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Question 1
Correct
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A bolus of alfentanil has a faster onset of action than an equal dose of fentanyl.
Which of the following statements most accurately describes the difference?Your Answer: The pKa of alfentanil is less than that of fentanyl
Explanation:Unionised molecules are more likely than ionised molecules to cross membranes (such as the blood-brain barrier).
Because alfentanil and fentanyl are weak bases, the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation says that the ratio of ionised to unionised molecules is determined by the parent compound’s pKa in relation to physiological pH.
Alfentanil has a pKa of 6.5, while fentanyl has a pKa of 8.4.
At a pH of 7.4, 89 percent of alfentanil is unionised, whereas 9% of fentanyl is.As a result, alfentanil has a faster onset than fentanyl.
Fentanyl is 83% plasma protein bound
Alfentanil is 90% plasma protein bound.Alfentanil’s pharmacokinetics are affected by its higher plasma protein binding. Because alfentanil has a low hepatic extraction ratio (0.4), clearance is determined by the degree of protein binding rather than the time it takes to take effect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man with nausea and vomiting is admitted to the hospital.
For temporal arteritis, he takes 40 mg prednisolone orally in divided doses. His prescription chart will need to be adjusted to reflect his inability to take oral medications.
What is the equivalent dose of intravenous hydrocortisone to 40 mg oral prednisolone?Your Answer: 100 mg
Correct Answer: 160 mg
Explanation:Prednisolone 5 mg is the same as 20 mg hydrocortisone.
Prednisolone 40 mg is the same as 8 x 20 mg or 160 mg of prednisolone.
Mineralocorticoid effects and variations in action duration are not taken into account in these comparisons.
5 mg of prednisolone is the same as Dexamethasone 750 mcg, Hydrocortisone 20 mg, Methylprednisolone 4 mg, and Cortisone acetate 25 mg.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line pharmacologic treatment for status epilepticus?
Your Answer: Phenytoin
Correct Answer: Lorazepam
Explanation:Lorazepam is an intermediate-acting benzodiazepine that binds to the GABA-A receptor subunit to increase the frequency of chloride channel opening and cause membrane hyperpolarization.
Lorazepam has emerged as the preferred benzodiazepine for acute management of status epilepticus. Lorazepam differs from diazepam in two important respects. It is less lipid-soluble than diazepam, with a distribution half-life of two to three hours versus 15 minutes for diazepam. Therefore, it should have a longer duration of clinical effect. Lorazepam also binds the GABAergic receptor more tightly than diazepam, resulting in a longer duration of action. The anticonvulsant effects of lorazepam last six to 12 hours, and the typical dose ranges from 4 to 8 mg. This agent also has a broad spectrum of efficacy, terminating seizures in 75-80% of cases. Its adverse effects are identical to those of diazepam. Thus, lorazepam also is an effective choice for acute seizure management, with the added possibility of a longer duration of action than diazepam.
Phenobarbitone is a long-acting barbiturate that binds to GABA-A receptor site and increase the duration of chloride channel opening. It also blocks glutamic acid neurotransmission, and, at high doses, can block sodium channels. It is considered as the drug of choice for seizures in infants.
Phenytoin is an anti-seizure drug that blocks voltage-gated sodium channels. It is preferred in prolonged therapy of status epilepticus because it is less sedating.
In cases wherein airway protection is required, thiopentone and propofol are the preferred drugs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 4
Correct
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Concerning drug dose and response, one of the following statements is correct?
Your Answer: Intrinsic activity determines maximal response
Explanation:Dose response curves are plotted as % response to drug against Logarithm of drug concentration. The graph is usually sigmoid shaped.
Any drug that has high affinity and high intrinsic activity is likely an agonist. A drug with high affinity but no intrinsic activity will act as an antagonist. Displacement of an agonist also depends on the relative concentrations of the two drugs at the receptor sites.
Maximal response may be achieved by activation of a small proportion of receptor sites.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 5
Correct
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What does therapeutic index in humans mean?
Your Answer: The TD50 divided by the ED50
Explanation:Therapeutic index is a measure which relates the dose of a drug required to produce a desired effect to that which produces an undesired effect.
In humans, it is usually defined as the ratio of the toxic dose for 50% of the population (TD50) to the minimum effective dose for 50% of the population (ED50) for some therapeutically relevant effect. In animal studies, the therapeutic index can be defined as the ratio of the median lethal dose (LD50) to the ED50.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 47-year old man and known alcoholic suffered a fall that resulted to a fracture on his right leg. Radiographic imaging showed a fractured tibial shaft. Following surgery, you were instructed to prescribe intravenous paracetamol as an analgesic.
If the patient weighs 49 kg, which of the following would be the best regimen for the patient?Your Answer: 15 mg/kg with a maximum daily dose of 60 mg/kg (not exceeding 3 g)
Explanation:A stock dose of Intravenous paracetamol available in the market is 10mg/ml. There is a recommended dose of IV paracetamol according to the profile of the patient (age, co-morbidities, weight).
Weight Recommended Dose Maximum per day
≤10 kg 7.5 mg/kg 30 mg/kg
>10 kg to ≤33 kg 15 mg/kg 60 mg/kg (not exceeding 2 g)
>33 kg to ≤50 kg 15 mg/kg 60 mg/kg (not exceeding 3 g)
>50 kg with additional risk factors for hepatotoxicity 1g 3 g
>50 kg with no additional risk factors for hepatotoxicity 1g 4 gSpecial precaution must be observed for patients with hepatocellular insufficiency. The maximum dose per day should not exceed 3g.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 39-year old man came to the Out-Patient department for symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Medical history revealed he is on anti-epileptic medication Phenytoin. His plasma phenytoin levels are maintained between 10-12 mcg/mL (Therapeutic range: 10-20 mcg/mL). He is given a H2 antagonist receptor agent (Cimetidine) for his GERD symptoms.
Upon follow-up, his plasma phenytoin levels increased to 38 mcg/mL.
Regarding metabolism and elimination, which of the following best explains the pharmacokinetics of phenytoin at higher plasma levels?Your Answer: Plasma concentration plotted against time is linear
Explanation:Drug elimination is the termination of drug action, and may involve metabolism into inactive state and excretion out of the body. Duration of drug action is determined by the dose administered and the rate of elimination following the last dose.
There are two types of elimination: first-order and zero-order elimination.
In first-order elimination, the rate of elimination is proportionate to the concentration; the concentration decreases exponentially over time. It observes the characteristic half-life elimination, where the concentration decreases by 50% for every half-life.
In zero-order elimination, the rate of elimination is constant regardless of concentration; the concentration decreases linearly over time. A constant amount of the drug being excreted over time, and it occurs when drugs have saturated their elimination mechanisms.
Since phenytoin is observed in elevated levels, the elimination mechanisms for it has been saturated and, thus, will have to undergo zero-order elimination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 8
Correct
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Which of the following molecules is closely related to the structure of Oxytocin?
Your Answer: ADH
Explanation:Oxytocin is structurally similar to Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) and thus oxytocin can cause water intoxication (due to an ADH like action)
Oxytocin is secreted by the posterior pituitary along with ADH. It increases uterine contractions – the contraction of the upper segment (fundus and body) of the uterus whereas the lower segment is relaxed facilitating the expulsion of the foetus
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) also called vasopressin is released from the posterior pituitary in response to hypertonicity and increases fluid reabsorption from the kidney.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 9
Correct
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A weakly acidic drug with a pKa of 8.4 is injected intravenously into a patient.
At a normal physiological pH, the percentage of this drug unionised in the plasma is?Your Answer: 90
Explanation:Primary FRCA is concerned with two issues. The first is a working knowledge of the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation, and the second is a working knowledge of logarithms and antilogarithms.
The pH at which the drug exists in 50 percent ionised and 50 percent unionised forms is known as the pKa.
To calculate the proportion of ionised to unionised form of a drug, use the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation.
pH = pKa + log ([A-]/[HA])
or
pH = pKa + log [(salt)/(acid)]
pH = pKa + log ([ionised]/[unionised])Hence, if the pKa − pH = 0, then 50% of drug is ionised and 50% is unionised.
In this example:
7.4 = 8.4 + log ([ionised]/[unionised])
7.4 − 8.4 = log ([ionised]/[unionised])
log −1 = log ([ionised]/[unionised])Simply put, the antilog is the inverse log calculation. In other words, if you know the logarithm of a number, you can use the antilog to find the value of the number. The antilogarithm’s definition is as follows:
y = antilog x = 10x
Antilog to the base 10 of 0 = 1, −1 = 0.1, −2 = 0.01, −3 = 0.001 and, −4 = 0.0001.
[A-]/[HA] = 0.1
Assuming that we can apply the approximation [A-] << [HA} then this means the acid is 0.1 x 100% = 10% ionised so the percentage of (non-ionized) acid will be 100% – 10% = 90%
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which of the following statement is not true regarding the effects of Dopamine infusions?
Your Answer: At lower rates of infusion, there is increased contractility, heart rate, cardiac output and coronary blood flow
Correct Answer: Decreasing gastric transit time
Explanation:Moderately high doses of dopamine produce a positive inotropic (direct?1 and D1 action + that due to Noradrenaline release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.
Vasoconstriction (?1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.
At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular ? and ? receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier—no CNS effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 11
Correct
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Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of doxycycline?
Your Answer: Inhibit 30S subunit of ribosomes
Explanation:Doxycycline belongs to the family of tetracyclines and inhibits protein synthesis through reversible binding to bacterial 30s ribosomal subunits, which prevent binding of new incoming amino acids (aminoacyl-tRNA) and thus interfere with peptide growth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 12
Correct
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Monitoring of which of the following is indicated in the prevention of propofol infusion syndrome?
Your Answer: Lactate
Explanation:Propofol infusion syndrome (PRIS) is characterized by lactic acidosis, bradyarrhythmia, rhabdomyolysis, cardiac and renal failure, and often leads to death. So, lactate monitoring is advised in patients with propofol infusion syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 13
Correct
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Which of the following statements is not correct regarding Noradrenaline?
Your Answer: Predominantly work through effects on ?-adrenergic receptors
Explanation:Noradrenaline also called norepinephrine belongs to the catecholamine family that functions in the brain and body as both a hormone and neurotransmitter.
They have sympathomimetic effects acting via adrenoceptors (?1, ?2,?1, ?2, ?3) or dopamine receptors (D1, D2).
May cause reflex bradycardia, reduce cardiac output and increase myocardial oxygen consumption
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 14
Correct
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All the following statements are false regarding carbamazepine except
Your Answer: Has neurotoxic side effects
Explanation:Phenytoin, Carbamazepine, and Valproate act by inhibiting the sodium channels when these are open. These drugs also prolong the inactivated stage of these channels (Sodium channels are refractory to stimulation till these reach the closed/ resting phase from inactivated phase)
Carbamazepine is the drug of choice for partial seizures and trigeminal neuralgia
It can have neurotoxic side effects. Major neurotoxic effects include dizziness, headache, ataxia, vertigo, and diplopia
After single oral doses of carbamazepine, the absorption is fairly complete and the elimination half-life is about 35 hours (range 18 to 65 hours). During multiple dosing, the half-life is decreased to 10-20 hours, probably due to autoinduction of the oxidative metabolism of the drug.
It is metabolized in liver into active metabolite, carbamazepine-10,11-epoxide.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 15
Correct
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Noradrenaline is used as an infusion to increase blood pressure in a 43-year-old woman with pneumonia admitted to ICU.
Which of the following statements is true regarding Noradrenaline?Your Answer: Has a short half life about 2 minutes
Explanation:Noradrenaline has a short half-life of about 2 minutes. It is rapidly cleared from plasma by a combination of cellular reuptake and metabolism.
It acts as sympathomimetics by acting on ?1 receptors and also on ? receptors.
It decreases renal and hepatic blood flow.
Norepinephrine is metabolized by the enzymes monoamine oxidase and catechol-O-methyltransferase to 3-methoxy-4-hydroxymandelic acid and 3-methoxy-4-hydroxyphenylglycol (MHPG).
Natural catecholamines are Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, and Dopamine
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 16
Correct
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Which of the following anaesthetic agents is most suitable for inhalational induction in an 8-year-old child for inhalational induction of anaesthesia before routine surgery?
Your Answer: Sevoflurane at 4%
Explanation:The ideal agent for this case should have low blood: gas coefficient, pleasant smell, and high oil: gas coefficient (potent with a low Minimum alveolar coefficient (MAC)). Among the given options, Sevoflurane is perfect with 0.692 blood: gas partition coefficient and is low pungency, and is sweet.
Other drugs with their blood: gas partition coefficient and their smell are given as:
Blood/gas partition coefficient MAC Smell
Enflurane 1.8 1.68 Pungent, ethereal
Desflurane 0.42 7 Pungent, ethereal
Halothane 2.54 0.71 Sweet
Isoflurane 1.4 1.15 Pungent, ethereal -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 17
Correct
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Which of the following intravenous induction agents is best for the patient with acute intermittent porphyria requiring rapid sequence induction for emergency surgery?
Your Answer: Propofol
Explanation:Propofol is considered a safe drug to use in porphyria because even if causes mild elevation of porphyrins inpatient, it does not cause any symptoms.
Since barbiturates are inducers of ALA synthetase, they are contraindicated in porphyria patients. So, thiopentone most not be used.
Etomidate is a potent inhibitor of adrenal 11 beta-hydroxylase and 17 alpha-hydroxylase reducing cortisol and aldosterone synthesis in the adrenal cortex and has been associated with exacerbations of porphyria in animal studies and it is advisable not to use it in this condition.
Ketamine should be reserved for the hemodynamically unstable patient, however, it is a safe drug.
Diazepam is safe in porphyria but is not usually used for a rapid sequence induction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 18
Correct
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Which of the following anaesthetic agent is most potent with the lowest Minimal Alveolar Concentration (MAC)?
Your Answer: Isoflurane
Explanation:The clinical potency of the anaesthetic agent is measured using minimal alveolar concentration(MAC).
MAC and oil: gas partition coefficient is inversely related. Anaesthetic agent Oil/gas partition coefficient and Minimal alveolar concentration (MAC) is given respectively as
Desflurane 18 6
Isoflurane 90 1.2
Nitrous oxide 1.4 104
Sevoflurane 53.4 2
Xenon 1.9 71With these data, we can conclude Isoflurane is the most potent with the highest oil/gas partition coefficient of 90 and the lowest MAC of 1.2
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 19
Correct
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which of the following herbal drug side effects or herb-drug interactions is the most likely?
Your Answer: Ephedra : increased bleeding time
Correct Answer: St. John's Wort : serotonin syndrome
Explanation:Patients who present for surgery may be on prescription medication or natural/herbal therapies. These have relevance for anaesthesia since they can cause drug interactions.
Ephedra (Ma Huang) is a drug derived from the plant Ephedra sinica that is used as a CNS stimulant, weight reduction aid, and asthma therapy. It is a combination of alkaloids that includes ephedrine which stimulates noradrenaline release from pre-synaptic neurones by acting directly on alpha and beta adrenoreceptors. The use of sympathomimetic drugs together can cause cardiovascular instability.
Ginkgo Biloba contains anti-oxidant characteristics and is used to treat Alzheimer’s disease, vascular dementia, and peripheral vascular disease. It lowers platelet adhesiveness and raises the risk of bleeding by decreasing platelet activating factor (PAF), especially in individuals who are also taking anticoagulants and antiplatelet drugs.
The extract from St. John’s Wort is utilised as an antidepressant because it is a cytochrome P450 isoenzyme inhibitor as well as a serotonin uptake inhibitor. When drugs like fentanyl or tramadol are used during an anaesthetic, there is a risk of serotonin syndrome developing.
The root of a pepper is used to make kava (Piper methysticum). It is a weak GABAA agonist which has the potential to augment the effects of propofol and benzodiazepines, which are volatile anaesthetics.
Garlic is made from the allium sativum plant and is used to treat hypertension and hyperlipidaemia. It includes cysteine, which inhibits platelet aggregation irreversibly, amplifying the effects of aspirin and NSAIDs.
Echinacea is a common herbal medicine that stimulates the immune system by modulating cytokine signalling. In individuals who require organ transplantation, it should be avoided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 21
Correct
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Modified rapid sequence induction with 1mg/kg rocuronium was done is a 42-year-old male for emergency appendicectomy. The patient weight was 70 kg and a failed intubation indicated immediate reversal of neuromuscular blockade.
Which of the following is the correct dose of sugammadex for this patient?Your Answer: 1120 mg
Explanation:Sugammadex is used for immediate reversal of rocuronium-induced neuromuscular blockade.
It is used at a dose of 16 mg/kg.Since the patient in the question is 70 kg, the required dose of sugammadex can be calculated as:
16×70 = 1120 mg.Sugammadex selectively binds rocuronium or vecuronium, thereby reversing their neuromuscular blocking action. Due to its 1:1 binding of rocuronium or vecuronium, it can reverse any depth of neuromuscular block.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 22
Correct
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Gentamicin is a drug used for the treatment of bronchiectasis. Which of the following is true regarding the mechanism of action of gentamicin?
Your Answer: Inhibit the 30S subunit of ribosomes
Explanation:Gentamicin is a broad-spectrum antibiotic whose mechanism of action involves inhibition of protein synthesis by binding to 30s ribosomes. Its major adverse effect is nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity
Aminoglycoside bind to 30s subunit of ribosome causing misreading of mRNA
Tetracyclines inhibit protein synthesis through reversible binding to bacterial 30s ribosomal subunits, which prevent binding of new incoming amino acids (aminoacyl-tRNA) and thus interfere with peptide growth.
Chloramphenicol binds to the 50s subunit and inhibits peptidyl transferase
Clindamycin binds to the 50s ribosomal subunit of bacteria and disrupts protein synthesis by interfering with the transpeptidation reaction, which thereby inhibits early chain elongation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 23
Correct
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Which of the following is the best marker of mast cell degranulation in a patient with suspected anaphylaxis who became hypotensive and developed widespread urticarial rash after administration of Augmentin?
Your Answer: Tryptase
Explanation:Mast cell tryptase is a reliable marker of mast cell degranulation. Tryptase is a protease enzyme that acts via widespread protease-activated receptors (PARs).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Typical sigmoid log dose-response curves are seen in agonists and are used to compare efficacy and potency. Which of the following opioids has a log dose-response curve furthest to the right?
Your Answer: Oxycodone
Correct Answer: Tramadol
Explanation:Lesser the potency of the drug, the higher the dose required to produce maximal receptor occupation. So, the least potent drug will have a log dose-response curve furthest to the right on X-axis.
Based on the option given, tramadol is the least potent drug and thus higher dose is required to produce maximal opioid receptor occupation.
Thus, Tramadol is the least potent opioid with a log dose-response curve furthest to the right on X-axis.
Note, Fentanyl is the most potent opioid with a log dose-response curve furthest to the left on the X-axis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 25
Correct
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Because this benzodiazepine has a half-life of 2-4 hours, it is preferred for clinical use.
This benzodiazepine has which of the following properties that no other benzodiazepine has?Your Answer: It is water soluble at a pH of 3.5 and lipid soluble at a pH of 7.4
Explanation:Midazolam is the benzodiazepine in question. It’s the only benzodiazepine that undergoes tautomeric transformation (dynamic isomerism). The molecule is ionised and water soluble at pH 3.5, but when injected into the body at pH 7.4, it becomes unionised and lipid soluble, allowing it to easily pass through the blood brain barrier.
The half-life of midazolam is only 2-4 hours.
It is a GABAA receptor agonist because it is a benzodiazepine. GABAA receptors are found in abundance throughout the central nervous system, particularly in the cerebral cortex, hippocampus, thalamus, basal ganglia, and limbic system. GABAA receptors are ligand-gated ion channels, with the inhibitory neurotransmitter gamma-aminobutyric acid as the endogenous agonist. It is a pentameric protein (2, 2 and one subunit) that spans the cell membrane, and when the agonist interacts with the alpha subunit, a conformational change occurs, allowing chloride ions to enter the cell, resulting in neuronal hyperpolarization.
For status epilepticus, midazolam is not the drug of choice. Lorazepam is the benzodiazepine of choice for status epilepticus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 26
Correct
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A log-dose response curve is plotted after drug A is given. The shape of this curve is sigmoid, with a maximum response of 100%.
The log-dose response curve of drug A shifts to the right with a maximum response of 100 percent when drug B is administered.
What does this mean in terms of drug B?Your Answer: Drug B has affinity for the receptor but has no intrinsic efficacy
Explanation:Drug A is a pure agonist for the receptor, with high intrinsic efficacy and affinity, according to the log-dose response curve.
Drug B, on the other hand, works as a competitive antagonist. It binds to the receptor but has no inherent efficacy. Drug A’s efficacy will not change, but its potency will be reduced.
A partial agonist is a drug with partial intrinsic efficacy and affinity for the receptor. Giving a partial agonist after a pure agonist will not increase receptor occupancy or decrease receptor activity, and thus will not affect drug A’s efficacy. The inverse agonist flumazenil can reverse all benzodiazepines.
An inverse agonist is a drug that binds to the receptor but has the opposite pharmacological effect.
A non-competitive antagonist is a drug that has affinity for a receptor but has different pharmacological effects and reduces the efficacy of an agonist for that receptor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which of the following anaesthetic is the least powerful trigger of malignant hyperthermia?
Your Answer: Nitrogen
Correct Answer: Desflurane
Explanation:Desflurane is a highly fluorinated methyl ethyl ether used for the maintenance of general anaesthesia. It has been identified as a weak triggering anaesthetic of malignant hyperthermia. That, in the absence of succinylcholine, may produce a delayed onset of symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 28
Correct
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Which of following statements is true regarding the comparison of fentanyl and alfentanil?
Your Answer: Fentanyl is more potent than alfentanil
Explanation:Fentanyl is a pethidine congener, 80–100 times more potent than morphine, both in analgesia and respiratory depression. Fentanyl is ten times more potent than alfentanil.
Alfentanil has a more rapid onset than fentanyl even if fentanyl is more lipid-soluble because both are basic compounds and alfentanil has lower pKa, so a greater proportion of alfentanil is unionized and is more available to cross membranes.
Elimination of alfentanil is higher than fentanyl due to its lower volume of distribution.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Which of these anaesthetics has the best chance of preventing HPV (hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction)?
Your Answer: Fentanyl 50 mcg/kg
Correct Answer: Desflurane 2 MAC
Explanation:Resistance pulmonary arteries constrict in response to alveolar and airway hypoxia, diverting blood to better-oxygenated alveoli.
In atelectasis, pneumonia, asthma, and adult respiratory distress syndrome, hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction optimises O2 uptake. Hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction helps maintain systemic oxygenation during single-lung anaesthesia.
A redox-based O2 sensor within pulmonary artery smooth muscle cells is involved in hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction. The production of reactive oxygen species by smooth muscle cells in the pulmonary artery varies in proportion to PaO2. Hypoxic removal of these redox second messengers inhibits voltage-gated potassium channels, depolarizing smooth muscle cells in the pulmonary artery.
L-type calcium channels are activated by depolarization, which raises cytosolic calcium and causes hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction. Some anaesthetics suppress this response, increasing the risk of further deterioration in ventilation perfusion mismatch.
Agents that inhibit HPV are ether, halothane, and desflurane (>1.6 MAC).
Agents with no effect on HPV include thiopentone, fentanyl, desflurane (1MAC), isoflurane (<1.5MAC), sevoflurane(1MAC), and propofol. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 70-year-old male is brought to the Emergency department with:
Pulse rate: 32 beats per minute
Blood pressure: 82/35 mmHg
12 lead ECG shows a sinus bradycardia of 35 beats per minute with no evidence of myocardial ischemia or infarction. There was no chest pain but the patient feels light-headed.
Which of the following would be the best initial treatment for this condition?Your Answer: Atropine
Explanation:Based on the presenting symptoms and clinical examination, it is a case of an adult sinus bradycardia with adverse signs. The first pharmacological treatment for this condition is atropine 500mcg intravenously and if necessary repeat every three to five minutes up to a maximum of 3 mg.
If the bradycardia does not subside even after the administration of atropine, cardiac pacing should be considered. If pacing cannot be achieved promptly, we should consider the use of second-line drugs like adrenaline, dobutamine, or isoprenaline.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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