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  • Question 1 - A 26-year old man is brought to the A&E with a stab wound...

    Correct

    • A 26-year old man is brought to the A&E with a stab wound to the chest. The wound is in a part of the left lung that might partially fill the costomediastinal recess in full respiration. Where did the weapon strike this man?

      Your Answer: Lingula

      Explanation:

      During full inspiration, the lingual-of the left lung partially fills the costomediastinal recess. If the apex of the lung is fully filled with air, it would occupy the copula (the part of the pleura that extends above the first rib). The hilum is part of the lung where the neurovascular structures that form the root of the lung enter and leave the lung and doesn’t expand on inspiration. The middle lobe can expand to fill the costomediastinal recess, however, the middle lobe is on the right lung. The inferior lobe, during full inspiration, might fill the costodiaphragmatic recess.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - When a young boy falls on his outstretched hand, he fractures one of...

    Correct

    • When a young boy falls on his outstretched hand, he fractures one of the bones at his wrist joint. The doctors told his parents that the fractured bone has special importance as it is that bone that articulates with the distal end of the radius. Which one of the following is it?

      Your Answer: Scaphoid

      Explanation:

      It is the scaphoid bone that articulates with the radius at this level. It is located at the radial side of the wrist and is considered the largest bone in the proximal row of carpal bones. It articulates with the radius via its superior surface. This bone also articulates with trapezium and trapezoid bones via the inferior surface, capitate and lunate medially.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 27 year old women works in a dry-cleaning shop. She was exposed...

    Correct

    • A 27 year old women works in a dry-cleaning shop. She was exposed to massive amounts of carbon tetrachloride on her skin as well as inhaled. Which of the following organs is most susceptible to damage?

      Your Answer: Liver

      Explanation:

      Carbon tetrachloride (CCl4) is a common agent used in the dry cleaning industry and is thought to cause the formation of free radicals. It causes rapid breakdown of the endoplasmic reticulum due to decomposition of lipids and severe liver cell injury. Within less than 30 mins, hepatic protein synthesis declines, lipid export is reduced due to lack of apoprotein and there is an influx of calcium and cell death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Pathology
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Action potentials are used extensively by the nervous system to communicate between neurones...

    Correct

    • Action potentials are used extensively by the nervous system to communicate between neurones and muscles or glands. What happens during the activation of a nerve cell membrane?

      Your Answer: Sodium ions flow inward

      Explanation:

      During the generation of an action potential, the membrane gets depolarized which cause the voltage gated sodium channels to open and sodium diffuses inside the neuron, resulting in the membrane potential moving towards a positive value. This positive potential will then open the voltage gated potassium channels and cause more K+ to move out decreasing the membrane potential and restoring the membrane potential to its resting value.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A swimmer was struggling to finish his training following an injury to his...

    Correct

    • A swimmer was struggling to finish his training following an injury to his right arm. On further examination it was found that any movements involving adduction, medial rotation and extension of her arm were particularly weak. Which nerve in this case was damaged?

      Your Answer: Thoracodorsal

      Explanation:

      Weakness on these particular movements indicate that there is a problem with the latissimus dorsi muscle. This muscle is very important particularly in swimming movements and is supplied by the thoracodorsal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      1.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 36-year-old female was advised to undergo genetic testing of BRCA1 and BRCA2....

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old female was advised to undergo genetic testing of BRCA1 and BRCA2. BRCA1 and BRCA2 are tumour markers specifically for which organ?

      Your Answer: Breast

      Explanation:

      Women with harmful mutations in either BRCA1 or BRCA2 have a risk of breast cancer that is about five times the normal risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      2.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which portion of the renal tubule absorbs amino acids and glucose? ...

    Correct

    • Which portion of the renal tubule absorbs amino acids and glucose?

      Your Answer: Proximal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      In relation to the morphology of the kidney as a whole, the convoluted segments of the proximal tubules are confined entirely to the renal cortex. Glucose, amino acids, inorganic phosphate and some other solutes are reabsorbed via secondary active transport in the proximal renal tubule through co-transport channels driven by the sodium gradient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      1.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 20 year lady is brought to the A&E following a road accident....

    Correct

    • A 20 year lady is brought to the A&E following a road accident. She is hypotensive and a CT scan of the abdomen reveals a shattered spleen. An emergency splenectomy is performed where the splenic artery is ligated right at its origin. Which of the following arteries will have a diminished blood flow owing to ligation of the splenic artery at its origin?

      Your Answer: Left gastroepiploic

      Explanation:

      Ligation of the splenic artery right at its point of origin should cut off blood flow in its branches. The following are the branches of the splenic artery: pancreatic branches, short gastric branches and left gastroepiploic arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      30
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which tumour marker is associated with medullary carcinoma of thyroid? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which tumour marker is associated with medullary carcinoma of thyroid?

      Your Answer: Alpha-fetoprotein

      Correct Answer: Calcitonin

      Explanation:

      Medullary carcinoma of thyroid accounts for 3% of thyroid cancers. It arises from the parafollicular cells (C cells) of the thyroid gland that produce calcitonin. It is often familial and caused by mutation of ret proto-oncogene, but can occasionally be sporadic. The familial cases can also occur as part of MEN syndromes IIA and IIB. The high calcitonin leads to down-regulation of the receptors, which does not affect the calcium levels significantly. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid shows characteristic amyloid deposits that stain positively with Congo red. The initial presentation consists of an asymptomatic thyroid nodule. Many cases are diagnosed due to routine screening of relatives of patients with MEN IIA and IIB. Medullary carcinoma can also cause ectopic production of other hormones/peptides such as adrenocorticotrophic hormone, vasoactive intestinal polypeptide, kallikreins and serotonin.

      Metastasis from medullary carcinoma spread via the lymphatics to cervical and mediastinal nodes, and can also affect the liver, lungs and bone. Diagnosis is by raised serum calcitonin levels. A provocative test with calcium (15 mg/kg intravenously over 4 hours) also aids in diagnosis by leading to excessive secretion of calcitonin. X-ray might also show dense, conglomerate calcification.

      CA-125 is frequently elevated in ovarian carcinomas. CA 15-3 is often associated with breast carcinomas. Alpha-fetoprotein is seen raised in hepatomas and gonadal tumours. Elevated HCG is associated with normal pregnancies, gonadal tumours, and choriocarcinomas. Thyroglobulin is used for surveillance in papillary carcinoma of thyroid. CA 19-9 is used in the management of pancreatic cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pathology
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Paracentesis of ascetic fluid in a 45-year old woman revealed the following :...

    Correct

    • Paracentesis of ascetic fluid in a 45-year old woman revealed the following : clear, yellow fluid with protein 2.0 g/dl and a few mesothelial and mononuclear cells seen. No malignant cells seen. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cirrhosis

      Explanation:

      Ascites develops either from:

        • Increased  accumulation
          • Increased capillary permeability
          • Increased venous pressure
          • Decreased protein (oncotic pressure)
        • Decreased clearance
          • Increased lymphatic obstruction

      Cause

      • Transudate (<30g/L protein) (Systemic disease)
        • Liver (Cirrhosis)
        • Cardiac e.g. RHF, CCF, SBE right heart valve disease and constrictive Pericarditis
        • Renal failure
        • Hypoalbuminaemia (nephrosis)
      • Exudate (>30g/L protein) (Local disease)
        • Malignancy
        • Venous obstruction e.g. Budd-Chiari, Schistosomiasis
        • Pancreatitis
        • Lymphatic obstruction
        • Infection (especially TB)

      Cirrhosis is disease of the liver that is characterized by fibrosis leading to disorganization of the hepatic architecture. It shows the development of regenerative nodules surrounded by dense fibrotic tissue. Cirrhosis shows non-specific symptoms initially, which include fatigue, anorexia and weight loss. It can later progress to portal hypertension, ascites and liver failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary
      • Pathology
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A patient is suspected to have a chromosomal abnormality. Which tumour and chromosomal...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is suspected to have a chromosomal abnormality. Which tumour and chromosomal association is correct?

      Your Answer: Neurofibromas – chromosome 13

      Correct Answer: Neuroblastoma – chromosome 1

      Explanation:

      Neuroblastoma is associated with a deletion on chromosome 1 and inactivation of a suppressor gene. Neurofibromas and osteogenic sarcoma are associated with an abnormality on chromosome 17. Retinoblastoma (Rb) is associated with an abnormality on chromosome 13. Wilms’ tumours of the kidney are associated with an abnormality on chromosome 11.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which among the following vertebrae marks the lowest extent of the superior mediastinum?...

    Correct

    • Which among the following vertebrae marks the lowest extent of the superior mediastinum?

      Your Answer: Fourth thoracic

      Explanation:

      The superior mediastinum lies between the manubrium anteriorly and the upper vertebrae of the thorax posteriorly. Below, it is bound by a slightly oblique plane that passes backward from the sternal angle to the lower part of the body of T4 and laterally by the pleura.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      23.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - For calculation of cardiac output by Fick's principle, which of the following vessels...

    Correct

    • For calculation of cardiac output by Fick's principle, which of the following vessels is the best source of venous blood to determine the arterial-to-venous oxygen tension difference?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary artery

      Explanation:

      Fick’s principle states that the total uptake (or release) of a substance by peripheral tissues is equal to the product of the blood flow to the peripheral tissues and the arterial– venous concentration difference (gradient) of the substance. It is used to measure the cardiac output, and the formula is Cardiac output = oxygen consumption divided by arteriovenous oxygen difference. Assuming there are no shunts across the pulmonary system, the pulmonary blood flow equals the systemic blood flow. The arterial and venous blood oxygen content is measured by sampling from the pulmonary artery (low oxygen content) and pulmonary vein (high oxygen content). Peripheral arterial blood is used as a surrogate for the pulmonary vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      25.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - The operating surgeon notices a structure lying alongside a herniated mass whilst repairing...

    Incorrect

    • The operating surgeon notices a structure lying alongside a herniated mass whilst repairing an indirect inguinal hernia in a female patient. Which structure could this be?

      Your Answer: Inferior epigastric artery

      Correct Answer: Round ligament of the uterus

      Explanation:

      The main structure traversing the inguinal canal in women is the round ligament. In men, it is the spermatic cord.

      The iliohypogastric nerve innervates the abdominal wall and runs between the transversus abdominis and internal oblique muscles before piercing the internal oblique at the anterior superior iliac spine to run between the internal and external obliques.

      The inferior epigastric artery is between the peritoneum and the transversus abdominis creating the lateral umbilical fold.

      The ovarian artery and the ovarian vein are branches from the descending aorta and inferior vena cava that supply the ovary in the pelvic cavity.

      The pectineal ligament is a thick fascial layer over the pectineal line of the pubis. It doesn’t traverse the canal.

      The broad ligament if found on the lateral sides of the uterus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - During a radical mastectomy for advanced breast cancer, the surgeon injured the long...

    Correct

    • During a radical mastectomy for advanced breast cancer, the surgeon injured the long thoracic nerve. Which among the following muscles is likely to be affected?

      Your Answer: Serratus anterior

      Explanation:

      The long thoracic nerve innervates the serratus anterior muscle which holds the scapula forward and balances the rhomboids and the trapezius muscles which retract the scapula. Injury to this nerve results in a ‘winged scapula’ with a posterior protrusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A surgeon performing a laparoscopic repair of an inguinal hernia visualizes a loop...

    Incorrect

    • A surgeon performing a laparoscopic repair of an inguinal hernia visualizes a loop of bowel protruding through the abdominal wall to form a direct inguinal hernia. When this is viewed from the side of the abdomen with a laparoscope, in which region would the hernial sac be?

      Your Answer: Deep inguinal ring

      Correct Answer: Medial inguinal fossa

      Explanation:

      In a direct inguinal hernia, visceral contents exit the abdomen through a weak point in the fascia in the medial inguinal fossa i.e. the area between the medial and lateral umbilical folds. Such a hernia doesn’t pass through the deep inguinal ring or the lateral inguinal fossa. Note that direct hernias can go through the superficial inguinal ring, although rarely. The supravesical fossa, between the median and medial umbilical folds, is formed by a peritoneal reflection from the anterior abdominal wall onto the bladder and the retrovesical fossa is the region behind the urinary bladder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      34
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 65-year-old man complains of headaches, weakness, cramps, and confusion; blood tests reveal...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man complains of headaches, weakness, cramps, and confusion; blood tests reveal he has severe hyponatremia. The most likely cause is:

      Your Answer: Severe diarrhoea or vomiting

      Explanation:

      Hyponatraemia occurs when the sodium level in the plasma falls below 135 mmol/l. Hyponatraemia is an abnormality that can occur in isolation or, more commonly as a complication of other medical illnesses. Severe hyponatraemia may cause osmotic shift of water from the plasma into the brain cells. Typical symptoms include nausea, vomiting, headache and malaise. As the hyponatraemia worsens, confusion, diminished reflexes, convulsions, stupor or coma may occur. The cause of hyponatremia is typically classified by a person’s fluid status into low volume, normal volume, and high volume. Low volume hyponatremia can occur from diarrhoea, vomiting, diuretics, and sweating.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Thalamic syndrome will most likely result in: ...

    Correct

    • Thalamic syndrome will most likely result in:

      Your Answer: Hyperaesthesia

      Explanation:

      Signs and symptoms of thalamic syndrome include contralateral hemi anaesthesia, burning or aching sensation in one half of a body (hyperaesthesia), often accompanied by mood swings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 40 year old man from Japan was diagnosed with cancer of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 40 year old man from Japan was diagnosed with cancer of the oesophagus. He is to undergo esophagectomy. While mobilizing the oesophagus in the neck, for resection and anastomosis with the stomach tube on the left side, the surgeon must be cautious not to injure a vital structure. Which of the following is it?

      Your Answer: Azygos vein

      Correct Answer: Thoracic duct

      Explanation:

      The oesophagus is divided into 3 portions: cervical (part that is in the neck), thoracic portion and the abdominal portion. The cervical part is bordered by the trachea anteriorly and the prevertebral fascia covering the bodies of the 6,7 and 8th vertebra posteriorly. The thoracic duct lies on the left side at the level of the sixth cervical vertebra. The carotid sheath with its contents and lower poles of the lateral lobes of thyroid gland are lateral. The thoracic duct is the structure most likely to be injured.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Urine specific gravity allows the assessment of which of the following renal functions?...

    Incorrect

    • Urine specific gravity allows the assessment of which of the following renal functions?

      Your Answer: Blood flow

      Correct Answer: Concentration

      Explanation:

      Concentrating ability of kidneys is assessed by measuring the urine specific gravity. Normal values of urine specific gravity fall between 1.002 and 1.030 g/ml.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Renal
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Calculate the stroke volume in a patient admitted for coronary bypass surgery, with...

    Correct

    • Calculate the stroke volume in a patient admitted for coronary bypass surgery, with the following parameters pre-operatively:

      Oxygen consumption = 300 ml/min

      Arterial oxygen content = 20 ml/100 ml blood

      Pulmonary arterial oxygen content = 15 ml/100 ml blood and Heart rate = 100 beats/min.

      Your Answer: 60 ml

      Explanation:

      By Fick’s principle, cardiac output can be calculated as follows: VO2 = CO × (CAO2– CVO2) where VO2= oxygen consumption, CO = cardiac output, CAO2 = arterial oxygen content and CvO2 = mixed venous oxygen content. Thus, in the given problem, 300 ml/min = CO × (20 – 15) ml/100 ml CO = 300 × 100/5 ml/min CO = 6000 ml/min. Also, cardiac output = stroke volume × heart rate. Thus, 6000 ml/min = stroke volume × 100 beats/min. Hence, stroke volume = 6000/100 ml/min which is 60 ml/min.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      118
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 35-year-old woman is in a comatose state following a traumatic head injury,...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman is in a comatose state following a traumatic head injury, and is receiving intravenous (IV) antibiotics and IV fluids containing saline and 5% dextrose. A serum biochemistry analysis is performed five days later which shows a low serum potassium level. This is most likely to be due to:

      Your Answer: Nothing per oral regimen

      Explanation:

      In this patient the cause for hypokalaemia is insufficient consumption of potassium as she is nil-per mouth with no intravenous supplementation. Parenteral nutrition has been used for comatose patients, although enteral feeding is usually preferable, and less prone to complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      42.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 51-year old woman after undergoing a barium swallowing was discovered to be...

    Incorrect

    • A 51-year old woman after undergoing a barium swallowing was discovered to be suffering from an oesophageal hiatal hernia. Which muscle fibres of the diaphragm border this hernia directly if the stomach herniates through an enlarged oesophageal hiatus?

      Your Answer: Costal fibres

      Correct Answer: Right crus

      Explanation:

      The oesophageal hiatus is a natural fissure on the thoracic diaphragm that allows passage of the oesophagus and the vagal nerve. The oesophageal hiatus is located in one of the tendinous structures of the diaphragm that connect it to the spine which is known as the right crus. In case of an hiatal hernia, this diaphragmatic structure would be the one bordering the hernia as it is the structure that encircles the oesophageal hiatus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      23.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - What intrinsic muscle of the larynx is responsible for the tensing of the...

    Incorrect

    • What intrinsic muscle of the larynx is responsible for the tensing of the vocal cords?

      Your Answer: Posterior cricoarytenoid

      Correct Answer: Cricothyroid muscle

      Explanation:

      The cricothyroid muscle is the only tensor muscle of the larynx aiding with phonation. It attaches to the anterolateral aspect of the cricoid and the inferior cornu and lower lamina of the thyroid cartilage. Its action tilts the thyroid forward to help tense the vocal cords.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) has less side effects than heparin and is...

    Correct

    • Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) has less side effects than heparin and is used in the prophylaxis and treatment of venous and arterial thrombotic disorders. Which of the following is LMWHs mechanism of action?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of factor Xa

      Explanation:

      Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is a anticoagulant that differs from normal heparin in that it has only short chains of polysaccharide. LMWH inhibits thrombin formation by converting antithrombin from a slow to a rapid inactivator of coagulation factor Xa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      53.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - The following organs would be expected to lie within the right lower quadrant...

    Correct

    • The following organs would be expected to lie within the right lower quadrant of the abdomen, assuming that the gastrointestinal tract is rotated normally:

      Your Answer: Distal jejunum, caecum, vermiform appendix

      Explanation:

      The abdomen is divided by theoretical anatomic lines into four quadrants. The median plane follows the linea alba and extends from the xiphoid process to the pubic symphysis and splits the abdomen in half. The transumbilical plane is a horizontal line that runs at the level of the umbilicus. This forms the upper right and left quadrants and the lower right and left quadrants. Structures in the right lower quadrant include: caecum, appendix, part of the small intestine, ascending colon, the right half of the female reproductive system, right ureter. Pain in this region is most commonly associated with appendicitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      26.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - After having donated a unit of blood. The blood bank will prefer to...

    Correct

    • After having donated a unit of blood. The blood bank will prefer to use which of the following anticoagulants to store the blood?

      Your Answer: Citrate

      Explanation:

      Calcium is necessary for coagulation to occur. Citrate being a chelator and combining with calcium ions to form un-ionised compound will prevent coagulation. Following transfusion the citrate is removed by the liver with in a few minutes. Oxalate also works on the same principle but it is toxic to the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A construction worker is brought to the A&E after a fall on site....

    Correct

    • A construction worker is brought to the A&E after a fall on site. The patient is conscious but complains of inability to feel his legs. A neurological examination reveals that he has no cutaneous sensation from his umbilicus to his toes. What is the likely level of the spinal cord that is injured?

      Your Answer: T10

      Explanation:

      The umbilicus has a relatively consistent position in humans and thus serves as an important land mark. The skin around the waist at the level of the umbilicus is supplied by the tenth thoracic spinal nerve (T10 dermatome).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 15-day old male baby was brought to the emergency department with sweating...

    Correct

    • A 15-day old male baby was brought to the emergency department with sweating and his lips turning blue while feeding. He was born full term. On examination, his temperature was 37.9°C, blood pressure 75/45 mmHg, pulse was 175/min, and respiratory rate was 42/min. A harsh systolic ejection murmur could be heard at the left upper sternal border. X-ray chest showed small, boot-shaped heart with decreased pulmonary vascular markings. He most likely has:

      Your Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot

      Explanation:

      The most common congenital cyanotic heart disease and the most common cause of blue baby syndrome, Tetralogy of Fallot shows four cardiac malformations occurring together. These are ventricular septal defect (VSD), pulmonary stenosis (right ventricular outflow obstruction), overriding aorta (degree of which is variable), and right ventricular hypertrophy. The primary determinant of severity of disease is the degree of pulmonary stenosis. Tetralogy of Fallot is seen in 3-6 per 10,000 births and is responsible for 5-7% congenital heart defects, with slightly higher incidence in males. It has also been associated with chromosome 22 deletions and DiGeorge syndrome. It gives rise to right-to-left shunt leading to poor oxygenation of blood. Primary symptom is low oxygen saturation in the blood with or without cyanosis at birth of within first year of life. Affected children ay develop acute severe cyanosis or ‘tet spells’ (sudden, marked increase in cyanosis, with syncope, and may result in hypoxic brain injury and death). Other symptoms include heart murmur, failure to gain weight, poor development, clubbing, dyspnoea on exertion and polycythaemia. Chest X-ray reveals characteristic coeur-en-sabot (boot-shaped) appearance of the heart. Treatment consists of immediate care for cyanotic spells and Blalock–Taussig shunt (BT shunt) followed by corrective surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      42.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 54-year-old woman is re-admitted to the hospital with shortness of breath and...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman is re-admitted to the hospital with shortness of breath and sharp chest pain 2 weeks after surgical cholecystectomy. The most probable cause of these clinical findings is:

      Your Answer: Postoperative atelectasis

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary embolus

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary embolism is caused by the sudden blockage of a major lung blood vessel, usually by a blood clot. Symptoms include sudden sharp chest pain, cough, dyspnoea, palpitations, tachycardia or loss of consciousness. Risk factors for developing pulmonary embolism include long periods of inactivity, recent surgery, trauma, pregnancy, oral contraceptives, oestrogen replacement, malignancies and venous stasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Respiratory
      23.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (8/13) 62%
Thorax (2/3) 67%
Upper Limb (3/3) 100%
Cell Injury & Wound Healing (1/1) 100%
Pathology (4/8) 50%
General (2/2) 100%
Physiology (9/9) 100%
Neoplasia (1/2) 50%
Renal (1/2) 50%
Abdomen (3/6) 50%
Endocrine (0/1) 0%
Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (3/3) 100%
Fluids & Electrolytes (2/2) 100%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Head & Neck (0/1) 0%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Passmed