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  • Question 1 - The typical fluid compartments in a normal 70kg male are: ...

    Correct

    • The typical fluid compartments in a normal 70kg male are:

      Your Answer: intracellular>extracellular

      Explanation:

      Body fluid compartments in a 70kg male:
      Total volume=42L (60% body weight)
      Intracellular fluid compartment (ICF) =28L
      Extracellular fluid compartment (ECF) = 14L

      ECF comprises:
      Intravascular fluid (plasma) = 3L
      Extravascular fluid = 11L

      Extravascular fluids comprises:
      Interstitial fluid = 10.5L
      Transcellular fluid = 0.5L

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Following a lumbar epidural for foot surgery, a patient has residual weakness on...

    Incorrect

    • Following a lumbar epidural for foot surgery, a patient has residual weakness on hip flexion but normal knee flexion/extension.
      Which nerve roots are most likely implicated?

      Your Answer: L2/3/4

      Correct Answer: L1/2/3

      Explanation:

      Iliacus, and Psoas major are the most important muscles that produce flexion at the hip.

      They are collectively called the iliopsoas muscle. The iliacus muscle originates from the ilium while the psoas major muscle takes its origin from the lumbar vertebrae and sacrum. Their insertion is the lesser trochanter of the femur. They work together to produce flexion and external rotation of the hip. The nerve supply is from branches of the lumbar plexus (L1, 2, 3) femoral nerve (L2, 3, 4) and short direct muscular branches (T12, L1, L2, L3 and L4).

      Sartorius, Rectus femoris, Tensor fasciae latae, and Pectineus muscles are two-joint muscles acting at the knee and having less influence on hip flexion:

      Rectus femoris and sartorius are involved in extension of the knee. They are supplied by branches of the femoral nerve.

      Myotomes associated with key movement of the lower limb are:

      L1/L2 – Hip flexion
      L2/L3/L4 – Hip adduction, quadriceps (knee extension)
      L4/L5 – Hip abduction
      L5 – Great toe dorsiflexion.

      Since knee extension is not affected, L2, L3 and L4 are still intact.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Desflurane has which of the following characteristics when compared with halothane? ...

    Incorrect

    • Desflurane has which of the following characteristics when compared with halothane?

      Your Answer: Greater potency

      Correct Answer: Less biodegradation

      Explanation:

      Approximately 20% of halothane and 0.02% desflurane undergo hepatic biotransformation. Desflurane, halothane, and isoflurane are metabolised in the liver by cytochrome p450 to trifluoroacetate. Through an immunological mechanism involving trifluoroacetyl hapten formation, trifluoroacetate is thought to be responsible for hepatotoxicity.

      Potency of inhaled anaesthetic agents is measured using the minimal alveolar concentration (MAC). The MAC of halothane is 0.74% while that of desflurane is 6.3%. The potency can also be compared using the oil: gas partition coefficient (224 and 18.7 for halothane and desflurane respectively).

      Onset of action of volatile agents depends on the blood:gas partition coefficient. A lower blood:gas partition coefficient and insolubility in blood means faster onset and offset of action. The blood gas coefficient for halothane is 2.4 while that of desflurane is 0.42. Desflurane is less soluble than halothane in blood. Halothane has a pungent smell that can irritate the airway which limits its use for a gaseous induction especially in paediatric anaesthesia. desflurane is not pungent.

      Desfluranes boiling point is only slightly above normal room temperature (22.8°C) making it extremely volatile while the boiling point of halothane is approximately 50.2°C.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A post-operative patient was brought to the recovery room after completion of dilation...

    Incorrect

    • A post-operative patient was brought to the recovery room after completion of dilation and curettage. Her medical history revealed that she was maintained on levodopa for Parkinson's disease. The nurses administered ondansetron 4 mg and dexamethasone 8 mg prior to transfer from the operating room to the recovery room. However, an additional antiemetic agent is warranted.

      Which of the following agents should be prescribed to the patient?

      Your Answer: Metoclopramide 10 mg IV

      Correct Answer: Cyclizine 50 mg IV

      Explanation:

      The Beers criteria, a US set of criteria for good prescribing in the older patient, preclude the use of metoclopramide in Parkinson’s disease. The Adverse Reactions Register of the UK Committee on Safety of Medicines (CSM) for the years 1967 to 1982 contained 479 reports of extrapyramidal reactions in which metoclopramide was the suspected drug; 455 were for dystonic-dyskinetic reactions, 20 for parkinsonism and four for tardive dyskinesia. Effects can occur within days of initiation of treatment and may take months to wear off.

      Other antiemetics are available, such as cyclizine (Valoid), domperidone and ondansetron, which would be more appropriate to use in those with Parkinson’s disease.

      Cyclizine is a piperazine derivative with histamine H1 receptor antagonist and anticholinergic activity. It is used for the treatment of nausea, vomiting, (particularly opioid-induced vomiting), vertigo, motion sickness, and labyrinthine disorders.

      Prochlorperazine is an antipsychotic known to cause tardive dyskinesia, tremor and parkinsonian symptoms and is therefore likely to exacerbate Parkinson’s disease. Prochlorperazine is not favoured for older patients because of the increased risk of stroke and transient ischaemic attack (TIA).

      Droperidol and phenothiazine are also potent antagonists on D2 receptors and must also be avoided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Concerning drug dose and response, one of the following statements is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Concerning drug dose and response, one of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: Antagonists must have a higher receptor affinity than agonists

      Correct Answer: Intrinsic activity determines maximal response

      Explanation:

      Dose response curves are plotted as % response to drug against Logarithm of drug concentration. The graph is usually sigmoid shaped.

      Any drug that has high affinity and high intrinsic activity is likely an agonist. A drug with high affinity but no intrinsic activity will act as an antagonist. Displacement of an agonist also depends on the relative concentrations of the two drugs at the receptor sites.

      Maximal response may be achieved by activation of a small proportion of receptor sites.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which statement is correct about the Mapleson anaesthetic breathing circuits? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement is correct about the Mapleson anaesthetic breathing circuits?

      Your Answer: Mapleson A is most efficient for spontaneous ventilation

      Explanation:

      Mapleson breathing system (or circuit) analysed five different arrangements of components of the breathing system:
      Mapleson A – It is the most efficient for spontaneous respiration. The flow of fresh gas required is 70-85 ml/kg/min, i.e., approximately 5-6 lit./min fresh gas flow for an average adult.
      Mapleson B and C – inefficient for both SV and PPV; requires gas flow of two to three times minute volume (100 ml/kg/min). Not commonly used but category C may be used for emergency resuscitation.
      Mapleson D – efficient for PPV at gas flow equivalent to patient’s minute volume; the Bain’s circuit is a coaxial version of the Mapleson D
      Mapleson E and F – for paediatric use; requires gas flow at two to three times the patient’s minute volume. The Mapleson F consists of an open-ended reservoir bag (Jackson-Rees modification).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - When the volume of gas is measured, its value should be supported by...

    Correct

    • When the volume of gas is measured, its value should be supported by a suitable abbreviation. From the following options, what does the STPD stand for?

      Your Answer: Standard Temperature and Pressure, Dry

      Explanation:

      Gas is composed of large numbers of molecules moving in random directions, separated by distances. They undergo perfectly elastic collisions with each other and the walls of a container and transfer kinetic energy in form of heat. These assumptions bring the characteristics of gases within the range and reasonable approximation to a real gas, particularly how any change in temperature and pressure affect the behaviour of gas. According to different theories and laws proposed, mathematical equations are derived to calculate the volume of gas, also different abbreviations are being used according to given conditions. The abbreviations used are ATP, BTPS, and STPD.
      ATP stands for ambient temperature and barometric pressure, it is used to describe the conditions under which volume of gas is measured.
      BTPS stands for body temperature and pressure saturated with water vapor. These are conditions under which volume of gas exist and all results of lung volume determination should be quoted at BTPS.
      STPD stands for standard temperature and pressure, dry (0C and 760 mm Hg). These are the conditions that are used to describe quantities of individual gases exchanged in the lungs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      33.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 63-year old male who has heart failure has peripheral oedema and goes...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year old male who has heart failure has peripheral oedema and goes to the GP's office. The GP notes that he is fluid-overloaded. This causes his atrial myocytes to release atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP). ANP's main action is by which of these mechanisms?

      Your Answer: Agonist of aldosterone

      Correct Answer: Antagonist of angiotensin II

      Explanation:

      Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is secreted mainly from myocytes of right atrium and ventricle in response to increased blood volume.
      It is secreted by both the right and left atria (right >> left).

      It is a 28 amino acid peptide hormone, which acts via cGMP
      degraded by endopeptidases.

      It serves to promote the excretion of sodium, lowers blood pressure, and antagonise the actions of angiotensin II and aldosterone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      43.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 54-year-old man weighing 70kg, underwent mesh repair for inguinal hernia under general...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old man weighing 70kg, underwent mesh repair for inguinal hernia under general anaesthesia. He was given intravenous co-amoxiclav (Augmentin) following which the patient developed widespread urticarial ras, became hypotensive (61/30 mmHg), and showed clinical signs of bronchospasm. Anaphylaxis is suspected in this patient.

      Which one of the following is considered as best initial pharmacological treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Intravenous adrenaline 50 mcg

      Explanation:

      The drug of choice for the treatment of anaphylaxis is adrenaline. It has an intravenous route of administration. Since the patient already has intravenous access, the intramuscular route is not appropriate.

      Second-line pharmacological intervention includes the use of chlorpheniramine 10mg intravenous, Hydrocortisone 200mg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following statements is true regarding prazosin? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding prazosin?

      Your Answer: Is a selective alpha 1 adrenergic receptor antagonist.

      Explanation:

      Selective ?1 -Blockers like prazosin, terazosin, doxazosin, and alfuzosin cause a decrease in blood pressure with lesser tachycardia than nonselective blockers (due to lack of ?2 blocking action.

      The major adverse effect of these drugs is postural hypotension. It is seen with the first few doses or on-dose escalation (First dose effect).

      Its half-life is approximately three hours.

      It is excreted primarily through bile and faeces (not through kidneys)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - The most abundant intracellular ion is? ...

    Incorrect

    • The most abundant intracellular ion is?

      Your Answer: Calcium

      Correct Answer: Phosphate

      Explanation:

      Phosphate is the principal anion of the intracellular fluid, most of which is bound to either lipids or proteins. They dissociate or associate with different compounds, depending on the enzymatic reaction, thus forming a constantly shifting pool.

      Calcium and magnesium are also present intracellularly, however in lesser amounts than phosphate.

      Sodium is the most abundant extracellular cation, and Chloride and is the most abundant extracellular anion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      47.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A pulmonary function tests results are:

    Measurement Predicted result Test result
    Forced vital capacity (FVC)...

    Incorrect

    • A pulmonary function tests results are:

      Measurement Predicted result Test result
      Forced vital capacity (FVC) (btps) 3.85 2.36
      Forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) (btps) 3.34 0.97
      FEV1/FVC ratio % (btps) 85.1 39.9
      Peak expiratory flow (PEF) (L/second) 7.33 2.11
      Maximum voluntary ventilation (MVV) (L/minute) 116 44.4

      What does this indicate?

      Your Answer: Severe restrictive picture

      Correct Answer: Moderate restrictive and severe obstructive picture

      Explanation:

      Severity of a reduction in restrictive defect (%FVC) or obstructive defect (%FEV1/FVC) predicted are classified as follows:

      Mild 70-80%
      Moderate 60-69%
      Moderately severe 50-59%
      Severe 35-49%
      Very severe <35% This patient has a mixed deficit with a severe obstructive deficit as %FEV1/FVC predicted is 46.9% and a moderate restrictive deficit as %FVC of predicted is 61.3 FEV1/FVC ratio 80% < predicted and VC < 80% = mixed picture. FEV1/FVC ratio 80% < predicted and VC > 80% = obstructive picture.

      FEV1/FVC ratio 80% > predicted and VC > 80% = normal picture.

      FEV1/FVC ratio 80% > predicted and VC < 80% predicted= restrictive picture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      62.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 70-year-old man will have a PICC line inserted as he requires long-term...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man will have a PICC line inserted as he requires long-term parenteral nutrition. To gain venous access, the line is inserted into the basilic vein at the elbow region.

      As the catheter tip advances into the basilic vein, which venous structure will it first encounter?

      Your Answer: Cephalic vein

      Correct Answer: Axillary vein

      Explanation:

      A peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line is a long, thin tube inserted into the vein of a patient’s arm to gain access to the large central veins near the heart. PICC line is indicated for parenteral nutrition or to deliver medications. They can be used for medium-term venous access, defined as anywhere between several weeks to 6 months.

      The veins of choice for PICC are:
      1. Basilic
      2. Brachial
      3. Cephalic
      4. Medial cubital vein

      The vein of choice is the right basilic vein as it has a large circumference and is located superficially. It has the most straight route to the final destination of PICC (SVC or Right atrium). It courses through the axillary vein, then the subclavian, and finally settles into the SVC. It also has the least number of valves and a shallow angle of insertion when compared to the other veins.

      The basilic vein drains the medial end of the dorsal arch of the upper limb, passes along the medial aspect of the forearm, and pierces the deep fascia at the elbow. The basilic vein joins the venae comitantes of the brachial artery to form the axillary vein at the elbow.
      The posterior circumflex humeral vein is encountered before the axillary vein. However, a PICC line is unlikely to enter this structure because of its entry angle into the basilic vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - You are asked about the relative risk associated with a drug. You happened...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked about the relative risk associated with a drug. You happened to have read a report in which the same drug was compared with a placebo and your initial thoughts after reading the study were that the drug will have significant side effects.

      What do you expect the value of relative risk to be?

      Your Answer: Less than 1

      Correct Answer: Greater than 1

      Explanation:

      Risk ratio (relative risk) compares the probability of an event in an exposed (experimental) group to that of an event in the unexposed (control) group.

      A relative risk of 1 suggests that there is no discernible difference in the outcome whether or not it has been exposed.

      A relative risk of less than 1 indicates that probability of occurrence of an event is less if there is exposure.

      A relative risk of greater than 1 highlights that an event is most likely to occur if it was provided exposure. Since you believe that exposure (the new drug) would have side effects, the value should be greater than 1.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      25.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following statements is true about oxygen face masks? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true about oxygen face masks?

      Your Answer: Variable performance devices are colour coded and are marked with the recommended oxygen flow rate

      Correct Answer: The oxygen concentration delivered by high air flow oxygen enrichment devices is not dependent on the respiratory pattern of the patient

      Explanation:

      The normal peak inspiratory flow in healthy individuals is 20-30 L/min during each normal tidal ventilation. This is expected to increase with greater respiratory rate and deeper inspiration.

      Face masks are used to facilitate the delivery of oxygen from a breathing system to a patient. Face masks can be divided into two types: fixed performance or variable performance devices.

      In fixed performance devices (also known as high air flow oxygen enrichment or HAFOE), fixed inspired oxygen concentration is delivered to the patent, independent and greater than that of the patient’s peak inspiratory flow rate (PIFR). No random entrainment is expected to occur at the time of PIFR, hence, the oxygen concentration in HAFOE devices is not dependent on the patient’s respiratory pattern.

      Moreover, in HAFOE masks, the concentration of oxygen at a given oxygen flow rate is determined by the size of the constriction; a device with a greater entrainment aperture delivers a lower oxygen concentration. Therefore, a 40% Venturi device will have lesser entrainment aperture when compared to a 31% Venturi. Venturi masks allow relatively fixed concentrations of supplemental oxygen to be inspired e.g. 24%, 28%, 31%, 35%, 40% and 60% oxygen. These are colour coded and marked with the recommended oxygen flow rate.

      Variable performance devices deliver variable inspired oxygen concentration to the patient, and is dependent on the PIFR. The PIFR can often exceed the flow rate at which oxygen or an oxygen/air mixture is supplied by the device, depending on a patient’s inspiratory effort. In addition, these masks allow expired air to be released through the holes in the sides of the mask. Thus, with increased respiratory rate, rebreathing of alveolar gas from inside the mask may occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      39.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 68-year old female is brought to the Emergency Room for abdominal pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year old female is brought to the Emergency Room for abdominal pain. Medical history revealed that she is on long-term warfarin therapy for deep vein thrombosis.

      Upon further investigation, the patient is hypotensive at 80/60 mmHg, and an abdominal mass is palpable on the umbilical area. An initial diagnosis of ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is made. Moreover, blood tests show an international normalised ratio (INR) of 4.2.

      Which of the following products should be initially transfused or administered to the patient to reverse the anticoagulation?

      Your Answer: Fresh frozen plasma

      Correct Answer: Prothrombin complex

      Explanation:

      Warfarin prevents reductive metabolism of the inactive vitamin K epoxide back to its active hydroquinone form. Thus, warfarin inhibits the synthesis of vitamin K dependent clotting factors: X, IX, VII, II (prothrombin), and of the anticoagulants protein C and protein S. The therapeutic range for oral anticoagulant therapy is defined in terms of an international normalized ratio (INR). The INR is the prothrombin time ratio (patient prothrombin time/mean of normal prothrombin time for lab)ISI, where the ISI exponent refers to the International Sensitivity Index and is dependent on the specific reagents and instruments used for the determination. A prolonged INR is widely used as an indication of integrity of the coagulation system in liver disease and other disorders, it has been validated only in patients in steady state on chronic warfarin therapy.

      Prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC) is used to replace congenital or acquired vitamin-K deficiency warfarin-induced anticoagulant effect, particularly in the emergent setting.

      Intravenous vitamin K has a slower onset of action compared to PCC, but is useful for long term therapy.

      Fresh frozen plasma (FFP) prepared from freshly donated blood is the usual source of the vitamin K-dependent factors and is the only source of factor V. The factors needed, however, are found in small quantities compared to PCC.

      Cryoprecipitate is indicated for hypofibrinogenemia/dysfibrinogenemia, von Willebrand disease, haemophilia A, factor XIII deficiency, and management of bleeding related to thrombolytic therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 30 year old male was the victim of an electrocution injury and...

    Correct

    • A 30 year old male was the victim of an electrocution injury and has been treated. The option that best describes the current levels for this injury is:

      Your Answer: Tonic muscle contraction - 15 mA

      Explanation:

      There are different effects of electrocution and these can be shown in the table below.

      Current Effect
      1 mA Tingling
      5 mA Pain
      15 mA Tonic muscle contraction
      50 mA Respiratory arrest
      100 mA Ventricular fibrillation and cardiac arrest

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - The single most important prerequisite for accuracy in measuring basal metabolic rate (BMR)...

    Correct

    • The single most important prerequisite for accuracy in measuring basal metabolic rate (BMR) using indirect calorimetry is performing the test:

      Your Answer: In a neutral thermal environment

      Explanation:

      The basal metabolic rate (BMR) is the amount of energy required to maintain basic bodily functions in the resting state. The unit is Watt (Joule/second) or calories per unit time.

      Indirect calorimetry measures O2 consumption and CO2 production where gases are collected in a canopy which is the gold standard, Douglas bag, face-mask dilution technique or interfaced with a ventilator.

      The BMR can be calculated using the Weir formula:

      Metabolic rate (kcal per day) = 1.44 (3.94 VO2 + 1.11 VCO2)

      The BMR should be measured while lying down and at rest with the following conditions met:

      It should follow a 12 -hour fast
      No stimulants ingested within a 12-hour period
      It should be done in a neutral thermal environment (between 20°C-25°C)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which one of the following patients presenting for elective surgery has an American...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following patients presenting for elective surgery has an American Society of Anaesthesiologists (ASA) preoperative physical status grading of III?

      Your Answer: A 50-year old man with a BMI of 41 with a reduced exercise tolerance

      Explanation:

      The ASA physical status classification system is a system for assessing the fitness of patients before surgery. It was last updated in October 2014.

      ASA I A normal healthy patient
      ASA II A patient with mild systemic disease
      ASA III A patient with severe systemic disease
      ASA IV A patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life
      ASA V A moribund patient who is not expected to survive without the operation
      ASA VI A declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposes

      A 20-year old woman who is 39-weeks pregnant with no other medical conditions – ASA II

      A 35-year-old man with a BMI of 29 with a good exercise tolerance who smokes-ASA II

      A 50-year old man with a BMI of 41 with a reduced exercise tolerance -ASA III

      A 65-year old woman with a BMI of 34 with treated hypertension with no functional limitations-ASA II

      A 73-year old man who has had a TIA ten-weeks ago but has a good exercise tolerance and is a non-smoker-ASA IV

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      28.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Regarding basal metabolic rate (BMR), which of the following is the most efficient...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding basal metabolic rate (BMR), which of the following is the most efficient regulator of BMR?

      Your Answer: Thyroid gland

      Correct Answer: Hypothalamus

      Explanation:

      The hypothalamus is primarily responsible for the regulation of the basal metabolic rate. It releases thyrotropin releasing hormones (TRH) in response to low levels of triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4). The TRH acts on the pituitary gland to release thyroid stimulating hormone, which will stimulate the thyroid gland to synthesize more T3 and T4.

      Basal metabolic rate refers to the energy expended by an individual in a resting, post-absorptive state. It represents the energy required to carry out normal body functions, such as respiration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Regarding the use of soda lime as part of a modern circle system...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the use of soda lime as part of a modern circle system with a vaporiser outside the circuit (VOC), which of the following is its most deleterious consequence?

      Your Answer: Compound A formation

      Correct Answer: Carbon monoxide formation

      Explanation:

      When using dry soda lime for VOCs, very high amounts of carbon monoxide may be produced, regardless of the inhalational anaesthetic agent used. The carbon monoxide produced is sufficient enough to cause cytotoxic and anaemic hypoxia. To prevent this, soda lime canisters are shaken well to even out the packing of granules. This can help to evenly distribute gas flow for proper CO2 absorption and ventilation.

      Compound A is formed when dry soda lime, or soda lime in high temperature, reacts with the inhalational anaesthetic Sevoflurane. Animal studies have shown renal toxicity in rats, but renal adverse effects in humans are yet to be observed.

      When monitors are not employed with VOCs, deleterious effects are not for certain. However, monitors not employed with vaporiser inside the circuit (VIC) can lead to significant adverse events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A new drug treatment has been developed for Crohn's disease. The pharmaceutical company...

    Correct

    • A new drug treatment has been developed for Crohn's disease. The pharmaceutical company behind this, is planning to conduct a trial and is looking for hiring around 200 individuals that are suffering from Crohn's disease. The aim would be to determine if there is any decline in the disease activity in response to the drug and compare it with a placebo.

      What phase is the trial in?

      Your Answer: Phase 2

      Explanation:

      The study is being conducted on a smaller level with only 200 participants and is determining the effectiveness of the drug in comparison to a placebo. These characteristics are in accordance with the second phase of trial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A patient was brought to the emergency room after passing black tarry stools....

    Incorrect

    • A patient was brought to the emergency room after passing black tarry stools. The initial diagnosis was upper gastrointestinal bleeding. The patient was placed on temporary nil per os (NPO) for the next 24 hours, his weight was 110 kg, and the required volume of intravenous fluid for the him was 3 litres. His electrolytes and other biochemistry studies were normal.

      If you were to choose the intravenous fluid regimen that would closely mimic his basic electrolyte and caloric requirements, which one would be the best answer?

      Your Answer: 3000 mL Hartmann's

      Correct Answer: 3000 mL 0.45% N. saline with 5% dextrose, each bag with 40 mmol of potassium

      Explanation:

      The patient in the case has a fluid volume requirement of 30 mL/kg/day. His basic electrolyte requirement per day is:

      Sodium at 2 mmol/kg/day x 110 = 220 mmol/day
      Potassium at 1 mmol/kg/day x 110 = 110 mmol/day

      His energy requirement per day is:

      35 kcal/kg/day x 110 kg = 3850 kcal/day

      One gram of glucose in fluid can provide approximately 4 kilocalories.

      The following are the electrolyte components of the different intravenous fluids:

      Fluid Na (mmol/L) K (mmol/L)
      0.9% Normal saline (NSS) 154 0
      0.45% NSS + 5% dextrose 77 0
      0.18% NSS + 4% dextrose 30 0
      Hartmann’s 131 5
      5% dextrose 0 0

      1000 mL of 5% dextrose has 50 g of glucose

      Option B is inadequate for his sodium and caloric requirements (30 mmol of Na+ and 560 kcal). It is adequate for his K+ requirement (120 mmol of K+).

      Option C is in excess of his Na+ requirement (462 mmol of Na+). Moreover, it does not provide any K+ replacement.

      Option D is inadequate for his caloric requirement (600 kcal) and K+ requirement (60 mmol of K+). Moreover it does not provide any Na+ replacement.

      Option E is in excess of his Na+ requirement (393 mmol of Na+), and is inadequate for his potassium requirement (15 mmol of K+)

      Option A has adequate amounts for his Na+ (231 mmol of Na+) and K+ (120 mmol of K+) requirements. It is inadequate for his caloric requirement (600 kcal).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following can be measured directly using spirometry? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following can be measured directly using spirometry?

      Your Answer: Vital capacity

      Explanation:

      Spirometry measures the total volume of air that can be forced out in one maximum breath, that is the total lung capacity (TLC), to maximal expiration, that is the residual volume (RV).

      It is conducted using a spirometer which is capable of measuring lung volumes using techniques of dilution.

      During spirometry, the following measurements can be determined:
      Forced vital capacity (FVC)/vital capacity (VC): The maximum volume of air exhaled in one single forced breathe.
      Forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1)
      FEV1/FVC ratio
      Peak expiratory flow (PEF): the maximum amount of air flow exhaled in one blow.
      Forced expiratory flow (mid expiratory flow): the flow at 25%, 50% and 75% of FVC
      Inspiratory vital capacity (IVC): The maximum volume of air inhaled after a full total expiration.

      Anatomical dead space is measured using a single breath nitrogen washout called the Fowler’s method.

      Residual volume and total lung capacity are both measured using the body plethysmograph or helium dilution

      The functional residual capacity is usually measured using a nitrogen washout or the helium dilution technique.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      29.6
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - All of the following statements are true regarding calcium except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements are true regarding calcium except:

      Your Answer: Bronchospasm may be a sign of severe hypocalcaemia

      Correct Answer: Serum calcium accounts for 10% of total body calcium stores

      Explanation:

      Calcium is a very important ion and is involved in:
      -cell homeostasis
      -coagulation
      -muscle contraction
      -neuronal impulse transmission/membrane stabilization
      -bone formation and skeletal strength
      -secretion processes

      99% is found in bone and 1% in the plasma. Of the 1% that is in the plasma
      -45% is free ionized calcium
      -45% is bound to proteins, mainly Albumin
      -10% is present as an anion complex

      Reduced levels of IONIZED calcium give rise to features of hypocalcaemia , resulting in increased excitability of membranes. This results when the total calcium concentration goes below 2 mmol/L.

      Features of mild to moderate hypocalcaemia are:
      -paraesthesia (peri-oral, fingers)
      -tetany
      -spasm
      -muscle cramps
      -ECG changes (prolonged QT)
      -Trousseau’s sign (inflation of tourniquet induces carpopedal spasm)
      -Chvostek’s sign (tapping the facial nerve – cranial nerve VII – causes facial muscle twitch/spasm)

      Features of severe hypocalcaemia are:
      -cardiogenic shock and congestive cardiac failure due to reduced myocardial contractility
      respiratory distress due to bronchospasm, agitation, confusion, seizures

      Features of hypercalcaemia (remember ‘bones, stones, groans and psychic moans’):
      -Abdominal pain
      -Vomiting
      -Constipation
      -Polyuria
      -Polydipsia
      -Depression
      -Lethargy
      -Anorexia
      -Weight loss
      -Hypertension
      -Confusion
      -Pyrexia
      -Calcification in the cornea
      -Renal stones
      -Renal failure
      -Decreased Q-T interval
      -Cardiac shock/collapse

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A global cerebral blood flow (CBF) of 35 ml/100 g/min (Normal CBF =...

    Correct

    • A global cerebral blood flow (CBF) of 35 ml/100 g/min (Normal CBF = 54 ml/100 g/min) can lead to which of the following?

      Your Answer: Poor prognostic EEG

      Explanation:

      CBF is defined as the blood volume that flows per unit mass per unit time in brain tissue and is typically expressed in units of ml blood/100 g tissue/minute. The normal average CBF in adults human is about 50 ml/100 g/min, with lower values in the white matter (,20 ml/100 g/min) and greater values in the gray matter (,80 ml/100 g/min).

      Low CBF levels between 30-40 ml/100 g/min may begin to show poor prognostic EEG. EEG findings consistently associated with a poor outcome are isoelectric EEG, low voltage EEG, and burst suppression (specifically burst suppression with identical bursts), as well as the absence of EEG reactivity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      38.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Very large SI units are easily expressed using mathematical prefixes.

    One terabyte is equal...

    Correct

    • Very large SI units are easily expressed using mathematical prefixes.

      One terabyte is equal to which of the following numbers?

      Your Answer: 1,000,000,000,000 bytes

      Explanation:

      To denote large measured units, the following SI mathematical prefixes are used:

      1 deca = 10 bytes (101)
      1 hecto (h) = 100 bytes
      1 kilo (k)= 1,000 bytes
      1 mega (M) = 1,000,000 bytes
      1 giga (G) = 1,000,000,000 bytes
      1 Tera (T) = 1,000,000,000,000 bytes
      1 Peta (P) = 1,000,000,000,000,000 bytes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - All the following statements are false regarding carbamazepine except ...

    Incorrect

    • All the following statements are false regarding carbamazepine except

      Your Answer: Is structurally related to sodium valproate

      Correct Answer: Has neurotoxic side effects

      Explanation:

      Phenytoin, Carbamazepine, and Valproate act by inhibiting the sodium channels when these are open. These drugs also prolong the inactivated stage of these channels (Sodium channels are refractory to stimulation till these reach the closed/ resting phase from inactivated phase)

      Carbamazepine is the drug of choice for partial seizures and trigeminal neuralgia

      It can have neurotoxic side effects. Major neurotoxic effects include dizziness, headache, ataxia, vertigo, and diplopia

      After single oral doses of carbamazepine, the absorption is fairly complete and the elimination half-life is about 35 hours (range 18 to 65 hours). During multiple dosing, the half-life is decreased to 10-20 hours, probably due to autoinduction of the oxidative metabolism of the drug.

      It is metabolized in liver into active metabolite, carbamazepine-10,11-epoxide.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A participant of a metabolism study is to be fed only granulated sugar...

    Incorrect

    • A participant of a metabolism study is to be fed only granulated sugar and water for 48 hours. What would be his expected respiratory quotient at the end of the study?

      Your Answer: 0.9

      Correct Answer: 1

      Explanation:

      The respiratory quotient is the ratio of CO2 produced to O2 consumed while food is being metabolized:

      RQ = CO2 eliminated/O2 consumed

      Most energy sources are food containing carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. Examples include fat, carbohydrates, protein, and ethanol. The normal range of respiratory coefficients for organisms in metabolic balance usually ranges from 1.0-0.7.

      Granulated sugar is a refined carbohydrate with no significant fat, protein or ethanol content.

      The RQ for carbohydrates is = 1.0

      The RQ for the rest of the compounds are:

      Fats RQ = 0.7
      The chemical composition of fats differs from that of carbohydrates in that fats contain considerably fewer oxygen atoms in proportion to atoms of carbon and hydrogen.

      Protein RQ = 0.8
      Due to the complexity of various ways in which different amino acids can be metabolized, no single RQ can be assigned to the oxidation of protein in the diet; however, 0.8 is a frequently utilized estimate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      22.2
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following statements is true about monoamine oxidase (MOA) enzymes? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true about monoamine oxidase (MOA) enzymes?

      Your Answer: They catalyse the formation of amines

      Correct Answer: Type A and type B are found in the liver and brain

      Explanation:

      Monoamine oxidase (MOA) enzymes are responsible for the catalyses of monoamine oxidative deamination. It assists the degradation of serotonin, norepinephrine (NE) and dopamine.

      They are found in the mitochondria of most central and peripheral nerve tissues.

      There are 2 different types:

      Type A: Whose main function it to inactivate dopamine, tyramine, norepinephrine and 5-hydroxytryptamine. In addition to the nervous system, it is also found in the liver, brain gastrointestinal tract, pulmonary endothelium and placenta
      Type B: Whose main function is to inactivate dopamine, tyramine, tryptamine and phenylethylamine. In addition to the nervous system, it is also found in the liver, brain (especially in the basal ganglia) and blood platelets.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      50.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Physiology (3/6) 50%
Anatomy (0/2) 0%
Pharmacology (2/6) 33%
Anaesthesia Related Apparatus (2/3) 67%
Physiology And Biochemistry (0/2) 0%
Clinical Measurement (3/4) 75%
Statistical Methods (1/2) 50%
Pathophysiology (0/4) 0%
Basic Physics (1/1) 100%
Passmed