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  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old female is undergoing a lymph node biopsy from the posterior triangle...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old female is undergoing a lymph node biopsy from the posterior triangle of his neck.

      What structure forms the posterior boundary of the posterior triangle of the neck?

      Your Answer: Sternocleidomastoid muscle

      Correct Answer: Trapezius muscle

      Explanation:

      The sternocleidomastoid muscle divides the neck into anterior and posterior triangles on both sides of the neck.

      The posterior triangle has the following boundaries:
      anteriorly – sternocleidomastoid muscle
      posteriorly – trapezius
      roof – investing layer of deep cervical fascia
      floor – prevertebral fascia overlying splenius capitis, levator scapulae, and the scalene muscles

      The contents of the posterior triangle are:
      1. fat
      2. lymph nodes (level V)
      3. accessory nerve
      4. cutaneous branches of the cervical plexus – greater auricular nerve, transverse cervical nerve, lesser occipital nerve, supraclavicular nerve (A major branch of this plexus is the phrenic nerve, which arises from the anterior divisions of spinal nerves C3-C5)
      5. inferior belly of omohyoid
      6. branches of the thyrocervical trunk (transverse cervical and suprascapular arteries)
      7. third part of the subclavian artery
      8. external jugular vein

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      2.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The fluids with the highest osmolarity is? ...

    Incorrect

    • The fluids with the highest osmolarity is?

      Your Answer: Hartmann's solution

      Correct Answer: 0.45% N. Saline with 5% glucose

      Explanation:

      The concentration of solute particles per litre (mosm/L) = the osmolarity of a solution. Changes in water content, ambient temperature, and pressure affects osmolarity. The osmolarity of any solution can be calculated by adding the concentration of key solutes in it.

      Individual manufacturers of crystalloids and colloids may have different absolute values but they are similar to these.

      0.45% N. Saline with 5% glucose:
      Tonicity – hypertonic
      Osmolarity – 405 mosm/L
      Kilocalories (kCal) – 107

      0.9% N. Saline:
      Tonicity – isotonic
      Osmolarity – 308 mosm/L
      Kilocalories (kCal) – 0

      5% Dextrose:
      Tonicity – isotonic
      Osmolarity – 253 mosm/L
      Kilocalories (kCal) – 170

      Gelofusine (154 mmol/L Na, 120 mmol/L Cl):
      Tonicity – isotonic
      Osmolarity – 274 mosm/L
      Kilocalories (kCal) – 0

      Hartmann’s solution:
      Tonicity – isotonic
      Osmolarity – 273 mosm/L
      Kilocalories (kCal) – 9

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      164.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following anaesthetic is the least powerful trigger of malignant hyperthermia?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following anaesthetic is the least powerful trigger of malignant hyperthermia?

      Your Answer: Nitrogen

      Correct Answer: Desflurane

      Explanation:

      Desflurane is a highly fluorinated methyl ethyl ether used for the maintenance of general anaesthesia. It has been identified as a weak triggering anaesthetic of malignant hyperthermia. That, in the absence of succinylcholine, may produce a delayed onset of symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      63.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 30-year old female was anaesthetically induced for an elective open cholecystectomy. Upon...

    Correct

    • A 30-year old female was anaesthetically induced for an elective open cholecystectomy. Upon mask ventilation, patient's oxygen saturation level dropped to 90% despite maximal head extension, jaw thrust and two handed mask seal. Intubation was performed twice but failed. Use of bougie also failed to localize the trachea. Oxygen levels continued to drop, but was maintained between 80 and 88% with mask ventilation.

      Which of the following options is the best action to take for this patient?

      Your Answer: Insert a supraglottic airway

      Explanation:

      A preplanned preinduction strategy includes the consideration of various interventions designed to facilitate intubation should a difficult airway occur. Non-invasive interventions intended to manage a difficult airway include, but are not limited to: (1) awake intubation, (2) video-assisted laryngoscopy, (3) intubating stylets or tube-changers, (4) SGA for ventilation (e.g., LMA, laryngeal tube), (5) SGA for intubation (e.g., ILMA), (6) rigid laryngoscopic blades of varying design and size, (7) fibreoptic-guided intubation, and (8) lighted stylets or light wands.

      Most supraglottic airway devices (SADs) are designed for use during routine anaesthesia, but there are other roles such as airway rescue after failed tracheal intubation, use as a conduit to facilitate tracheal intubation and use by primary responders at cardiac arrest or other out-of-hospital emergencies. Supraglottic airway devices are intrinsically more invasive than use of a facemask for anaesthesia, but less invasive than tracheal intubation. Supraglottic airway devices can usefully be classified as first and second generation SADs and also according to whether they are specifically designed to facilitate tracheal intubation. First generation devices are simply ‘airway tubes’, whereas second generation devices incorporate specific design features to improve safety by protecting against regurgitation and aspiration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      219.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A weakly acidic drug with a pKa of 8.4 is injected intravenously into...

    Correct

    • A weakly acidic drug with a pKa of 8.4 is injected intravenously into a patient.

      At a normal physiological pH, the percentage of this drug unionised in the plasma is?

      Your Answer: 90

      Explanation:

      Primary FRCA is concerned with two issues. The first is a working knowledge of the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation, and the second is a working knowledge of logarithms and antilogarithms.

      The pH at which the drug exists in 50 percent ionised and 50 percent unionised forms is known as the pKa.

      To calculate the proportion of ionised to unionised form of a drug, use the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation.

      pH = pKa + log ([A-]/[HA])

      or

      pH = pKa + log [(salt)/(acid)]
      pH = pKa + log ([ionised]/[unionised])

      Hence, if the pKa − pH = 0, then 50% of drug is ionised and 50% is unionised.

      In this example:
      7.4 = 8.4 + log ([ionised]/[unionised])
      7.4 − 8.4 = log ([ionised]/[unionised])
      log −1 = log ([ionised]/[unionised])

      Simply put, the antilog is the inverse log calculation. In other words, if you know the logarithm of a number, you can use the antilog to find the value of the number. The antilogarithm’s definition is as follows:

      y = antilog x = 10x

      Antilog to the base 10 of 0 = 1, −1 = 0.1, −2 = 0.01, −3 = 0.001 and, −4 = 0.0001.

      [A-]/[HA] = 0.1

      Assuming that we can apply the approximation [A-] << [HA} then this means the acid is 0.1 x 100% = 10% ionised so the percentage of (non-ionized) acid will be 100% – 10% = 90%

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      350.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The following are results of some pulmonary function tests:

    Measurement - Predicted result -...

    Correct

    • The following are results of some pulmonary function tests:

      Measurement - Predicted result - Test result
      Forced vital capacity (FVC) (btps) - 3.21 - 1.94
      Forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) (btps) - 2.77 - 1.82
      FEV1/FVC ratio % (btps) - 81.9 - 93.5
      Peak expiratory flow (PEF) (L/second) - 6.55 - 3.62
      Maximum voluntary ventilation (MVV) (L/minute) - 103 - 87.1

      Which statement applies to the results?

      Your Answer: The patient has a moderate restrictive pulmonary defect

      Explanation:

      Severity of a reduction in restrictive defect (%FVC) or obstructive defect (%FEV1/FVC) predicted are classified as follows:

      Mild 70-80%
      Moderate 60-69%
      Moderately severe 50-59%
      Severe 35-49%
      Very severe <35% This patient has a %FVC predicted of 60.4% and this corresponds to a moderate restrictive deficit. %FEV1/FVC ratio is 93.5%. FEV1/FVC ratio 80% < predicted and VC < 80% = mixed picture. FEV1/FVC ratio 80% < predicted and VC > 80% = obstructive picture.

      FEV1/FVC ratio 80% > predicted and VC > 80% = normal picture.

      FEV1/FVC ratio 80% > predicted and VC < 80% predicted= restrictive picture. The integrity of the alveolar-capillary barrier is measured by carbon monoxide transfer factor (TLCO) and carbon monoxide transfer coefficient (KCO). These values are seen to be reduced in emphysema, interstitial lung diseases and in pulmonary vascular pathology. However, the KCO (as % predicted) is high in extrapulmonary restriction (pleural, chest wall and respiratory neuromuscular disease), and in loss of lung units provided the structure of the lung remaining is normal. The KCO distinguishes extrapulmonary (high KCO) causes of ‘restriction’ from intrapulmonary causes (low KCO).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      68.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - The physiological properties of a fast glycolytic (fast twitch) muscle fibre are characterised...

    Correct

    • The physiological properties of a fast glycolytic (fast twitch) muscle fibre are characterised by which of the following?

      Your Answer: Synthesis of ATP is brought about by anaerobic respiration

      Explanation:

      Muscle fibre myosin ATPase histochemistry is used to divide the biochemical classification into two groups: type 1 and type II.

      Type I (slow twitch) muscle fibres rely on aerobic glycolytic and aerobic oxidative metabolism to function. They have a lot of mitochondria, a good blood supply, a lot of myoglobin, and they don’t get tired easily.

      Because they contain more motor units, Type II (fast twitch) muscle fibres are thicker. They are more easily fatigued, but produce powerful bursts. The capillary networks and mitochondria are less dense in these white muscle fibres than in type I fibres. They have a low myoglobin content as well.

      Muscle fibres of type II (fast twitch) are divided into three types:

      Type IIa – aerobic/oxidative metabolism is used.
      Type IIb – anaerobic/glycolytic metabolism is used by these fibres.

      When compared to skeletal muscle, cardiac and smooth muscle twitch at a slower rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      466.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Regarding sine wave damping, which one would approach equilibrium the fastest at zero...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding sine wave damping, which one would approach equilibrium the fastest at zero amplitude, without overshoot?

      Your Answer: Optimal damping

      Correct Answer: Critical damping

      Explanation:

      A damped sine wave is a smooth, periodic oscillation with an amplitude that approaches zero as time goes to infinity. In other words, the wave gets flatter as the x-values become larger.

      Critical damping is defined as the threshold between overdamping and underdamping. In the case of critical damping, the oscillator returns to the equilibrium position as quickly as possible, without oscillating, and passes it once at most.

      In overdamping, the system moves slowly towards the equilibrium. An underdamped system moves quickly to equilibrium, but will oscillate about the equilibrium point as it does so.

      Optimal damping has a damping coefficient of around 0.64-0.7. It maximizes frequency response, minimizes overshoot of oscillations, and minimizes phase and amplitude distortion.

      In an undamped system, the amplitude of the waves that are being generated remain unchanged and constant over time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 56-year old man, presents to emergency department following a cardiac arrest. On...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year old man, presents to emergency department following a cardiac arrest. On history and examination, he is found to be suffering from both metabolic and respiratory acidosis as a result of his cardiac arrest.

      What is the best way to reduce the risk of acidaemia during cardiac arrest

      Your Answer: Ventilation

      Correct Answer: Chest compressions

      Explanation:

      Chest compressions are an essential part of cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) which helps restore spontaneous circulation (ROSC).

      Sodium bicarbonate is only prescribed in patients with cardiac arrests as a result of an overdose of tricyclic antidepressants or hyperkalaemia. Its use causes the body to produce more CO2 which causes:

      Exacerbation of intracellular acidosis
      Negative inotropy to ischaemic myocardium
      Increased osmotic load of sodium into failing brain and body
      Shift of oxygen dissociation curve to the left.

      THAM is often used to treat metabolic acidosis as a result of cardiac bypass surgery and also cardiac arrest, when other standard methods have failed.

      Carbicarb (Na2CO3 0.33 molar NaHCO3 0.33 molar) has only mild effects on acidosis. It also causes an increase in arterial CO2 pressure and lactate concentration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      293.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Radical prostatectomy is being performed on a 60-year-old man for carcinoma of the...

    Correct

    • Radical prostatectomy is being performed on a 60-year-old man for carcinoma of the prostate gland.

      What is the direct blood supply of the prostate?

      Your Answer: Inferior vesical artery

      Explanation:

      The prostate gland is primarily supplied by the inferior vesical artery, which branches off from the anterior division of the internal iliac artery. The inferior vesical artery supplies the base of the bladder, the distal ureters, and the prostate. The branches to the prostate communicate with the corresponding vessels of the opposite side.

      The inferior vesical artery branches into two main arteries:
      1. Urethral artery – supplies the transition zone and is the main arterial supply for the adenomas in BPH
      2. Capsular artery – supplies the glandular tissue

      The venous drainage of the prostate is from the prostatic venous plexus, which drains into the paravertebral veins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following correctly explains the mechanism of lowering blood pressure by...

    Correct

    • Which of the following correctly explains the mechanism of lowering blood pressure by nitroglycerine?

      Your Answer: Nitric oxide

      Explanation:

      Nitroglycerine is rapidly denitrated enzymatically in the smooth muscle cell to release the free radical nitric oxide (NO).

      Released NO activated cytosolic guanylyl cyclase which increases cGMP (cyclin guanosine monophosphate) which causes dephosphorylation of myosin light chain kinase (MLCK) through a cGMP-dependent protein kinase.

      Reduced availability of phosphorylated (active) MLCK interferes with activation of myosin and in turn, it fails to interact with actin to cause contraction. Consequently, relaxation occurs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      396
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A sevoflurane vaporiser with a 2 percent setting and a 200 kPa ambient...

    Correct

    • A sevoflurane vaporiser with a 2 percent setting and a 200 kPa ambient pressure is used.

      At this pressure, which of the following options best represents vaporiser output?

      Your Answer: The output is 1% because the saturated pressure of sevoflurane is unaffected by ambient pressure

      Explanation:

      Ambient pressure has no effect on a volatile agent’s saturated vapour pressure (SVP). At a temperature of 20°C, the SVP of sevoflurane is approximately 21 kPa, or 21% of atmospheric pressure (100 kPa).

      The SVP of sevoflurane remains the same when the ambient pressure is doubled to 200 kPa, but the output of the vaporiser is halved, now 21 percent of 200 kPa, equalling 10.5 percent. The vaporiser’s output has increased to 1%, but the partial pressure output has remained unchanged. The splitting ratio will not change because it is determined by temperature changes.

      Calculations can be made as follows:

      Vaporizer output % (ambient pressure) = % volatile (calibrated) x 100 kPa calibrated pressure/ambient pressure
      2% = 2% (dialled) × 100/100
      2% of 100 = 2 kPa

      Altitude, pressure 50 kPa
      4% = 2% (dialled) × 100/50
      4% of 50 = 2 kPa

      High pressure at 200 kPa
      1% = 2% (dialled) × 100/200
      1% of 200 = 2 kPa

      Sevoflurane has a boiling point of 58°C and, unlike desflurane (which has a boiling point of 22.8°C), does not need to be heated and pressurised with a Tec 6 vaporiser.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      51.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following antiplatelet drugs would be best for rapid offset action?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following antiplatelet drugs would be best for rapid offset action?

      Your Answer: Epoprostenol

      Explanation:

      Epoprostenol has a half-life of only 42 seconds and has rapid offset. It is used for the treatment of pulmonary hypertension.

      Aspirin inhibits the COX enzyme irreversibly. It inhibits thromboxane synthesis but does not inhibit the enzyme thromboxane synthetase.

      Ticlopidine, clopidogrel and prasugrel act as irreversible antagonists of P2 Y12 receptor of Adenosine Diphosphate (ADP). These drugs interfere with the activation of platelets by ADP and fibrinogen. Both aspirin and clopidogrel act irreversibly so they are not correct.

      Paclitaxel is a long-acting antiproliferative agent used for the prevention of restenosis (recurrent narrowing) of coronary and peripheral stents and is not the correct answer.

      Tirofiban has the next shortest duration of action after epoprostenol. If epoprostenol is not given in the question, it would be the best answer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      44.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - The tissue layer in a patient is infiltrated with local anaesthetic (marcaine 0.125%)...

    Correct

    • The tissue layer in a patient is infiltrated with local anaesthetic (marcaine 0.125%) with 1 in 120,000 adrenaline as part of an enhanced recovery programme for primary hip replacement surgery. The total volume of solution is 120mL.

      What is the appropriate combination of constituents in the final solution?

      Your Answer: 30mL 0.5% bupivacaine, 1mL 1 in 1,000 adrenaline and 89mL 0.9% N. Saline

      Explanation:

      30mL 0.5% bupivacaine, 1mL 1 in 1,000 adrenaline and 89mL 0.9% N. Saline is the correct answer.
      Initial concentration of bupivacaine is 0.5% with a volume of 30mL

      The volume is doubled (60mL) by the addition of 0.9% N. saline (30mls) and the concentration of bupivacaine is halved to (0.25%).

      If the volume is doubled again (120mL) by the addition of further 0.9% N. saline (59mls) the final concentration of bupivacaine is halved again to 0.125%. Total N. saline = 89mls

      The 1 mL of 1 in 1000 adrenaline has also been diluted into the final volume of 120 mL making it a 1 in 120000 concentration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      2444.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 55-year-old man has complaints of severe tearing chest pain. A preliminary diagnosis...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man has complaints of severe tearing chest pain. A preliminary diagnosis of aortic dissection is made in the emergency department. In aortic dissection, which layers have blood flowing in between them?

      Your Answer: Tunica intima and tunica media

      Explanation:

      The wall of an artery has three layers: (innermost to outermost)
      1. Tunica intima – in direct contact with the blood inside the vessel and contains endothelial cells separated by gap junctions.
      2. Tunica media – contains smooth muscle cells and is separated from the intima by the internal elastic lamina and the adventitia by the external elastic lamina.
      3. Tunica adventitia – contains the vasa vasorum, fibroblast, and collagen.

      Aortic dissection is when a tear arises in the innermost layer of the aorta and penetrates through the tear, entering the media layer. The inner and middle layers of the aorta split (dissect).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      667.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - With regards to arterial oxygen content, which of the following contributes most from...

    Correct

    • With regards to arterial oxygen content, which of the following contributes most from a quantitative perspective?

      Your Answer: Haemoglobin concentration

      Explanation:

      The amount of oxygen carried by 100 ml of blood is called the arterial oxygen content (CaO2)and is normally 17-24 ml/dL and can be determined by this equation:

      CaO2 = oxygen bound to haemoglobin + oxygen dissolved in plasma

      CaO2 = (1.34 × Hgb × SaO2 × 0.01) + (0.003 × PaO2)

      where:

      1.34 = Huffner’s constant (D) – Huffner’s constant does not change and its magnitude relatively small.
      Hgb is the haemoglobin level in g/dL and SaO2 is the percent oxyhaemoglobin saturation of arterial blood
      PaO2 is (0.0225 = ml of O2 dissolved per 100 ml plasma per kPa, or 0.003 ml per mmHg).

      Quantitatively, the amount of oxygen dissolved in plasma is 0.3 mL/dL.

      Henry’s law states that at constant temperature, the amount of gas dissolved at equilibrium in a given quantity of a liquid is proportional to the pressure of the gas in contact with the liquid.

      Given a haemoglobin concentration of 15 g/dL and a SaO2 of 100% and a PaO2 of 13.3 kPa, the amount of oxygen bound to haemoglobin is 20.4 mL/100mL.

      Cardiac output is an important determinant of oxygen delivery but does not influence the oxygen content of blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      254
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 30 year old male was the victim of an electrocution injury and...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old male was the victim of an electrocution injury and has been treated. The option that best describes the current levels for this injury is:

      Your Answer: Ventricular fibrillation - 150 mA

      Correct Answer: Tonic muscle contraction - 15 mA

      Explanation:

      There are different effects of electrocution and these can be shown in the table below.

      Current Effect
      1 mA Tingling
      5 mA Pain
      15 mA Tonic muscle contraction
      50 mA Respiratory arrest
      100 mA Ventricular fibrillation and cardiac arrest

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      750.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Prophylactic antibiotics are required for which of the following procedures? ...

    Correct

    • Prophylactic antibiotics are required for which of the following procedures?

      Your Answer: Appendicectomy

      Explanation:

      Correctly used, antibiotic prophylaxis can reduce
      the total use of antibiotics.
      There is strong scientific support that antibiotic
      prophylaxis reduces the development of infection after:

      • Operations and endoscopic procedures in the large intestine,
        the rectum, and the stomach (including appendectomies and
        penetrating abdominal trauma), and after percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG)
      • Cardiovascular surgery, and insertion of pacemakers
      • Breast cancer surgery
      • Hysterectomy
      • Reduction of simple fractures and prosthetic limb surgery
      • Complicated surgery for cancer in the ear, nose, and throat
        regions
      • Transrectal biopsy and resection of the prostate (febrile urinary
        tract infection and blood poisoning).

      In most cases the scientific evidence is inadequate to determine
      which type of antibiotic is most effective for antibiotic prophylaxis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      206.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - General anaesthesia is administered to a patient in a hospital in Lhasa which...

    Correct

    • General anaesthesia is administered to a patient in a hospital in Lhasa which is one of the highest cities in the world (at 11,975 feet). An Anaesthetic rotameter is normally calibrated at 20 C and 1 bar pressure and is known to be underread at altitude. The temperature of the theatre was 10 C.

      Which one of the following physical properties is responsible for the rotameter inaccuracy in these conditions?

      Your Answer: Density of the gas

      Explanation:

      Since the gas is less dense at higher altitudes, the density of a gas influences flows when passing through the orifice. Due to this reason, for a given flow rate, the bobbin will not be forced as far up the rotameter tube.

      At higher altitudes, the volume of a fixed mass of gas increases, and therefore the molecules of gas are widely spaced resulting in a decrease in density with an increase in altitude.

      Viscosity is simply termed as friction of gas. The viscosity of a gas is important only at low flow rates when the flow characteristic of the gas is laminar.

      Charle’s law stated that the volume occupied by a fixed amount of gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature (T) provided the pressure remains constant.

      Boyle’s law for a fixed amount of gas at constant temperature, the pressure (P) and volume (V) are inversely proportional.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Regarding amide local anaesthetics, which one factor has the most significant effect on...

    Correct

    • Regarding amide local anaesthetics, which one factor has the most significant effect on its duration of action?

      Your Answer: Protein binding

      Explanation:

      When drugs are bound to proteins, drugs cannot cross membranes and exert their effect. Only the free (unbound) drug can be absorbed, distributed, metabolized, excreted and exert pharmacologic effect. Thus, when amide local anaesthetics are bound to ?1-glycoproteins, their duration of action are reduced.

      The potency of local anaesthetics are affected by lipid solubility. Solubility influences the concentration of the drug in the extracellular fluid surrounding blood vessels. The brain, which is high in lipid content, will dissolve high concentration of lipid soluble drugs. When drugs are non-ionized and non-polarized, they are more lipid-soluble and undergo more extensive distribution. Hence allowing these drugs to penetrate the membrane of the target cells and exert their effect.

      Tissue pKa and pH will determine the degree of ionization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      115.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - The liver plays a major role in drug metabolism.

    Which of the following...

    Correct

    • The liver plays a major role in drug metabolism.

      Which of the following liver cells is most important in phase I of drug metabolism?

      Your Answer: Centrilobular cells

      Explanation:

      The metabolism of drugs in the liver occurs in 3 phases

      Phase I: This involves functionalization reactions, which are of 3 types, namely hydrolysis, oxidation and reduction reactions catalysed by the cytochrome P450 (CYP) enzymes.

      Phase II: This involves conjugation or acetylation reactions. The goal is to create water soluble metabolites that can be excreted from the body.

      The liver is the second largest organ. It’s smallest functional unit is the acinus which is divided into 3 zones:

      Zone I (periportal): This zone receives the largest amount of oxygen supply as it is the closest to the blood vessels. It is the site of plasma protein synthesis.

      Zone II (mediolobular): This is located between the portal triad and central vein.

      Zone III (centrilobular): This is closest to the central vein and receives the least amount of oxygen supply.

      Kupffer cells are specialized macrophages found in the periportal zone of the liver, and function to remove foreign particles and breakdown red blood cells via phagocytosis.

      Ito cells are fat-storing liver cells found in the space of Disse. Their function is to take-uo, store and secrete retinoids, as well as manufacture and release proteins that make up the extracellular matrix.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      308.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A controlled retrospective study's level of evidence is? ...

    Correct

    • A controlled retrospective study's level of evidence is?

      Your Answer: Level 3

      Explanation:

      Level 1 – High-quality randomised controlled trial with statistically significant difference or no statistically significant difference but narrow confidence intervals (prospective controlled)

      Level 2 – Prospective comparative study (prospective uncontrolled)

      Level 3 – Case-control study, retrospective comparative study (retrospective controlled)

      Level 4 – Case series (retrospective uncontrolled)

      Level 5 – Expert opinion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      271.5
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following lung parameters can be measured directly using spirometry? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following lung parameters can be measured directly using spirometry?

      Your Answer: Vital capacity

      Explanation:

      Spirometry measures the total volume of air that can be forced out in one maximum breath, that is the total lung capacity (TLC), to maximal expiration, that is the residual volume (RV).

      It is conducted using a spirometer which is capable of measuring lung volumes using techniques of dilution.

      During spirometry, the following measurements can be determined:
      Forced vital capacity (FVC)/vital capacity (VC): The maximum volume of air exhaled in one single forced breathe.
      Forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1)
      FEV1/FVC ratio
      Peak expiratory flow (PEF): the maximum amount of air flow exhaled in one blow.
      Forced expiratory flow (mid expiratory flow): the flow at 25%, 50% and 75% of FVC
      Inspiratory vital capacity (IVC): The maximum volume of air inhaled after a full total expiration.

      Anatomical dead space is measured using a single breath nitrogen washout called the Fowler’s method.

      Residual volume and total lung capacity are both measured using the body plethysmograph or helium dilution

      The functional residual capacity is usually measured using a nitrogen washout or the helium dilution technique.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      25.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Buffers are solutions that resist a change in pH when protons are produced...

    Correct

    • Buffers are solutions that resist a change in pH when protons are produced or consumed. They consist of weak acids and their conjugate bases. Buffers are also present in our bodies, and they are known as physiologic buffers.

      Which of these is the most effective buffer in the blood?

      Your Answer: Bicarbonate

      Explanation:

      The first line of defence against acid-base disorder is buffering. The blood mainly utilizes bicarbonate ion (HCO3-) for its buffering capacity (total of 53%, plasma and red blood cells combined).

      Strong acids, when acted upon by a buffer, release H+, which then combines to HCO3- and forms carbonic acid (H2CO3). When acted upon by the enzyme carbonic anhydrase, H2CO3 dissociates into H2O and CO.

      The rest are the percentage of utilization for the following buffers:
      Haemoglobin (by RBCs) – 35%
      Plasma proteins (by plasma) – 7%
      Organic phosphates (by RBCs) – 3%
      Inorganic phosphates (by plasma) – 2%

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 10-year-old boy is undergoing investigations for coeliac disease. Tissue biopsies were taken...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy is undergoing investigations for coeliac disease. Tissue biopsies were taken from both the small and large intestinal linings.

      Which of the following is found in the small intestine lining but not in that of the large intestine in a normal biopsy?

      Your Answer: Villi

      Explanation:

      The small and large intestinal walls are composed of the following common layers:
      1. Mucosa
      2. Submucosa
      3. Muscularis Externa
      4. Adventitia

      Intestinal villi are highly vascular projections of the mucosal surface that cover the entire small intestinal mucosa. They increase the lumen’s surface area, which aids in absorption and digestion, the primary functions of the small intestine. Villi are large and most abundant in the duodenum and jejunum.

      In both the small and large intestines, the muscularis mucosae are found within the mucosa. The myenteric nerve plexus is found innervating the muscularis externa. The mucosa is lined with columnar epithelial cells, and goblet cells may be present to secrete mucins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Regarding tracheal tubes, which of the following statements are true? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding tracheal tubes, which of the following statements are true?

      Your Answer: Uncuffed RAE tubes have two Murphy eyes

      Explanation:

      Tracheal tubes are made of either disposable plastic or reusable red rubber.

      The tube size refers to the internal diameter (ID) in mm which is marked on the outside of the tube (some manufacturers mark the external diameter on the outside).

      Plastic tubes have a radiopaque line spanning the entire length of the tube, which allows their position to be identified on x-rays. The bevel located at the end of the tube is left-facing and oval in shape, which improves the view of the vocal cords during intubation.

      Oxford tubes are L-shaped and have a bevel that faces posteriorly. They have thick walls that increase the external diameter, making for a wider internal diameter.

      RAE (Ring, Adair, and Elwyn) tubes are preformed and can either be north or south facing and cuffed or uncuffed. The cuffed RAE tubes have one Murphy eye, whereas the uncuffed has two Murphy eyes. Uncuffed tubes are primarily used in paediatric anaesthesia and the two Murphy eyes ensure adequate ventilation- should the tube be too long.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      28.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following statements is not correct regarding Noradrenaline? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is not correct regarding Noradrenaline?

      Your Answer: Predominantly work through effects on ?-adrenergic receptors

      Explanation:

      Noradrenaline also called norepinephrine belongs to the catecholamine family that functions in the brain and body as both a hormone and neurotransmitter.

      They have sympathomimetic effects acting via adrenoceptors (?1, ?2,?1, ?2, ?3) or dopamine receptors (D1, D2).

      May cause reflex bradycardia, reduce cardiac output and increase myocardial oxygen consumption

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      197
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - The single most important prerequisite for accuracy in measuring basal metabolic rate (BMR)...

    Correct

    • The single most important prerequisite for accuracy in measuring basal metabolic rate (BMR) using indirect calorimetry is performing the test:

      Your Answer: In a neutral thermal environment

      Explanation:

      The basal metabolic rate (BMR) is the amount of energy required to maintain basic bodily functions in the resting state. The unit is Watt (Joule/second) or calories per unit time.

      Indirect calorimetry measures O2 consumption and CO2 production where gases are collected in a canopy which is the gold standard, Douglas bag, face-mask dilution technique or interfaced with a ventilator.

      The BMR can be calculated using the Weir formula:

      Metabolic rate (kcal per day) = 1.44 (3.94 VO2 + 1.11 VCO2)

      The BMR should be measured while lying down and at rest with the following conditions met:

      It should follow a 12 -hour fast
      No stimulants ingested within a 12-hour period
      It should be done in a neutral thermal environment (between 20°C-25°C)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      31937.3
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A graph was plotted after administration of fentanyl infusion to a patient. The...

    Correct

    • A graph was plotted after administration of fentanyl infusion to a patient. The following are the x- and y-axis of the graph:

      X-axis: Dose of fentanyl
      Y-axis: Mu receptor occupancy, measured using positron emission tomography

      Given the data above, what would be the best representation of the graph if the data on the x-axis are converted to logarithms?

      Your Answer: Rectangular hyperbola to sigmoid curve

      Explanation:

      The dose-response curve plots the graph of the dose (drug concentration) versus the response. As doses increase, the response increment diminishes; finally, doses may be reached at which no further increase in response can be achieved. This relation between drug concentration and effect is traditionally described by a hyperbolic curve. When the x-axis is plotted in log scale, the graph yields a sigmoid curve.

      Efficacy (Emax) and potency (EC50) can be derived from this curve. Emax is the maximal effect achievable, with increasing concentration of a drug. EC50 is the concentration of the drug, wherein half of the maximal effect is achieved.

      When the graph is plotted using a log [response/1-response] against log dose, the sigmoid curve becomes a straight line (Hill plot). A graph that transforms from a straight line to exponential curve is mathematically incorrect. A graph that transforms from either a wash-in or wash-out exponential curve to a straight line comes from an initial set of data plotted against time, to a logarithmic transformation of the initial data set against time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      32
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Post thyroidectomy, a 50-year-old male singer noticed some hoarseness in his voice. Now,...

    Correct

    • Post thyroidectomy, a 50-year-old male singer noticed some hoarseness in his voice. Now, he presents to his general physician as it has been the same for the past few weeks.

      A complication is noted in the post-thyroidectomy report regarding an injury to the external laryngeal nerve.

      Which muscle has been affected due to loss of innervation by the damaged nerve, and whose improper functioning can lead to hoarseness in the patient's voice?

      Your Answer: Cricothyroid

      Explanation:

      All of the muscles of the larynx are innervated by the recurrent laryngeal nerve, except the cricothyroid muscle.

      Cricothyroid muscle is located deep in the anterior neck, between the cricoid and thyroid cartilage and is innervated by the external laryngeal nerve. Any injury to this muscle can cause paralysis and lead to hoarseness. When cricothyroid muscle contracts, it leads to tightening, stretching and thinning of the vocal folds. This produces higher-pitched sounds during vocalization.

      A patient experiencing hoarseness due to possible injury to the external laryngeal nerve should be reassured that the hoarseness will resolve in time due to increased compensation from the other muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      71.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (4/5) 80%
Physiology (3/4) 75%
Pharmacology (7/8) 88%
Clinical Measurement (2/4) 50%
Pathophysiology (1/2) 50%
Anaesthesia Related Apparatus (2/2) 100%
Basic Physics (2/2) 100%
Physiology And Biochemistry (1/1) 100%
Statistical Methods (2/2) 100%
Passmed