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  • Question 1 - Which of the following is likely to induce secretion of glucagon? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is likely to induce secretion of glucagon?

      Your Answer: Low serum concentration of glucose

      Explanation:

      The most potent stimulus for secretion of glucagon is hypoglycaemia whereas hyperglycaemia is a stimulus for insulin release. Glucagon secretion also occurs in response to high levels of amino acids. Somatostatin inhibits glucagon secretion. Parasympathetic stimulation increases pancreatic acinar secretion, but not of α-cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Physiology
      31.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A middle aged man presented in OPD with a low grade fever and...

    Incorrect

    • A middle aged man presented in OPD with a low grade fever and a persistent cough. His blood smear showed an increase in cells with large bi-lobed nuclei. Which of these cells represent the one seen on the smear?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Monocytes

      Explanation:

      Monocytes are white cells that protect the body against harmful pathogens. They are mobile and are produced in the bone marrow, mature there and circulate in the blood for about 1-3 days, where they enter the tissues and transform into macrophages. They are characteristically identified by their large bi-lobed nuclei.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - After finding elevated PSA levels, a 69-year-old man undergoes a needle biopsy and...

    Incorrect

    • After finding elevated PSA levels, a 69-year-old man undergoes a needle biopsy and is diagnosed with prostatic cancer. What is the stage of this primary tumour?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: T1c

      Explanation:

      The AJCC uses a TNM system to stage prostatic cancer, with categories for the primary tumour, regional lymph nodes and distant metastases:

      TX: cannot evaluate the primary tumour T0: no evidence of tumour

      T1: tumour present, but not detectable clinically or with imaging T1a: tumour was incidentally found in less than 5% of prostate tissue resected (for other reasons)

      T1b: tumour was incidentally found in more than 5% of prostate tissue resected

      T1c: tumour was found in a needle biopsy performed due to an elevated serum prostate-specific antigen

      T2: the tumour can be felt (palpated) on examination, but has not spread outside the prostate

      T2a: the tumour is in half or less than half of one of the prostate gland’s two lobes

      T2b: the tumour is in more than half of one lobe, but not both

      T2c: the tumour is in both lobes

      T3: the tumour has spread through the prostatic capsule (if it is only part-way through, it is still T2)

      T3a: the tumour has spread through the capsule on one or both sides

      T3b: the tumour has invaded one or both seminal vesicles

      T4: the tumour has invaded other nearby structures.

      In this case, the tumour has a T1c stage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - After a severe asthma attack, a 26-year-old woman is left in a markedly...

    Incorrect

    • After a severe asthma attack, a 26-year-old woman is left in a markedly hypoxic state. In which of the following organs are the arterial beds most likely to be vasoconstricted due to the hypoxia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lungs

      Explanation:

      Hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction is a local response to hypoxia resulting primarily from constriction of small muscular pulmonary arteries in response to reduced alveolar oxygen tension. This unique response of pulmonary arterioles results in a local adjustment of perfusion to ventilation. This means that if a bronchiole is obstructed, the lack of oxygen causes contraction of the pulmonary vascular smooth muscle in the corresponding area, shunting blood away from the hypoxic region to better-ventilated regions. The purpose of hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction is to distribute blood flow regionally to increase the overall efficiency of gas exchange between air and blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A surgeon performing a thymectomy to remove a malignant thymoma is careful to...

    Incorrect

    • A surgeon performing a thymectomy to remove a malignant thymoma is careful to avoid damaging an important nerve lying around the arch of the aorta. Which nerve is the surgeon trying to preserve?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left Vagus

      Explanation:

      The left vagus nerve lies on the lateral surface of the aortic arch. The left recurrent laryngeal nerve arises from the vagus and loops around the arch of the aorta. This nerve is at risk of injury during surgery.

      The right and left phrenic nerves, being lateral to the vagus, do not loop around the arch of the aorta.

      The sympathetic trunks, both right and left, are located in the posterior chest; not near the aortic arch.

      The right vagus: not involved with the aortic arch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The extent of cancer growth can be described through staging. What is taken...

    Incorrect

    • The extent of cancer growth can be described through staging. What is taken into consideration when staging a cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Local invasion

      Explanation:

      Cancer stage is based on four characteristics: the size of cancer, whether the cancer is invasive or non-invasive, whether the cancer has spread to the lymph nodes, and whether the cancer has spread to other parts of the body, in this case beyond the breast. Staging is important as it is often a good predictor of outcomes and treatment is adjusted accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 35 year-old man presents with high grade fever for 7 days after...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year-old man presents with high grade fever for 7 days after returning from a trip to India. He tested positive for widal test. What is the most likely organism that caused his fever?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Salmonella typhi

      Explanation:

      Typhoid fever is caused by virulent bacteria called Salmonella typhi. Salmonella typhi spread through contaminated food or water and occasionally through direct contact with someone who is infected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following muscles is innervated by the inferior branch of the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following muscles is innervated by the inferior branch of the right recurrent laryngeal nerve?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior cricoarytenoid

      Explanation:

      The posterior cricoarytenoid muscle, which is the sole abductor of the vocal folds, receives its innervation from the inferior laryngeal nerve which is a continuation of the recurrent laryngeal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - The Henderson–Hasselbalch equation describes the derivation of pH as a measure of acidity. According to this equation,...

    Incorrect

    • The Henderson–Hasselbalch equation describes the derivation of pH as a measure of acidity. According to this equation, the buffering capacity of the system is at maximum when the number of free anions compared with undissociated acid is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Equal

      Explanation:

      In 1908, Lawrence Joseph Henderson wrote an equation describing the use of carbonic acid as a buffer solution. Later, Karl Albert Hasselbalch re-expressed that formula in logarithmic terms, resulting in the Henderson–Hasselbalch equation. The equation is also useful for estimating the pH of a buffer solution and finding the equilibrium pH in acid–base reactions. Two equivalent forms of the equation are: pH = pKa + log10 [A–]/[HA] or pH = pKa + log10 [base]/[acid]. Here, pKa is − log10(Ka) where Ka is the acid dissociation constant, that is: pKa = –log10(Ka) = –log10 ([H3 O+][A–]/[HA]) for the reaction: HA + H2 O ≈ A– + H3 O+ In these equations, A– denotes the ionic form of the relevant acid. Bracketed quantities such as [base] and [acid] denote the molar concentration of the quantity enclosed. Maximum buffering capacity is found when pH = pKa or when the number of free anions to undissociated acid is equal and buffer range is considered to be at a pH = pKa ± 1.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is likely to result in: ...

    Incorrect

    • Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is likely to result in:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Respiratory acidosis

      Explanation:

      COPD leads to respiratory acidosis (chronic). This occurs due to hypoventilation which involves multiple causes, such as poor responsiveness to hypoxia and hypercapnia, increased ventilation/perfusion mismatch leading to increased dead space ventilation and decreased diaphragm function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What intrinsic muscle of the larynx is responsible for the tensing of the...

    Incorrect

    • What intrinsic muscle of the larynx is responsible for the tensing of the vocal cords?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cricothyroid muscle

      Explanation:

      The cricothyroid muscle is the only tensor muscle of the larynx aiding with phonation. It attaches to the anterolateral aspect of the cricoid and the inferior cornu and lower lamina of the thyroid cartilage. Its action tilts the thyroid forward to help tense the vocal cords.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - The pattern of drainage of the lymphatic and venous systems of the anterior...

    Incorrect

    • The pattern of drainage of the lymphatic and venous systems of the anterior abdominal wall is arranged around a horizontal plane above which drainage is in a cranial direction and below which drainage is in a caudal direction. Which horizontal plane is being referred to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Level of the umbilicus

      Explanation:

      The umbilicus is a key landmark for the lymphatic and venous drainage of the abdominal wall. Above it, lymphatics drain into the axillary lymph nodes and the venous blood drains into the superior epigastric vein, into the internal thoracic vein. Below it, lymphatics drain into the superficial inguinal lymph nodes while venous blood drains into the inferior epigastric vein and the external iliac vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 50 year old man on warfarin therapy following insertion of a pacemaker...

    Incorrect

    • A 50 year old man on warfarin therapy following insertion of a pacemaker presented with epistaxis. Which of the following is true regarding blood coagulation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patients with haemophilia A usually have a normal bleeding time

      Explanation:

      A prolonged bleeding time is seen in platelet disorders like thrombocytopenia. Patients with haemophilia A or B have a prolonged PTT but not a prolonged bleeding time.

      Ca2+ is necessary for coagulation.

      von Willebrand factor is an important part of the factor VIII complex and promotes platelet adhesion and aggregation.

      DIC results in depleted coagulation factors and accumulation of fibrin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following is a fact worth noting about the development of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a fact worth noting about the development of the spleen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It develops in the dorsal mesogastrium

      Explanation:

      The spleen in the human embryo arises in week 5 of intrauterine life. It appears as a proliferating mesenchyme above the pancreas. The spleen is one the organs that develops in the dorsal mesogastrium. When the stomach changes its position during development, the spleen is made to move behind the stomach and stays in contact with the left kidney. The spleen is found within the peritoneum of the abdominal cavity thus it is an intraperitoneal organ.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Structures passing through the foramen magnum do NOT include the: ...

    Incorrect

    • Structures passing through the foramen magnum do NOT include the:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vagus nerve

      Explanation:

      Structures passing through the foramen magnum include the medulla, meninges, tectorial membrane, anterior spinal artery, vertebral artery and spinal branches of the accessory nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Some substances, such as Chromium-51 and Technetium-99, are freely filtered but not secreted...

    Incorrect

    • Some substances, such as Chromium-51 and Technetium-99, are freely filtered but not secreted or absorbed by the kidney. In these cases, their clearance rate is equal to:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glomerular filtration rate

      Explanation:

      If a substance passes through the glomerular membrane with perfect ease, the glomerular filtrate contains virtually the same concentration of the substance as does the plasma and if the substance is neither secreted nor reabsorbed by the tubules, all of the filtered substance continues on into the urine. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) describes the flow rate of filtered fluid through the kidney.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Extracellular body fluid as compared with intracellular body fluid: ...

    Incorrect

    • Extracellular body fluid as compared with intracellular body fluid:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is relatively rich in glucose

      Explanation:

      The percentages of body water contained in various fluid compartments add up to total body water (TBW). This water makes up a significant fraction of the human body, both by weight and by volume. Ensuring the right amount of body water is part of fluid balance, an aspect of homeostasis. The extracellular fluid (ECF) includes all fluids outside the cells. This fluid can be divided into three fluid departments: interstitial (in the tissue spaces) fluid, blood plasma and lymph, and specialised compartments called transcellular fluid. The extracellular fluid surrounds all the cells in the body and is in equilibrium with the intracellular fluid. So, its composition must remain fairly constant even though substances are passing into and out of the cells. The interstitial fluid, though called a fluid, is in a reality a gel-like composition made up of: water, proteoglycan molecules and collagen. The extracellular fluid constitutes 40% of total body water, with intracellular fluid making up the remaining 60%. It is relatively rich in glucose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - The most likely cause of a low p(O2) in arterial blood is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The most likely cause of a low p(O2) in arterial blood is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypoxic hypoxia

      Explanation:

      Hypoxia is when the whole body or a region is deprived of adequate oxygen supply. Different types of hypoxia include the following:

      – Hypoxic hypoxia, which occurs due to poor oxygen supply, as a result of low partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood. This could be due to low partial pressure of atmospheric oxygen (e.g., at high altitude), sleep apnoea, poor ventilation because of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease or respiratory arrest, or shunts. The other types of hypoxia have a normal partial pressure of oxygen.

      – Anaemic hypoxia occurs due to low total oxygen content of the blood, with a normal arterial oxygen pressure.

      – Hyperaemic hypoxia occurs due to poor delivery of oxygen to target tissues, such as in carbon monoxide poisoning or methemoglobinemia.

      – Histotoxic hypoxia results due to inability of the cells to use the delivered oxygen due to disabled oxidative phosphorylation enzymes.

      – Ischaemic (or stagnant) hypoxia occurs due to local flow restriction of well-oxygenated blood, seen in cases like cerebral ischaemia, ischaemic heart disease and intrauterine hypoxia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A young man was thrown from a vehicle in a collision. He landed...

    Incorrect

    • A young man was thrown from a vehicle in a collision. He landed on his head and shoulder tip, stretching the left side of his neck. A neurological examination revealed that the fifth and sixth cervical nerves had been torn from the spinal cord. What is the most obvious clinical manifestation of this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abduction

      Explanation:

      In the case of injuries to the upper roots of the brachial plexus there is complete loss of abduction. The muscle performing this movement is the supraspinatus. This initiates the movement, followed by the deltoid muscle, which allows for complete abduction. Both these muscles are innervated by nerves originating from C5 and C6. The injury to these roots results in a condition named Erb-Duchenne’s palsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The mandibular nerve, which is the largest of the 3 divisions of the...

    Incorrect

    • The mandibular nerve, which is the largest of the 3 divisions of the trigeminal nerve, exits the cranial cavity through which foramen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Foramen ovale

      Explanation:

      At the base of the skull the foramen ovale is one of the larger of the several holes that transmit nerves through the skull. The following structures pass through foramen ovale: mandibular nerve, motor root of the trigeminal nerve, accessory meningeal artery, lesser petrosal nerve, a branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve, emissary vein connecting the cavernous sinus with the pterygoid plexus of veins and occasionally the anterior trunk of the middle meningeal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 34-year old gentleman presented with acute pancreatitis to the emergency department. On...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year old gentleman presented with acute pancreatitis to the emergency department. On enquiry, there was found to be a history of recurrent pancreatitis, eruptive xanthomas and raised plasma triglyceride levels associated with chylomicrons. Which of the following will be found deficient in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lipoprotein lipase

      Explanation:

      The clinical features mentioned here suggest the diagnosis of hypertriglyceridemia due to lipoprotein lipase (LPL) deficiency. LPL aids in hydrolysing the lipids in lipoproteins into free fatty acids and glycerol. Apo-CII acts as a co-factor. Deficiency of this enzyme leads to hypertriglyceridemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - What is formed when the ductus deferens unites with the duct of the...

    Incorrect

    • What is formed when the ductus deferens unites with the duct of the seminal vesicle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ejaculatory duct

      Explanation:

      The deferens is a cylindrical structure​ with dense walls and an extremely small lumen It is joined at an acute angle by the duct of the seminal vesicles to form the ejaculatory duct, which traverses the prostate behind it’s middle lobe and opens into the prostatic portion of the urethra, close to the orifice of the prostatic utricle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Mallory bodies are characteristic of which of the following conditions? ...

    Incorrect

    • Mallory bodies are characteristic of which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alcoholic hepatitis

      Explanation:

      Mallory bodies (or ‘alcoholic hyaline’) are inclusion bodies in the cytoplasm of liver cells, seen in patients of alcoholic hepatitis; and also in Wilson’s disease. These pathological bodies are made of intermediate keratin filament proteins that are ubiquinated or bound by proteins like heat chock protein. Being highly eosinophilic, they appear pink on haematoxylin and eosin staining.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of these illnesses is most likely to precede Guillain-Barré syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these illnesses is most likely to precede Guillain-Barré syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Viral pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Guillain–Barré syndrome (GBS) is characterized by a rapid-onset muscle weakness caused by the immune system damaging the peripheral nervous system. In about two-thirds of patients, the syndrome begins 5 days to 3 weeks after an infectious disease, surgery or vaccination. Infection is the trigger in over 50% of patients; common pathogens include Campylobacter jejuni, enteric viruses, herpesviruses (including cytomegalovirus and those causing infectious mononucleosis) and Mycoplasma species. The underlying mechanism involves an autoimmune disorder in which the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks the peripheral nerves and damages their myelin insulation, although the cause for this is still unknown.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - If a tumour is found in both lobes of the prostate, without nodal...

    Incorrect

    • If a tumour is found in both lobes of the prostate, without nodal involvement or metastases, a histological grade of G2 and elevated PSA, what is the overall prostatic cancer stage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stage II

      Explanation:

      The AJCC uses the TNM, Gleason score and PSA levels to determine the overall stage of prostatic cancer. This staging is as follows:

      Stage I: T1, N0, M0, Gleason score 6 or less, PSA less than 10; or T2a, N0, M0, Gleason score 6 or less, PSA less than 10

      Stage IIa: T1, N0, M0, Gleason score of 7, PSA less than 20; or T1, N0, M0, Gleason score of 6 or less, PSA at least 10 but less than 20; or T2a or T2b, N0, M0, Gleason score of 7 or less, PSA less than 20

      Stage IIb: T2c, N0, M0, any Gleason score, any PSA; or T1 or T2, N0, M0, any Gleason score PSA of 20 or more; or T1 or T2, N0, M0, Gleason score of 8 or higher, any PSA

      Stage III: T3, N0, M0, any Gleason score, any PSA Stage IV: T4, N0, M0,any Gleason score, any PSA; or any T, N1, M0,any Gleason score, any PSA; or Any T, any N, M1, any Gleason score, any PSA.

      The patient in this case has a T2 N0 M0 G2 tumour, meaning it belongs in stage II

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Urology
      0
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  • Question 26 - A elderly patient with bulbar palsy is bed ridden. While swallowing he aspirates...

    Incorrect

    • A elderly patient with bulbar palsy is bed ridden. While swallowing he aspirates one of his tablets into his lungs. In which bronchopulmonary segments is it most likely to end up?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superior segmental bronchus of the right inferior lobe

      Explanation:

      Inhaled objects are more likely to enter the right lung for several reasons. First the right bronchus is shorter, wider and more vertical than the left bronchus. Also, the carina (a ridge-like structure at the point of tracheal bifurcation) is set a little towards the left. The superior segmental bronchus branches posteriorly off the intermediate bronchus or the inferior lobe bronchus and is thus more likely to receive the foreign body that enters the right main bronchus. The lingula is only found on the left lung. The terminal bronchiole is a very small space almost impossible for the tablet to lodge here.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - The pterion is clinically significant as it marks an area of weakness on...

    Incorrect

    • The pterion is clinically significant as it marks an area of weakness on the skull. What structure lies beneath it?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anterior branches of the middle meningeal artery

      Explanation:

      The pterion is the area where four bones, the parietal, frontal, greater wing of sphenoid and the squamous part of the temporal bone meet. It overlies the anterior branch of the middle meningeal artery on the internal aspect of the skull. The pterion is the weakest part of the skull. Slight trauma to this region can cause extradural hematoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
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  • Question 28 - A 32-year-old man presented with a metabolic acidosis and increased anion gap. What...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presented with a metabolic acidosis and increased anion gap. What is the most likely cause of the changes of the anion gap in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lactic acidosis

      Explanation:

      High anion gap in metabolic acidosis is caused generally by the elevation of the levels of acids like ketones, lactate, sulphates in the body, which consume the bicarbonate ions. Other causes of a high anion gap include overdosing on salicylates, uraemia, rhabdomyolysis, hypocalcaemia, hypomagnesaemia, or ingestion of toxins such as ethylene glycol, methanol, propyl alcohol, cyanide and iron.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      0
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  • Question 29 - Congenital anomalies of genitourinary tract are more common than any other system. Which...

    Incorrect

    • Congenital anomalies of genitourinary tract are more common than any other system. Which of the following anomalies carries the greatest risk of morbidity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bladder exstrophy

      Explanation:

      Bladder exstrophy is the condition where the urinary bladder opens from the anterior aspect suprapubically. The mucosa of the bladder is continuous with the abdominal skin and there is separation of the pubic bones. The function of the upper urinary tract remains normal usually. Treatment consists of surgical reconstruction of the bladder and returning it to the pelvis. There can be a need for continent urinary diversion along with reconstruction of the genitals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Renal
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  • Question 30 - Injury to which of the following arteries is likely to affect the blood...

    Incorrect

    • Injury to which of the following arteries is likely to affect the blood supply to the seminal vesicles?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Middle rectal

      Explanation:

      Ligation of middle rectal artery is most likely to affect the blood supply of seminal vesicles since arteries supplying the seminal vesicles are derived from the middle and inferior vesical and middle rectal arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      0
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Physiology (1/1) 100%
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