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  • Question 1 - In the gastric mucosa, which of the following cells is known to secrete...

    Correct

    • In the gastric mucosa, which of the following cells is known to secrete gastric lipase?

      Your Answer: Chief cell

      Explanation:

      Chief cells produce pepsinogen and gastric lipase. Parietal cells produce stomach acid and intrinsic factor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The reflex responses activated by cold are controlled by which area? ...

    Incorrect

    • The reflex responses activated by cold are controlled by which area?

      Your Answer: Anterior hypothalamus

      Correct Answer: Posterior hypothalamus

      Explanation:

      The posterior nucleus of the hypothalamus is responsible for thermoregulation and thermogenesis. Studies have shown that the neurons in the posterior hypothalamus which mediate the reflex of shivering are sensitive to temperature; damage to this nucleus produces hypothermia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      25.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is the role of cyclin and cyklin-dependent kinases in mitosis: ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the role of cyclin and cyklin-dependent kinases in mitosis:

      Your Answer: Activation of growth factors

      Correct Answer: Phosphorylation of proteins that make up pre-replication complexes

      Explanation:

      There are certain regulators of the cell cycles that mediate progression through the cell cycle. These are cyclins and cyklin-dependent kinases (CDKs). They form a complex that phosphorylates protein involved in the cell cycle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - There is normally an inverse relationship between the hepatic artery and portal venous...

    Correct

    • There is normally an inverse relationship between the hepatic artery and portal venous blood flow. This is maintained by:

      Your Answer: All of the options are correct

      Explanation:

      There is an inverse relationship between the blood flow of the hepatic artery and portal vein. It is maintained by several factors such as chemicals like adenosine, neurohumoral substances, the morphology of the hepatic portal system (especially the ability of hepatic sinusoids to collapse) and myogenic control which causes vasoconstriction or vasodilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following is the most common route of hepatitis B transmission...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the most common route of hepatitis B transmission worldwide?

      Your Answer: Sexual transmission

      Correct Answer: Perinatal transmission

      Explanation:

      The virus is transmitted by exposure to infectious blood or body fluids. Infection around the time of birth or from contact with other people’s blood during childhood is the most frequent method by which hepatitis B is acquired in areas where the disease is common. In areas where the disease is rare, intravenous drug use and sexual intercourse are the most frequent routes of infection. Perinatal transmission is the most common and without intervention, a mother who is positive for HBsAg has a 20% risk of passing the infection to her offspring at the time of birth. This risk is as high as 90% if the mother is also positive for HBeAg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - With regards to the function of the p53 protein produced by the p53...

    Incorrect

    • With regards to the function of the p53 protein produced by the p53 gene, which of the following statements is incorrect?

      Your Answer: It is a nuclear transcription factor that increases production of a protein that enhances cell cycle enzymes

      Correct Answer: It permits repair of mutations and other defects in RNA

      Explanation:

      The p53 protein is a crucial tumor suppressor and plays several key roles in maintaining cellular integrity:

      1. Nuclear transcription factor: p53 is a nuclear transcription factor that regulates the expression of various genes involved in cell cycle control, DNA repair, apoptosis, and senescence.
      2. DNA repair: p53 permits repair of mutations and other defects in DNA (not RNA). It activates the transcription of genes involved in DNA repair mechanisms, allowing the cell to correct errors before proceeding with the cell cycle.
      3. Cell cycle regulation: p53 can induce the expression of p21, a protein that inhibits cyclin-dependent kinases, thereby halting the cell cycle at the G1/S checkpoint to allow time for DNA repair or to trigger apoptosis if the damage is irreparable. Mutations in p53 may fail to halt the cell cycle, allowing mutations to persist and potentially leading to cancer.
      4. Apoptosis: If DNA damage is extensive and cannot be repaired, p53 triggers apoptosis to prevent the propagation of damaged cells.
      5. Suppression of proto-oncogenes: p53 indirectly contributes to the suppression of proto-oncogenes by preventing the proliferation of cells with damaged DNA, thereby reducing the risk of oncogenic transformation.

      Given these functions, the statement that p53 “permits repair of mutations and other defects in RNA” is incorrect, as p53 is primarily involved in the repair of DNA, not RNA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      31.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 28 year old male arrives at the clinic complaining of fever, arthralgia...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old male arrives at the clinic complaining of fever, arthralgia and urethritis. On examination, the ankle is swollen and there is a pustular rash on the dorsal foot. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Disseminated gonorrhoea

      Explanation:

      DGI presents as two syndromes: 1) a bacteremic form that includes a triad of tenosynovitis, dermatitis, and polyarthralgias without purulent arthritis and 2) a septic arthritis form characterized as a purulent arthritis without associated skin lesions. Many patients will have overlapping features of both syndromes. Time from infection to clinical manifestations may range from 1 day to 3 months. There is no travel history and the rash of Lyme disease is not purulent. Reactive arthritis presents with conjunctivitis, urethritis and arthritis usually with a red hot tender and swollen joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Myocardial fibers have a resting membrane potential of approximately: ...

    Incorrect

    • Myocardial fibers have a resting membrane potential of approximately:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: -90mv

      Explanation:

      The resting membrane potential of the mammalian heart is about -90 mv.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - The pathogen in variant Creutzfeldt Jacobs disease is an example of a: ...

    Incorrect

    • The pathogen in variant Creutzfeldt Jacobs disease is an example of a:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prion

      Explanation:

      Types of Creutzfeldt Jacobs Disease (CJD) include:1. variant – This is thought to be caused by the consumption of food contaminated with prions, which also cause BSE.2. sporadic – This accounts for 85% of cases of CJD. 3. familial – This accounts for the majority of the other 15% cases of CJD.4. iatrogenic – This form of CJD arises from contamination with tissue from an infected person, usually as the result of a medical procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 14-year-old girl presents with short stature, webbed neck and primary amenorrhoea.Given the...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl presents with short stature, webbed neck and primary amenorrhoea.Given the likely clinical diagnosis, which hormone replacement is most crucial over the longer term?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oestrogen

      Explanation:

      This girl most likely has Turner syndrome (TS) also known as 45,X, a condition in which a female is partly or completely missing an X chromosome. Signs and symptoms vary among those affected. Often, a short and webbed neck, low-set ears, low hairline at the back of the neck, short stature, and swollen hands and feet are seen at birth. Typically, they are without menstrual periods, do not develop breasts, and are unable to have children. Heart defects, diabetes, and low thyroid hormone occur more frequently. Most people with TS have normal intelligence. Many, however, have troubles with spatial visualization such as that needed for mathematics. Vision and hearing problems occur more often. Turner syndrome is not usually inherited from a person’s parents. No environmental risks are known and the mother’s age does not play a role. As a chromosomal condition, there is no cure for Turner syndrome. However, much can be done to minimize the symptoms including prescribing growth hormone, either alone or with a low dose of androgen, and oestrogen replacement therapy which is crucial long term for maintaining good bone integrity, cardiovascular health and tissue health

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - During which phase of meiosis does exchange of genetic material occur accounting for...

    Incorrect

    • During which phase of meiosis does exchange of genetic material occur accounting for genetic diversity between individuals:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prophase 1

      Explanation:

      Prophase 1 has been divided into five different stages ( laptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene ans diakinesis). In prophase 1 chromosomes are going to condense to become visible, each chromosome will contain two chromatids that are joined at the centromere. the nucleolus and nuclear envelope are going to disintegrate. the homologous chromosomes will form tetrad and crossing over will occur between the chromosomes (random exchange of genes), the point of exchange is known as the chiasmata, this increases genetic diversity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - The pressure in the portal circulation is normally adjusted in the: ...

    Incorrect

    • The pressure in the portal circulation is normally adjusted in the:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sinusoids

      Explanation:

      The pressure in the portal circulation depends on the pressure of the hepatic sinusoids mainly because the direction of transport of nutrients in the portal vein occurs from the portal vein to the hepatic sinusoids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 52-year-old man has squamous-cell carcinoma of his lower lip. Which of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man has squamous-cell carcinoma of his lower lip. Which of the following is most likely to be a feature of this type of carcinoma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is capable of metastasising via the lymphatics

      Explanation:

      Squamous-cell skin cancer usually presents as a hard lump with a scaly top but can also form an ulcer. Onset is often over months and it is more likely to spread to distant areas than basal cell cancer vie the lymphatics. The greatest risk factor is high total exposure to ultraviolet radiation from the Sun. Other risks include prior scars, chronic wounds, actinic keratosis, lighter skin, Bowen’s disease, arsenic exposure, radiation therapy, poor immune system function, previous basal cell carcinoma, and HPV infection. While prognosis is usually good, if distant spread occurs five-year survival is ,34%

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Mean intra pleural pressure at rest with inspiration can reach: ...

    Incorrect

    • Mean intra pleural pressure at rest with inspiration can reach:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: -6 mmHg

      Explanation:

      It is a negative pressure as it is lower than the atmospheric pressure. It can start from -2.5 and reach around -6 mmHg

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Cholesterol is synthesized in all of these organs EXCEPT? ...

    Incorrect

    • Cholesterol is synthesized in all of these organs EXCEPT?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stomach

      Explanation:

      The liver primarily synthesizes about 20-25% of the total daily cholesterol. Cholesterol is also synthesized to smaller extents in the adrenal glands, reproductive organs (as cholesterol is the precursor of sex hormones), skin and is also produced in the intestines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following foods contain Vitamin B 12? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following foods contain Vitamin B 12?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Liver, meat

      Explanation:

      No fungi, plants, nor animals (including humans) are capable of producing vitamin B12. Only bacteria and archaea have the enzymes needed for its synthesis. Proved food sources of B12 are animal products (meat, fish, dairy products).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - The right border of the heart corresponds to which line on the surface...

    Incorrect

    • The right border of the heart corresponds to which line on the surface of the chest?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Line drawn from the 3rd right costal cartilage to the 6th right costal cartilage

      Explanation:

      The right border corresponds to a line drawn from the 3rd right costal cartilage to the 6th right costal cartilage; this border is slightly convex to the right.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Where is the aqueous humor normally reabsorbed? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where is the aqueous humor normally reabsorbed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Canal of schlemm

      Explanation:

      Aqueous humor is a clear protein free fluid secreted by the ciliary body, it travels to the anterior chamber through the pupil and is absorbed through a network of trabeculae into the canal of schlemm

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 60 year old male presents with thickened patches of skin over his...

    Incorrect

    • A 60 year old male presents with thickened patches of skin over his knuckles and extensor surfaces that are consistent with Gottron's papules. Results reveal an elevated creatine kinase. Diagnosis of dermatomyositis is suspected. Which of the following autoantibody is most specific for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-Mi-2 antibodies

      Explanation:

      Anti–Mi-2 antibodies are highly specific for dermatomyositis, but sensitivity is low; only 25% of patients with dermatomyositis demonstrate these antibodies. A positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) finding is common in patients with dermatomyositis, but is not necessary for diagnosis. Anti-Jo-1 antibodies are mostly associated with polymyositis. Anti Scl-70 antibodies and anti centromere antibodies are most commonly found in systemic scleroderma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - At rest, proton pumps are sequestered within the parietal cell in a series...

    Incorrect

    • At rest, proton pumps are sequestered within the parietal cell in a series of membrane compartments known as:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tubulovesicles

      Explanation:

      The gastric H, K-ATPase pump, which pumps gastric acid (HCl), in the resting state is found in cytoplasmic tubular membranes. In the stimulated state this pump moves from the tubulovesicles to the apical membrane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 28-year-old female admitted for a course of chemotherapy, has been taking high...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female admitted for a course of chemotherapy, has been taking high dose steroids for a few days. The nurses report that she is very agitated and talks about trying to open the window of her room and jump out from the fourth floor.You review her notes and see that she admits to drinking a few glasses of wine per week and has smoked cannabis on a few occasions.On examination her BP is 145/88 mmHg, her pulse is 80 bpm.Blood investigations reveal:Haemoglobin: 12.1 g/dL (11.5-16.5)WBC count: 16.2 x 103/dL (4-11)Platelets: 200 x 109/L (150-400)C-reactive protein: 9 nmol/l (<10)Sodium: 140 mmol/l (135-146)Potassium: 3.9 mmol/l (3.5-5)Creatinine: 92 μmol/l (79-118)Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Corticosteroid-related psychosis

      Explanation:

      Agitation, hypomania and suicidal intent within a few days after initiating corticosteroid therapy is highly suggestive of a diagnosis of corticosteroid-induced psychosis.In some patients corticosteroid related psychosis has been diagnosed up to 12 weeks or more after commencing therapy.Euphoria and hypomania are considered to be the most common psychiatric symptoms reported during short courses of steroids.During long-term treatment, depressive symptoms were the most common. Higher steroid doses appear to carry an increased risk for such adverse effects; however, there is no significant relationship between dose and time to onset, duration, and severity of symptoms. Management: Reduction or cessation of corticosteroids is the mainstay of treatment for steroid psychosis. For those patients who cannot tolerate this reduction/cessation of steroids, mood stabilizers may be of some benefit.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - With regard to the endothelial structure, the epithelium constitute: ...

    Incorrect

    • With regard to the endothelial structure, the epithelium constitute:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Simple squamous

      Explanation:

      The single layer of squamous epithelium lining the heart and blood vessels is known as the endothelium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - The net effect of parathyroid hormone on calcium and phosphate homeostasis is? ...

    Incorrect

    • The net effect of parathyroid hormone on calcium and phosphate homeostasis is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase in Ca, decrease in phosphate

      Explanation:

      Parathyroid hormone’s main target organs are the kidneys, bone, and intestine. In the kidney, it decreases reabsorption of phosphate and increases calcium reabsorption. It also promotes absorption of calcium from bone. PTH release results in a small drop in serum phosphate concentrations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following does not contribute to increased stroke volume during exercise?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following does not contribute to increased stroke volume during exercise?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased length of filling time during diastole

      Explanation:

      Prolonged aerobic exercise training may also increase stroke volume, which frequently results in a lower (resting) heart rate. Reduced heart rate prolongs ventricular diastole (filling), increasing end-diastolic volume, and ultimately allowing more blood to be ejected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 62-year-old software developer with lung cancer is currently taking MST 30mg bd...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old software developer with lung cancer is currently taking MST 30mg bd for pain relief. What dose of oral morphine solution should he be prescribed for breakthrough pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 10 mg

      Explanation:

      The total daily morphine dose is 30 x 2 = 60 mg. Therefore, the breakthrough dose should be one-sixth of this, 10 mg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 35-year-old woman under treatment for long-term epilepsy with valproate presented with complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman under treatment for long-term epilepsy with valproate presented with complaints of excessive weight gain. She is consuming oral contraceptive pills.Which among the following is the best alternative to valproate for treating long-term epilepsy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      Among the given anti-epileptics the best drug that can be given in this patient is lamotrigine.Topiramate, carbamazepine, phenytoin, and phenobarbital are all hepatic enzyme inducers and are associated with decreased effectiveness of the oral contraceptive (OCP) due to acceleration of the metabolism of oestrogens and progestogens.If she is planning on pregnancy then registry studies suggest that lamotrigine would also be the best choice.Other hepatic enzyme inducers include rifampicin, spironolactone, griseofulvin, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - What is pulse pressure? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is pulse pressure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Difference between systolic and diastolic pressure

      Explanation:

      The pulse pressure is the difference between the measured systolic and diastolic pressures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Complement system help dispose waste products after which natural process? ...

    Incorrect

    • Complement system help dispose waste products after which natural process?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Apoptosis

      Explanation:

      The complement system is a part of the immune system that enhances (complements) the ability of antibodies and phagocytic cells to clear microbes and damaged cells from an organism or apoptosis. It is part of the innate immune system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of the following can trigger parietal cell secretion? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following can trigger parietal cell secretion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gastrin

      Explanation:

      The three agonists of parietal cell secretion are gastrin, acetylcholine and histamine. Parietal cells are responsible for the secretion of HCl and intrinsic factor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - The approximate incidence of deep venous thrombosis (DVT) in the general population each...

    Incorrect

    • The approximate incidence of deep venous thrombosis (DVT) in the general population each year is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 per 1000

      Explanation:

      About 1 in 1000 adults per year has DVT, but as of 2011, available data is dominated by North American and European populations. DVT is rare in children, with an incidence of about 1 in 100,000 a year. From childhood to old age, incidence increases by a factor of about 1000, with almost 1% of the elderly experiencing DVTs yearly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastrointestinal (2/3) 67%
Medicine (2/6) 33%
Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Genetics (0/1) 0%
Cell Biology (0/1) 0%
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