylopharyngeus muscles, the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX), and the pharyngeal branch of the vagus.
Accompanied by its sympathetic plexus, the internal carotid artery, passes through the cavernous sinus and is crossed by the abducent nerve.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 157
Incorrect
-
Regarding the plateau phase of the cardiac potential, which electrolyte is the main determinant?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ca2+
Explanation:The cardiac action potential has several phases which have different mechanisms of action as seen below:
Phase 0: Rapid depolarisation – caused by a rapid sodium influx.
These channels automatically deactivate after a few msPhase 1: caused by early repolarisation and an efflux of potassium.
Phase 2: Plateau – caused by a slow influx of calcium.
Phase 3 – Final repolarisation – caused by an efflux of potassium.
Phase 4 – Restoration of ionic concentrations – The resting potential is restored by Na+/K+ATPase.
There is slow entry of Na+into the cell which decreases the potential difference until the threshold potential is reached. This then triggers a new action potentialOf note, cardiac muscle remains contracted 10-15 times longer than skeletal muscle.
Different sites have different conduction velocities:
1. Atrial conduction – Spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibres at 1 m/sec2. AV node conduction – 0.05 m/sec
3. Ventricular conduction – Purkinje fibres are of large diameter and achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec, the fastest conduction in the heart. This allows a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 158
Incorrect
-
When administered as an infusion, which of the following medicines causes a reflex tachycardia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phentolamine
Explanation:The ?-2 adrenoceptor has three subtypes (2a, 2b and 2c). The receptors are generally presynaptic, meaning they prevent noradrenaline from being released at nerve endings. Both the central and peripheral nerve systems are affected by the ?-2 agonists. ?-2 agonists cause drowsiness, analgesia, and euphoria centrally in the locus coeruleus (in the brainstem), lower the MAC of volatile anaesthetic drugs, and are used to treat acute withdrawal symptoms in chronic opioid addicts.
The most common impact of ?-2 agonists on heart rate is bradycardia. The adrenoreceptors ?-1 and ?-2 are blocked by phenoxybenzamine.
Clonidine is a selective agonist for the ? -2 receptor, having a 200:1 affinity ratio for the ?-2: ?-1 receptors, respectively.
Tizanidine is similar to clonidine but has a few key variances. It has the same sedative, anxiolytic, and analgesic characteristics as clonidine, although for a shorter period of time and with less effect on heart rate and blood pressure.
Dexmedetomidine, like clonidine, is a highly selective ?-2 adrenoreceptor agonist having a higher affinity for the ?-2 receptor. In the case of ?-2: ?-1 receptors, the affinity ratio is 1620:1. It has a biphasic blood pressure impact and induces a brief rise in blood pressure and reflex bradycardia (activation of ?-2b subtypes of receptors in vascular smooth muscles), followed by a reduction in sympathetic outflow from the brainstem and hypotension/bradycardia.
A prodrug is methyldopa. It blocks the enzyme dopa-decarboxylase, which converts L-dopa to dopamine (a precursor of noradrenaline and adrenaline). It is also converted to alpha-methyl noradrenaline, a centrally active agonist of the ?-2 adrenoreceptor. These two processes contribute to its blood pressure-lowering effect. Without a rise in heart rate, cardiac output is generally maintained. The heart rate of certain patients is slowed.
Phentolamine is a short-acting antagonist of peripheral ?-1 and ?-2 receptors that causes peripheral vascular resistance to reduce and vasodilation to increase. It’s used to treat hypertensive situations that aren’t life threatening (e.g. hypertension from phaeochromocytoma).
A baroreceptor reflex commonly causes reflex tachycardia when systemic vascular resistance drops.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 159
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old man, has been scheduled for a splenectomy. For this procedure, he requires a urethral catheter.
Where does resistance first occur during the insertion of a catheter?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Membranous urethra
Explanation:The membranous urethra is the shortest part of the urethra and the least dilatable part of it.
This is as a result of it being surrounded by the external urethral sphincter which is made up of striated muscle and controls voluntary urine flow from the bladder to the urethra.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 160
Incorrect
-
Patient’s having disease (Test Positive: 60, Test Negative:40)
Patient’s not having the disease (Test Positive:20, Test Negative: 80)
This is a result of a new tumour marker blood test, that was performed on 200 women for breast cancer screening. The director of the screening programme ask you to evaluate the observations and inform them the specificity of this new test.
Which one of the following figure you will relay to the programme director?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 80%
Explanation:The positive predictive value is the ratio of patients truly diagnosed as positive to all those who had positive test results. In this case, this is 60/(60+20)=75%.
The negative predictive value is the ratio of patients truly diagnosed as negative to all those who had negative test results. In this case, this is 80/(80+40)=67%.
The sensitivity is the ratio of patients with the disease who test positive i.e. true positive patients to the total number of people with the disease. In this case, this is 60/(60+40)=60%.
The specificity is the ratio of people who don’t have the disease who test negative i.e. true negatives to the total number of people without the disease. In this case, this is 80/(20+80)=80%.
70% is not the result of any screening measurements
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 161
Incorrect
-
The Control of Substances Hazardous to Health (COSHH) regulations recommend air supply rates to specific environments. Which of the following statements is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Preparation rooms receive a volume of 0.1 m3 of air per second
Explanation:Control of Substances Hazardous to Health (COSHH) was established by government under the Health and Safety at Work act in 1989. Their employers work on identification and management of those substances that are dangerous to health. The implications for anaesthetists include gas scavenging, equipment contamination and environmental safety. Adequate ventilation is required in areas where anaesthetic gases are present. The minimum air supply that is legally required in each specific area is: Operating theatres: 0.65 m3/second. Anaesthetic rooms: 0.15 m3/s. Preparation rooms: 0.1 m3/s. Recovery rooms need 15 air changes per hour
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
-
-
Question 162
Incorrect
-
A breakthrough lipid-lowering therapy for stroke had a number needed to treat (NNT) of 20 for the prevention of the primary end-point. These results can be best described as:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: For 1000 patients treated with active therapy, there would be 50 fewer strokes
Explanation:Number needed to treat (NNT) is a time specific epidemiological measure that indicates how many patients would be require for an intervention to prevent one additional bad outcome. A perfect NNT would be 1, where everyone improves with treatment, thus the higher the NNT, the less effective the treatment.
Thus if you treat 1000 patients then you will expect to have 50 fewer strokes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 163
Incorrect
-
Which medical gas cylinders have the correct colour codes?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oxygen cylinders have a black body with white shoulders
Explanation:The following are the colour codes for medical gas cylinders:
Oxygen cylinder has a dark body with white shoulders.
Nitrous oxide is French blue. Air encompasses a grey body with dark and white quarters on the shoulders.
Entonox contains a French blue body with white and blue quarters on the shoulders.
Carbon dioxide barrels are grey in colour.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
-
-
Question 164
Incorrect
-
Which one is true with respect to the first rib?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Scalenus anterior is inserted onto the scalene tubercle
Explanation:Specific knowledge of the anatomical relationship is required to address this examination question.
The first rib is small and thick and contains a single facet that articulates at the costovertebral joint. It consist of a head, neck and shaft but a discrete angle is deficit. Along the side the shaft is indented with a groove for the subclavian artery and the lower brachial plexus trunk. Front to the scalene tubercle is a space for the subclavian vein.
The first rib has the scalenus front muscle joined to the scalene tubercle, isolating the subclavian vein (anteriorly) from the subclavian artery (posteriorly). This anatomical relationship is of major significance with respect to subclavian vein cannulation.
The 1st rib has the following relationships:
superior: lower trunk of the brachial plexus, subclavian vessels, clavicle.
inferior: intercostal vessels and nerves
posterior and inferior: pleura
anterior: sympathetic trunk (over neck)
superior intercostal artery, ventral T1 nerve root
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 165
Incorrect
-
A post-operative patient was brought to the recovery room after completion of dilation and curettage. Her medical history revealed that she was maintained on levodopa for Parkinson's disease. The nurses administered ondansetron 4 mg and dexamethasone 8 mg prior to transfer from the operating room to the recovery room. However, an additional antiemetic agent is warranted.
Which of the following agents should be prescribed to the patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cyclizine 50 mg IV
Explanation:The Beers criteria, a US set of criteria for good prescribing in the older patient, preclude the use of metoclopramide in Parkinson’s disease. The Adverse Reactions Register of the UK Committee on Safety of Medicines (CSM) for the years 1967 to 1982 contained 479 reports of extrapyramidal reactions in which metoclopramide was the suspected drug; 455 were for dystonic-dyskinetic reactions, 20 for parkinsonism and four for tardive dyskinesia. Effects can occur within days of initiation of treatment and may take months to wear off.
Other antiemetics are available, such as cyclizine (Valoid), domperidone and ondansetron, which would be more appropriate to use in those with Parkinson’s disease.
Cyclizine is a piperazine derivative with histamine H1 receptor antagonist and anticholinergic activity. It is used for the treatment of nausea, vomiting, (particularly opioid-induced vomiting), vertigo, motion sickness, and labyrinthine disorders.
Prochlorperazine is an antipsychotic known to cause tardive dyskinesia, tremor and parkinsonian symptoms and is therefore likely to exacerbate Parkinson’s disease. Prochlorperazine is not favoured for older patients because of the increased risk of stroke and transient ischaemic attack (TIA).
Droperidol and phenothiazine are also potent antagonists on D2 receptors and must also be avoided.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 166
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old female is undergoing a lymph node biopsy from the posterior triangle of his neck.
What structure forms the posterior boundary of the posterior triangle of the neck?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trapezius muscle
Explanation:The sternocleidomastoid muscle divides the neck into anterior and posterior triangles on both sides of the neck.
The posterior triangle has the following boundaries:
anteriorly – sternocleidomastoid muscle
posteriorly – trapezius
roof – investing layer of deep cervical fascia
floor – prevertebral fascia overlying splenius capitis, levator scapulae, and the scalene musclesThe contents of the posterior triangle are:
1. fat
2. lymph nodes (level V)
3. accessory nerve
4. cutaneous branches of the cervical plexus – greater auricular nerve, transverse cervical nerve, lesser occipital nerve, supraclavicular nerve (A major branch of this plexus is the phrenic nerve, which arises from the anterior divisions of spinal nerves C3-C5)
5. inferior belly of omohyoid
6. branches of the thyrocervical trunk (transverse cervical and suprascapular arteries)
7. third part of the subclavian artery
8. external jugular vein -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 167
Incorrect
-
You have always been curious about the effects of statins. While going through a study, something ticks you off and makes you think that they are way more common then the data suggests and are mostly under reported. In search of some concrete evidence, you decide to conduct a study of your own. While doing research, you come across a recent study that highlights the long term effects of statins.
Which of the following types of study could that have been?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clinical trial, Phase 4
Explanation:In general practice, majority of phase 3 trials and some of the trials conducted in phase 2 are randomized. Because phase 4 trials require a huge sample size, they are not randomized as much. The primal reason behind conducting phase 3 trials is to test the efficiency and safety in a significant sample population. At this point it is assumed that the drug is effective up to a certain extent.
During a case-control study, subjects that exhibit outcomes of interest are compared with those who don’t show the expected outcome. The extent of exposure to a particular risk factor is then matched between cases and controls. If the exposure among cases surpasses controls, it becomes a risk factor for the outcome that is being studied.
Pilot studies are conducted on a lower and much smaller level, to assess if a randomized controlled trial of the crucial components of a study will be plausible.
Phase 4 trials are the ones that are conducted after its established that the drug is effective and is approved by the regulating authority for use. These trials are concerned with the side effects and potential risks associated with the long term usage of the drug.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 168
Incorrect
-
In the adrenal gland:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Catecholamine release is mediated by cholinergic nicotinic transmission
Explanation:The adrenal (suprarenal) gland is composed of two main parts: the adrenal cortex, which is the largest and outer part of the gland, and the adrenal medulla. The adrenal cortex consists of three zones: 1. Zona glomerulosa (outermost layer) is responsible for the production of mineralocorticoids, mainly aldosterone, which regulates blood pressure and electrolyte balance. 2. Zona fasciculata (middle layer) is responsible for the production of glucocorticoids, predominantly cortisol, which increases blood sugar levels via gluconeogenesis, suppresses the immune system, and aids in metabolism. It also produces 11-deoxycorticosterone and corticosterone in addition to cortisol. 3. Zona reticularis (innermost layer) is responsible for the production of gonadocorticoids, mainly dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA), which serves as the starting material for many other important hormones produced by the adrenal gland, such as oestrogen, progesterone, testosterone, and cortisol. It is also responsible for administering these hormones to the reproductive regions of the body.
The adrenal medulla majorly secretes epinephrine (adrenaline), and norepinephrine in small quantity. Both hormones have similar functions and initiate the flight or fight response.
Catecholamine is mediated by cholinergic nicotinic transmission through changes in sympathetic nervous system (T5 – T11), being increased during stress and hypoglycaemia.
Blood supply to the adrenal gland is by these three arteries: superior suprarenal arteries, middle suprarenal artery and inferior suprarenal artery. Venous drainage is via the suprarenal vein to the left renal vein or directly to the inferior vena cava on the right side. There is no portal (venous) system between cortex and medulla.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 169
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old man has multiple stab wounds to his abdomen and is rushed into the emergency. Resuscitative measures are performed, but the patient remains hypotensive.
Emergency laparotomy is performed, and it reveals a vessel is bleeding profusely at a certain level of lumbar vertebrae. The vessel is the testicular artery and is ligated.
At which lumbar vertebrae is the testicular artery identified?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: L2
Explanation:The important landmarks of vessels arising from the abdominal aorta at different levels of vertebrae are:
T12 – Coeliac trunk
L1 – Left renal artery
L2 – Testicular or ovarian arteries
L3 – Inferior mesenteric artery
L4 – Bifurcation of the abdominal aorta
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 170
Incorrect
-
If a large volume of 0.9% N. saline is administered during resuscitation, it is most likely to cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis
Explanation:Crystalloids recommended for fluid resuscitation include 0.9% N saline and Hartmann’s solution(a physiological solution). 0.9% N. saline is not a physiological solution for the following reasons:
Compared with the normal range of 98-102 mmol/L, its chloride concentration is high (154 mmol/L)
It lacks calcium, magnesium, glucose and potassium
It does not have bicarbonate or bicarbonate precursor buffer necessary to maintain plasma pH within normal limitsThere is a difference in the activity (concentration) of strong ions at a physiological pH. This imbalance can explain abnormalities of acid base balance. A normal strong ion difference (SID) is in the order of 40.
SID = ([Na+] + [K+] + [Ca2+] + [Mg2+]) – ([Cl-] + [lactate] + [SO42-])
This imbalance is made up with the weaker anions to maintain electrical neutrality.
Administration of a large volume of 0.9% normal saline during resuscitation results in excessive chloride administration and this impairs renal bicarbonate reabsorption. The SID of 0.9% normal saline is 0 (Na+ = 154mmol/L and Cl- = 154mmol/L = 154 – 154 = 0). A large volume of NS will decrease the plasma SID causing an acidosis.Other causes of a hyperchloremic acidosis are:
Diabetic ketoacidosis
Total Parenteral Nutrition
Overdose of ammonium chloride and hydrochloric acid
Gastrointestinal losses of bicarbonate like in diarrhoea and pancreatic fistula
Proximal renal tubular acidosis with failure of bicarbonate reabsorption -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 171
Incorrect
-
The single most important prerequisite for accuracy in measuring basal metabolic rate (BMR) using indirect calorimetry is performing the test:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: In a neutral thermal environment
Explanation:The basal metabolic rate (BMR) is the amount of energy required to maintain basic bodily functions in the resting state. The unit is Watt (Joule/second) or calories per unit time.
Indirect calorimetry measures O2 consumption and CO2 production where gases are collected in a canopy which is the gold standard, Douglas bag, face-mask dilution technique or interfaced with a ventilator.
The BMR can be calculated using the Weir formula:
Metabolic rate (kcal per day) = 1.44 (3.94 VO2 + 1.11 VCO2)
The BMR should be measured while lying down and at rest with the following conditions met:
It should follow a 12 -hour fast
No stimulants ingested within a 12-hour period
It should be done in a neutral thermal environment (between 20°C-25°C) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 172
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is an accurate fact about the vertebral column?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Herniation of intervertebral disc between the fifth and sixth cervical vertebrae will compress the sixth cervical nerve root
Explanation:The vertebral (spinal) column is the skeletal central axis made up of approximately 33 bones called the vertebrae.
Cervical disc herniations occur when some or all of the nucleus pulposus extends through the annulus fibrosus. The most commonly affected discs are the C5-C6 and C6-C7 discs. Each vertebrae has a corresponding nerve root which arises at a level above it. This means that a hernation of the C5-C6 disc will cause a compression of the C6 nerve root.
The foramen transversarium is a part of the transverse process of each cervical vertebrae, however, the vertebral artery only runs through the C1-C6 foramen transversarium.
The costal facets are the point of joint formation between a rib and a vertebrae. As such, they are only present on the transverse processes of T1-T10.
The lumbar vertebrae do not form a joint with the ribs, nor do they possess a foramina in their transverse process.
Intervertebral discs are thickest in the cervical and lumbar regions of the spinal column. However, there are no discs between C1 and C2.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 173
Incorrect
-
You are asked about the relative risk associated with a drug. You happened to have read a report in which the same drug was compared with a placebo and your initial thoughts after reading the study were that the drug will have significant side effects.
What do you expect the value of relative risk to be?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Greater than 1
Explanation:Risk ratio (relative risk) compares the probability of an event in an exposed (experimental) group to that of an event in the unexposed (control) group.
A relative risk of 1 suggests that there is no discernible difference in the outcome whether or not it has been exposed.
A relative risk of less than 1 indicates that probability of occurrence of an event is less if there is exposure.
A relative risk of greater than 1 highlights that an event is most likely to occur if it was provided exposure. Since you believe that exposure (the new drug) would have side effects, the value should be greater than 1.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 174
Incorrect
-
An arterial pressure transducer is supposedly in direct correlation to change, thus it is dependent on zero gradient drift and zero offset. Which of the following values will best compensate for the gradient drift?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 0 mmHg and 200 mmHg
Explanation:Since an arterial pressure transducer, and every other measuring apparatus, is prone to errors due to offset and gradient drifts, regular calibration is required to maintain accuracy of the instrument. The two-point calibration pressure values of 0 mmHg and 200 mmHg are within the physiologic range and can best compensate for the gradient drift.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
-
-
Question 175
Incorrect
-
The clavipectoral fascia is penetrated by the cephalic vein to terminate in which of the listed veins?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Axillary
Explanation:The cephalic vein is a superficial vein that runs through the forearm and the arm, before draining into the axillary vein where it terminates.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 176
Incorrect
-
A patient visits the radiology department for a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan (MRI). The presence of metal implants must be ruled out prior to the scan.
In a strong magnetic field, which of the following metals is the safest?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chromium
Explanation:Ferromagnetism is the property of a substance that is magnetically attracted and can be magnetised indefinitely. A material is said to be paramagnetic if it is attracted to a magnetic field. A substance is said to be diamagnetic if it is repelled by a magnetic field.
Cobalt, iron, gadolinium, neodymium, and nickel are ferromagnetic.
Gadolinium is a ferromagnetic rare earth metal that is ferromagnetic below 20 degrees Celsius (its Curie temperature). MRI scans are enhanced with gadolinium-based contrast media.
When ferromagnetic materials are exposed to a magnetic field, they can cause a variety of issues like magnetic field interactions, heating, and image artefacts.
Titanium, lead, chromium, copper, aluminium, silver, gold, and tin are non ferromagnetic.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
-
-
Question 177
Incorrect
-
A morbidly obese (BMI=48) patient has the following co-morbidities: type II diabetes mellitus and hypertension. It is recommended for the patient to undergo bariatric surgery.
If the patient is laid flat for induction of anaesthesia, what physiologic changes of the respiratory system is the most important to consider?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Functional residual capacity will decrease
Explanation:A decrease in the functional residual capacity (FRC) is the most important physiologic change to consider for such patients.
FRC is the sum of the expiratory reserve volume and the residual volume. It is the resting volume of the lung, and is an important marker for lung function. During this time, the alveolar pressure is equal to the atmospheric pressure. When morbidly obese individuals lie supine, the FRC decreases by as much as 40% because the abdominal contents push the diaphragm into the thoracic cavity.
Chest wall compliance is expected to reduce because of fat deposition surrounding adjacent structures.
Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is expected to increase, and peak expiratory flow is expected to decrease, however the decrease in FRC is more important to consider because of the risk of hypoxia secondary to premature airway closure and ventilation-perfusion mismatch.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 178
Incorrect
-
A balanced general anaesthetic including a muscle relaxant is administered at induction. It is observed that the train-of-four count is two after two hours, with no further doses of the muscle relaxant.
What is most likely reason for this?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mivacurium with plasma cholinesterase deficiency
Explanation:Mivacurium is metabolised primarily by plasma cholinesterase at an In vitro rate of about 70% that of succinylcholine. Mivacurium is contraindicated in patients with genetic and acquired plasma cholinesterase deficiencies.
The clearance of atracurium is by Hoffman degradation and ester hydrolysis in the plasma and is independent of both hepatic and renal function.
Rocuronium is eliminated primarily by the liver after metabolises to a less active metabolite, 17-desacetyl-rocuronium. Its duration of action is not affected much by renal impairment.
Vecuronium undergoes hepatic metabolism into 3-desacetyl-vecuronium which has 50-80% the activity of the parent drug. It undergoes biliary (40%) and renal excretion (30%). The aminoglycoside antibiotics possess additional neuromuscular blocking activity. The potency of gentamicin > streptomycin > amikacin. Calcium can be used to reverse the muscle weakness produced by gentamicin but not neostigmine. When vecuronium and gentamycin are given together the effect on neuromuscular blockade is synergistic.
Significant residual neuromuscular block 2 hours after the administration of these drugs is unlikely In this scenario.
Any recovery from neuromuscular blockade with suxamethonium in a patient with deficiency of plasma cholinesterase demonstrate four twitches on a train of four count.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 179
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is true about monoamine oxidase (MOA) enzymes?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type A and type B are found in the liver and brain
Explanation:Monoamine oxidase (MOA) enzymes are responsible for the catalyses of monoamine oxidative deamination. It assists the degradation of serotonin, norepinephrine (NE) and dopamine.
They are found in the mitochondria of most central and peripheral nerve tissues.
There are 2 different types:
Type A: Whose main function it to inactivate dopamine, tyramine, norepinephrine and 5-hydroxytryptamine. In addition to the nervous system, it is also found in the liver, brain gastrointestinal tract, pulmonary endothelium and placenta
Type B: Whose main function is to inactivate dopamine, tyramine, tryptamine and phenylethylamine. In addition to the nervous system, it is also found in the liver, brain (especially in the basal ganglia) and blood platelets. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 180
Incorrect
-
It is safe to perform a central neuraxial block without an increased risk of developing a vertebral canal haematoma in?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A patient on clopidogrel 7 days after last dose
Explanation:The incidence of vertebral canal haematoma following neuraxial blockade was reported (third National Audit Project (NAP3)) as 0.85 per 100 000 (95% CI 0-1.8 per 100 000). The incidence following neuraxial blockade in coagulopathic patients is likely to be higher hence coagulopathy remains a relative contraindication for conducting a spinal or epidural. When indicate, risk and benefits are weighed, and it is only performed by experienced personnel in this case.
Acceptable time to perform a block after the last dose of rivaroxaban in a patient with a creatinine clearance of greater than 30mL/minute is 18 hours.
Acceptable time to perform a block after the last dose of subcutaneous LMWH as prophylaxis is 12 hours.
Acceptable time to perform a block after the last dose of subcutaneous UFH as prophylaxis is 4 hours.
Acceptable time to perform a block after the last dose of thrombolytic therapy (streptokinase or alteplase) is 10 days.
Clopidogrel should be stopped 7 days prior to surgery, particularly if a central neuraxial procedure is considered.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 181
Incorrect
-
A 20-year-old woman, presented to her GP after swallowing a tiny, sharp bone and is referred to an ENT. She explains that the bone feels stuck in her throat. A laryngoscopy is performed and it shows the bone is lodged in the piriform recess.
Name the nerve at highest risk of damage by the bone?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Internal laryngeal nerve
Explanation:The internal laryngeal nerve lies inferior to the piriform recess mucous membrane, placing it at high risk of irritation or damage by sharp foreign objects which become lodged in the recess.
Any attempt to retrieve lodged foreign objects must be done careful as there is also a high risk of damage during this process.
The other mentioned nerves are not at risk of being affected.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 182
Incorrect
-
An 82-year-old male has severe abdominal pain that is out of proportion to the examination. He is a known case of atrial fibrillation and diverticulitis. Suspecting mesenteric ischemia, he was thoroughly investigated, and a mesenteric angiography shows ischemia of the left colic flexure.
Which artery gives off branches that supply this region directly?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery (IMA)
Explanation:Mesenteric ischemia is ischemia of the blood vessels of the intestines. It can be life-threatening, especially if the small intestine is involved.
The inferior mesenteric artery originates 3-4 cm above the bifurcation of the abdominal aorta.
The left colic artery branches off the inferior mesenteric artery to supply the following:
– distal 1/3 of the transverse colon
– descending colonAt approximately the left colic flexure (splenic flexure), a transition occurs in the blood supply of the GI tract. The SMA supplies the proximal part to the flexure, and the IMA supplies the part distal to the flexure. This is why the left colic flexure is a watershed area and is prone to ischemia exacerbated by atherosclerotic changes or hypotension. The dominant arterial supply of the splenic flexure is usually from the left colic artery, but it may also get collaterals from the left branch of the middle colic artery.
The AMA and PMA do not exist.
The splenic artery directly supplies the spleen and has branches that supply the stomach and the pancreas.
The proximal two-thirds of the transverse colon is supplied by the middle colic artery, a branch of the SMA. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 183
Incorrect
-
When nitrous oxide is stored in cylinders at room temperature, it is a gas.
Which of its property is responsible for this?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Critical temperature
Explanation:The temperature above which a gas cannot be liquefied no matter how much pressure is applied is its critical temperature. The critical temperature of nitrous oxide is 36.5°C
The minimum pressure that causes liquefaction is the critical pressure of that gas.
The Poynting effect refers to the phenomenon where mixing of liquid nitrous oxide at low pressure with oxygen at high pressure (in Entonox) leads to formation of gas of nitrous oxide.
There is no relevance of molecular weight to this question. it does not change with phase of a substance.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 184
Incorrect
-
During a stabbing incident, a 30-year-old injured his inferior vena cava. What number of functional valves can be usually found in this vessel?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 0
Explanation:The inferior vena cava is formed by the union of the right and left common iliac veins. The inferior vena cava has no functional valves like the one-way valves commonly found in many veins. The forward flow to the heart is driven by the differential pressure created by normal respiration.
The absence of functional valves has an important clinical role when cannulating during cardiopulmonary bypass.
There is a valve that is non-functioning called the eustachian valve that lies at the junction of the IVC and the right atrium. This valve has a role to help direct the flow of oxygen-rich blood through the right atrium to the left atrium via the foramen ovale during fetal life. It has no specific function in adult life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 185
Incorrect
-
A 70-year-old man presents with central crushing chest pain that radiates to the jaw in the emergency department. He has associated symptoms of nausea and diaphoresis.
A 12 lead ECG is performed. ST-elevation is observed in leads V2-V4. The diagnosis of anteroseptal ST-elevation myocardial infarction is made.
Which coronary vessel is responsible for this condition and runs in the interventricular septum on the anterior surface of the heart to reach the apex?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left anterior descending artery
Explanation:The heart receives blood supply from coronary arteries. The right and left coronary arteries branch off the aorta and supply oxygenated blood to all heart muscle parts.
The left main coronary artery branches into:
1. Circumflex artery – supplies the left atrium, side, and back of the left ventricle. The left marginal artery arises from the left circumflex artery. It travels along the obtuse margin of the heart.
2. Left Anterior Descending (LAD) artery – supplies the front and bottom of the left ventricle and front of the interventricular septumThe left anterior descending coronary artery is the largest coronary artery. It courses anterior to the interventricular septum in the anterior interventricular groove, extending from the base of the heart to its apex. Around the apex, the LAD anastomosis with the terminal branches of the posterior descending artery (branch of the right coronary artery).
Atherosclerosis or thrombotic occlusion of LAD causes myocardial infarction in large areas of the anterior, septal, and apical portions of the heart muscle. It can lead to a serious deterioration in heart performance.Occlusion of the LAD causes anteroseptal myocardial infarction, which is evident on the ECG with changes in leads V1-V4. Occlusion of the left circumflex artery causes lateral, posterior, or anterolateral MI. However, as it does not run towards the apex in the interventricular septum of the heart, it is not the correct answer for this question.
The right coronary artery branches into:
1. Right marginal artery
2. Posterior descending arteryThe right coronary artery supplies the right atrium, right ventricle, interatrial septum, and the inferior posterior third of the interventricular septum. Occlusion of the right coronary artery causes inferior MI, which is indicated on ECG with changes in leads II, III, and aVF.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 186
Incorrect
-
A study of 1500 participants is designed to determine the normal range for a number of parameters in a certain population.
Analysis has revealed that there is a strong positive correlation between height and forced expiratory volume (FEV1).
Which of the following statistical technique can be utilized to predict FEV1 at any given height in this cohort?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Linear regression
Explanation:A forest plot is a graphical representation that summarizes the findings of several research, such as a meta-analysis of a series of randomized controlled trials.
The Kaplan-Meier estimate shows survival over time, for example, plotting the number of patients still alive seven years after chemotherapy for lung cancer.
Fisher’s exact test similarly uses contingency tables to assess statistical significance, however, it is typically used when sample sizes are small.
Chi-square test assesses whether an association exists between two categorical variables using the observed and expected frequencies. For instance, is social class (I-V) related to body mass index (BMI) category? Using the observed and anticipated frequencies, the Chi-square test determines whether a connection exists between two categorical variables. For example, is socio-economic status related to BMI category?
Linear regression is a technique which attempts to model the relationship between two variables by fitting a linear equation to observed data. Linear regression uses correlation between two continuous variables. As correlation only indicates the strength of an association only, it cannot be used to forecast the change in one variable when a second variable is altered.
This equation takes the form y = mx + c, where ‘y’ is the dependent variable, ‘x’ is the independent variable, ‘m’ is the slope of the line and ‘c’ is the intercept. In this example, for a range of heights, it would be possible to map a line of best fit to a scatter plot and thus predict the forced expiratory volume (FEV1) for an individual.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 187
Incorrect
-
Which type of muscle contains the highest amount of mitochondria?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cardiac muscle
Explanation:Among the types of muscles, cardiac muscles have the greatest number if mitochondria due to the heart energy requirements.
Approximately 35% of the cardiac muscle volume is due to the mitochondria. While in skeletal and smooth muscles, it comprises 3-8% of the muscle volume.
Type I muscle fibre has a slow contraction velocity, with a red fibre colour, and predominantly uses oxidative phosphorylation to produce a sustained contraction. It contains more mitochondria and myoglobin than type II, and is often used for endurance training.
Type II muscle fibre has a fast contraction velocity, a white fibre colour, and predominantly uses anaerobic glycolysis. It has fewer mitochondria and myoglobin, and is often used for weight or resistance training and sprinting.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 188
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements below would best describe the receptor response to an opioid mu receptor agonist such as fentanyl?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intrinsic activity determines maximal response
Explanation:Agonists activate the receptor as a direct result of binding to it with a characteristic affinity. Moreover, intrinsic activity of an agonist to its receptor determines the ability to create a maximal response.
Responses to low doses of a drug usually increase in direct proportion to dose. As doses increase, however, the response increment diminishes; finally, doses may be reached at which no further increase in response can be achieved. The relationship formed between the dose and response when plotted graphically is hyperbolic. This also shows that even at low receptor occupancy, a maximal response may be produced.
Antagonists bind to receptors in the same affinity as agonists, but they have no intrinsic efficacy. They do not activate generation of signal. Instead, they interfere with the ability of the agonist to activate the receptor.
Partial agonists are similar to full agonists in that they have similar affinity to the target receptor, but they produce a lower response than full agonists.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 189
Incorrect
-
Which of the following, at a given PaO2, increases the oxygen content of arterial blood?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A reduced erythrocyte 2,3-diphosphoglycerate level
Explanation:The oxygen content of arterial blood can be calculated by the following equation:
(10 x haemoglobin x SaO2 x 1.34) + (PaO2 x 0.0225).
This is the sum of the oxygen bound to haemoglobin and the oxygen dissolved in the plasma.Oxygen content x cardiac output = The amount of oxygen delivered to the tissues in unit time which is known as the oxygen flux.
Any factor that increases the metabolic demand will encourage oxygen offloading from the haemoglobin in the tissues and this causes the oxygen dissociation curve (ODC) to shift to the right. This subsequently reduced the oxygen content of arterial blood.
Conditions like fever, metabolic or respiratory acidosis lowers the oxygen content and shifts the ODC to the right.
A low level of 2,3 diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG) is usually related to an increased oxygen content as there is less offloading, and so the ODC is shifted to the left.So for a given PaO2, a high blood oxygen content is related to any factors that can shift the ODC to the left and not to the right.
A low haematocrit usually means that there is a decreased haemoglobin concentration, and therefore is associated with decreased oxygen binding to haemoglobin.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 190
Incorrect
-
A graph was plotted after administration of fentanyl infusion to a patient. The following are the x- and y-axis of the graph:
X-axis: Dose of fentanyl
Y-axis: Mu receptor occupancy, measured using positron emission tomography
Given the data above, what would be the best representation of the graph if the data on the x-axis are converted to logarithms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rectangular hyperbola to sigmoid curve
Explanation:The dose-response curve plots the graph of the dose (drug concentration) versus the response. As doses increase, the response increment diminishes; finally, doses may be reached at which no further increase in response can be achieved. This relation between drug concentration and effect is traditionally described by a hyperbolic curve. When the x-axis is plotted in log scale, the graph yields a sigmoid curve.
Efficacy (Emax) and potency (EC50) can be derived from this curve. Emax is the maximal effect achievable, with increasing concentration of a drug. EC50 is the concentration of the drug, wherein half of the maximal effect is achieved.
When the graph is plotted using a log [response/1-response] against log dose, the sigmoid curve becomes a straight line (Hill plot). A graph that transforms from a straight line to exponential curve is mathematically incorrect. A graph that transforms from either a wash-in or wash-out exponential curve to a straight line comes from an initial set of data plotted against time, to a logarithmic transformation of the initial data set against time.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 191
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statement is true about Loop diuretics?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Are useful in the treatment of acute heart failure
Explanation:Loop diuretics act by causing inhibition of Na+ K+ 2Cl– symporter present at the luminal membrane of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle.
Furosemide, torsemide, bumetanide, ethacrynic acid, furosemide, piretanide, tripamide, and mersalyl are the important members of this group
The main use of loop diuretics is to remove the oedema fluid in renal, hepatic, or cardiac diseases. Thus they are useful in the treatment of acute heart failure. These can be administered i.v. for prompt relief of acute pulmonary oedema (due to vasodilatory action).
Hypokalaemia, hypomagnesemia, hyponatremia, alkalosis, hyperglycaemia, hyperuricemia, and dyslipidaemia are seen with both thiazides as well as loop diuretics
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 192
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old woman with a BMI of 24 kg/m2 consumes four glasses of wine on an empty stomach. Her serum alcohol are levels measured over the following five hours. The serum alcohol level of 30-year-old man with the same BMI and alcohol consumption is also measured over the same duration.
The peak concentration of alcohol is found to be greater in the woman than in the man.
Which of these offers best explanation for this observation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lower volume of distribution
Explanation:The blood alcohol concentration depends on:
-The rate of alcohol absorption from the gastrointestinal tract
-The volume of distribution of alcohol in the body, and
-The rate of elimination of alcohol from the body.Total body water is approximately 50% in a female as compared to 60% in a typical male. This means that the volume of distribution of alcohol is lower in female compared with men. This is the principal reason for higher peak in alcohol levels.
About 4% of ingested alcohol is metabolised by the liver accounting for first pass metabolism and 0.4% is metabolised by gastric alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH). The absorbed alcohol is NOT distributed to fat cells but it is distributed throughout the water compartments (plasma, interstitial and intracellular) of the body. Women have very little gastric ADH, which further influences this exaggerated rise.
85-98% of the alcohol is oxidised by the liver to acetaldehyde and then to acetate. The metabolic pathway initially observes first order kinetics and then saturation or zero order kinetics leading to peaks in alcohol levels.
Clearance of ethanol per unit lean body mass is lower in male. The calculated alcohol elimination rate and liver volume per kilogram of lean body mass were 33% and 38% higher in women than in men, respectively.
Available evidence in the literature about the relationship of alcohol metabolism to the phases of the menstrual cycle is conflicting.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 193
Incorrect
-
An study on post-operative nausea and vomiting (PONV) among paediatric patients who underwent tonsillectomy showed a decrease in incidence from 10% to 5% following a new management protocol.
Which of the following best estimates the numbers needed to treat (NNT) for one additional patient to benefit from the new management of PONV?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 20
Explanation:The Number Needed to Treat (NNT) is the number of patients you need to treat to prevent one additional bad outcome. For example, if a drug has an NNT of 5, it means you have to treat 5 people with the drug to prevent one additional bad outcome.
To calculate the NNT, you need to know the Absolute Risk Reduction (ARR); the NNT is the inverse of the ARR:
NNT = 1/ARR
Where ARR = CER (Control Event Rate) – EER (Experimental Event Rate).
NNTs are always rounded up to the nearest whole number.
In this case, the NNT can be computed as follows:
ARR = 10% – 5% = 0.05
NNT = 1/0.05 = 20
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 194
Incorrect
-
Which of the following lung parameters can be measured directly using spirometry?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vital capacity
Explanation:Spirometry measures the total volume of air that can be forced out in one maximum breath, that is the total lung capacity (TLC), to maximal expiration, that is the residual volume (RV).
It is conducted using a spirometer which is capable of measuring lung volumes using techniques of dilution.
During spirometry, the following measurements can be determined:
Forced vital capacity (FVC)/vital capacity (VC): The maximum volume of air exhaled in one single forced breathe.
Forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1)
FEV1/FVC ratio
Peak expiratory flow (PEF): the maximum amount of air flow exhaled in one blow.
Forced expiratory flow (mid expiratory flow): the flow at 25%, 50% and 75% of FVC
Inspiratory vital capacity (IVC): The maximum volume of air inhaled after a full total expiration.Anatomical dead space is measured using a single breath nitrogen washout called the Fowler’s method.
Residual volume and total lung capacity are both measured using the body plethysmograph or helium dilution
The functional residual capacity is usually measured using a nitrogen washout or the helium dilution technique.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
-
-
Question 195
Incorrect
-
Concerning the physical principles of temperature measurement by a thermocouple, which of the following best describes it?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The bimetallic strip has a junction potential proportional to temperature
Explanation:A thermocouple, or a thermal junction, is temperature measuring device consisting of a pair of dissimilar metal (bimetallic) wires or strips joined together. Typically, copper and constantan (an alloy of 55% copper and 45% nickel) are used. When there is contact between these metals, a small voltage is generated in the order of millivolts. The magnitude of the thermojunction electromotive force (emf) is proportional to applied temperature (the Seebeck effect). This physical principle is applied in the measurement of temperature. The electromotive force at the measuring junction is proportional to temperature.
Two wires with different coefficients of expansion, joined together, can be used as a switch for thermostatic control.
Semiconductors are NOT used in thermocouple. The resistance of the measuring junction of a thermocouple is irrelevant.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
-
-
Question 196
Incorrect
-
A randomized controlled trail has been conducted to compare two drugs used for the early management of acute severe asthma in the emergency department. After being allocated to the randomized groups, many patients have been excluded due to deleterious effect to the drugs.
How the data would be analysed?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Include the patients who drop out in the final data set
Explanation:Randomized controlled trails will be analysed by the intention-to-treat (ITT) approach. It provides unbiased comparisons among the treatment groups. ITT analyses are done to avoid the effects of dropout, which may break the random assignment to the treatment groups in a study.
ITT analysis is a comparison of the treatment groups that includes all patients as originally allocated after randomization.
In order to include such participants in an analysis, outcome data could be imputed which involves making assumptions about the outcomes in the lost participants.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 197
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is true when testing for statistical significance?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The probability associated with a type I error is the significance level
Explanation:The null hypothesis states that there is no significant difference between two groups.
The alternative hypothesis states that there is a significant difference between two groups.
A type I error (false positive) occurs when a null hypothesis is rejected when it should be accepted.
A type II error (false negative) occurs when the alternative hypothesis is rejected when it should be accepted.
The probability determines the rejection of a null hypothesis.
The level of significance is set at p <0.05.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 198
Incorrect
-
Among the following which one is not a criterion for the assessment of causality?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sensitivity
Explanation:For establishing a cause effect relationship, following criteria must be met:
1. Coherence & Consistency
2. Temporal Precedence
3. Specificity
As can be seen, sensitivity (The probability of a positive test) is not among these deciding factors..
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 199
Incorrect
-
A 49-year-old woman is admitted to hospital. She is scheduled for surgery and is undergoing preoperative assessment.
As part of the preoperative assessment, her functional capacity is estimated. At 50kg in weight, she is able to cycle along a flat surface at a speed of 10-14 miles/hour (8 metabolic equivalents or METs).
Provide the best estimated value of oxygen consumption (VO2) for eight METs.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1400 mL/minute
Explanation:Oxygen consumption (VO2) refers to the optimal amount of oxygen used by the body during exercise.
It is calculated mathematically by:
VO2 = 3.5 x 50 x 8 = 1400 mL/kg/minute
where,
1 MET = 3.5 mL O2/kg/minute is utilized by the body.
Note:
1 MET Eating
Dressing
Use toilet
Walking slowly on level ground at 2-3 mph
2 METs Playing a musical instrument
Walking indoors around house
Light housework
4 METs Climbing a flight of stairs
Walking up hill
Running a short distance
Heavy housework, scrubbing floors, moving heavy furniture
Walking on level ground at 4 mph
Recreational activity, e.g. golf, bowling, dancing, tennis
6 METs Leisurely swimming
Leisurely cycling along the flat (8-10 mph)
8 METs Cycling along the flat (10-14 mph)
Basketball game
10 METs Moderate to hard swimming
Competitive football
Fast cycling (14-16 mph) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
-
-
Question 200
Incorrect
-
Which of the following anaesthetic agent is most potent with the lowest Minimal Alveolar Concentration (MAC)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Isoflurane
Explanation:The clinical potency of the anaesthetic agent is measured using minimal alveolar concentration(MAC).
MAC and oil: gas partition coefficient is inversely related. Anaesthetic agent Oil/gas partition coefficient and Minimal alveolar concentration (MAC) is given respectively as
Desflurane 18 6
Isoflurane 90 1.2
Nitrous oxide 1.4 104
Sevoflurane 53.4 2
Xenon 1.9 71With these data, we can conclude Isoflurane is the most potent with the highest oil/gas partition coefficient of 90 and the lowest MAC of 1.2
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)