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  • Question 1 - Activation of the cool receptor (CMR-1), causes: ...

    Incorrect

    • Activation of the cool receptor (CMR-1), causes:

      Your Answer: Inhibition of Na+ channels

      Correct Answer: Influx of Ca++ & Na+

      Explanation:

      Cold and Menthol receptor 1 (CMR1) is a protein that in humans is encoded by TRPM8 gene. It is an ion channel which upon activation causes the influx of Na+ and Ca++ ions into the cell that leads to the depolarization and generation of an action potential.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The hepatic plates in the liver parenchyma consist of how many cell layers?...

    Correct

    • The hepatic plates in the liver parenchyma consist of how many cell layers?

      Your Answer: 1 – 2 cell layers

      Explanation:

      Hepatic plates in a hepatic lobule are arranged in 1-2 cell layers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following components regulate cardiac output? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following components regulate cardiac output?

      Your Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      Cardiac output is regulated by the autonomic nervous system with sympathetic nerves having a positive chronotropic and inotropic effect and parasympathetic nerves having the opposite effect. An increase in preload will increase cardiac output likewise an afterload increase will also increase cardiac output.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which cell secretes parathyroid hormone? ...

    Correct

    • Which cell secretes parathyroid hormone?

      Your Answer: Chief cells

      Explanation:

      Parathyroid chief cells, also known as parathyroid principal cells or parathyroid cells, are the most prevalent type of cell in the parathyroid gland and the only ones present at birth. They secrete parathyroid hormone (PTH).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Glucose transport in the brain is mediated by: ...

    Incorrect

    • Glucose transport in the brain is mediated by:

      Your Answer: GLUT 2

      Correct Answer: GLUT 1

      Explanation:

      The facilitative glucose transporter mediates the transport of glucose from blood into neurons and glia in the brain. The primary isoforms in the brain are GLUT1 detected at high concentrations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which is true of the composition of bile in the human hepatic duct?...

    Incorrect

    • Which is true of the composition of bile in the human hepatic duct?

      Your Answer: Water constitutes 97% of the solution

      Correct Answer: Contains only actively secreted substances

      Explanation:

      Hepatic bile is an isotonic fluid and its electrolyte composition resembles that of plasma. 97% of water is found in the gallbladder bile, not hepatic duct. Hepatic bile is alkaline. The ratio of bile acids: phosphatidylcholine: cholesterol is 20:1:3. Hepatic bile contai9ns only actively secreted substances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Majority of gastrinomas are found in the: ...

    Incorrect

    • Majority of gastrinomas are found in the:

      Your Answer: Stomach

      Correct Answer: Duodenum

      Explanation:

      A gastrinoma is a tumour in the pancreas or duodenum that secretes excess of gastrin leading to ulceration in the duodenum, stomach and the small intestine. It is usually found in the duodenum, although it may arise in the stomach or pancreas. Those occurring in the pancreas have a greater potential for malignancy. Most gastrinomas are found in the gastrinoma triangle; this is bound by the junction of cystic and common bile ducts, junction of the second and third parts of the duodenum, and the junction of the neck and body of the pancreas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following is true regarding platelets? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true regarding platelets?

      Your Answer: They function as phagocytes in cases of infection

      Correct Answer: Normally have a half-life of about 8 days

      Explanation:

      Platelets have no cell nucleus: they are fragments of cytoplasm that are derived from the megakaryocytes of the bone marrow, and then enter the circulation. They have a half life of 5-9 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - The following contributes to the rate of depolarization? ...

    Incorrect

    • The following contributes to the rate of depolarization?

      Your Answer: Stretch

      Correct Answer: All of the options given

      Explanation:

      Depolarization occurs due to impulses generated by the SA node. As the heart beats to the rhythm of the SA node, certain factors will effect the rate of depolarization. All the mentioned options effect the rate of depolarization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      31.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 32 year old female is diagnosed with SLE based on her complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old female is diagnosed with SLE based on her complaints of polyarthralgia, mouth ulcers and ANA positivity. Labs reveal normal urinalysis, urea and electrolytes. ESR is 90mm in the first hour. How will you manage this patient?

      Your Answer: Nystatin drops

      Correct Answer: Hydroxychloroquine 200 mg/day

      Explanation:

      Hydroxychloroquine is used in the management of SLE as it prevents disease progression and has relatively mild side effects, for instance headache, nausea etc. Its use reduces the usage of corticosteroids. It is particularly effective when the disease is less severe and there is no organ involvement. Cyclophosphamide and prednisolone are indicated in cases of renal, neurological and lung involvement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which one of the following is necessary to activate plasminogen to plasmin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is necessary to activate plasminogen to plasmin?

      Your Answer: Α2-microglobulin

      Correct Answer: tPA

      Explanation:

      In circulation, plasminogen adopts a closed, activation resistant conformation. Upon binding to clots, or to the cell surface, plasminogen adopts an open form that can be converted into active plasmin by a variety of enzymes, including tissue plasminogen activator (tPA), urokinase plasminogen activator (uPA), kallikrein, and factor XII (Hageman factor).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which hormone is associated with the temperature surge in hot flushes? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which hormone is associated with the temperature surge in hot flushes?

      Your Answer: Progesterone

      Correct Answer: LH

      Explanation:

      Luteinizing hormone or LH is a hormone produced by the anterior pituitary gland. Studies have shown surges in LH levels during menopausal hot flushes, suggesting that a pulsatile release of LH is responsible for increased hypothalamic norepinephrine activity, causing the hot flushes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Normal eukaryote somatic cells have: ...

    Incorrect

    • Normal eukaryote somatic cells have:

      Your Answer: 23 chromosomes

      Correct Answer: 23 pairs of chromosomes

      Explanation:

      A normal somatic eukaryotic cell contains 46 chromosomes i.e. 23 pairs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - The Afferent neuron that supplies all sensory elements of the muscle spindle is...

    Correct

    • The Afferent neuron that supplies all sensory elements of the muscle spindle is what type of sensory neuron?

      Your Answer: Ia

      Explanation:

      Muscle spindle is supplied by both sensory and motor nerves. Sensory supply is Type Ia fibers whereas motor supply is gamma motor neurone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      102.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Myocardial oxygen consumption is increased by: ...

    Incorrect

    • Myocardial oxygen consumption is increased by:

      Your Answer: Aortic regurgitation

      Correct Answer: An increase in after load

      Explanation:

      Cardiac oxygen consumption is directly related to the amount of tension that develops in the ventricles. It is increased by an increased size of heart, increased afterload, increased contractility and increased heart rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - The ENaC Transporter occurs in which part of the renal tubule? ...

    Incorrect

    • The ENaC Transporter occurs in which part of the renal tubule?

      Your Answer: Basolateral surface of proximal tubule

      Correct Answer: Collecting duct

      Explanation:

      The epithelial sodium channel (ENaC) is a membrane-bound ion channel that is selectively permeable to Na+ ions. It is involved primarily in the reabsorption of sodium ions at the collecting ducts of the kidney’s nephrons.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      21.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Regarding bronchial innervation which of the following is correct: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding bronchial innervation which of the following is correct:

      Your Answer: Vasoactive intestinal polypeptide is responsible for vasoconstriction

      Correct Answer: Alpha 1 receptors increase bronchial constriction

      Explanation:

      Stimulation of β2 receptors results in smooth muscle relaxation and bronchodilation. α1 receptors cause smooth muscle contraction in the bronchioles although minor to the β2 effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Respiratory
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which statement describes endogenous transmission the best? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement describes endogenous transmission the best?

      Your Answer: Inhalation of secretions that contain the pathogen

      Correct Answer: Commensal flora that gain access to an inappropriate area

      Explanation:

      All answers A, B, C, and D are examples of exogenous infections. Endogenous infection is an infection by organisms that normally reside in the body but have previously been dormant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      33.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following causes an increase in venous return? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following causes an increase in venous return?

      Your Answer: Positive intra-thoracic pressure

      Correct Answer: An increase in the negative intra-thoracic pressure

      Explanation:

      During inspiration, intrathoracic pressure becomes more negative and intra-abdominal pressure more positive. This increases the venous pressure gradient from abdomen to thorax and promotes filling of the central veins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The only APCs that can activate naive T lymphocytes are: ...

    Incorrect

    • The only APCs that can activate naive T lymphocytes are:

      Your Answer: B lymphocytes

      Correct Answer: Dendric cells

      Explanation:

      Only professional antigen-presenting cells (macrophages, B lymphocytes, and dendritic cells) are able to activate a resting helper T-cell when the matching antigen is presented. However, macrophages and B cells can only activate memory T cells whereas dendritic cells can activate both memory and naive T cells, and are the most potent of all the antigen-presenting cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - In which cell would you find a Nissl body? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which cell would you find a Nissl body?

      Your Answer: Astrocyte

      Correct Answer: Bipolar neuron

      Explanation:

      Nissl bodies are the structures of protein synthesis in neurones. They are granular bodies of Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum and ribosomes. Astrocytes, Microglia, Schwann cell, oligodendrocytes are collectively known as glia or supporting cells of the nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 60 year old male presents with thickened patches of skin over his...

    Incorrect

    • A 60 year old male presents with thickened patches of skin over his knuckles and extensor surfaces that are consistent with Gottron's papules. Results reveal an elevated creatine kinase. Diagnosis of dermatomyositis is suspected. Which of the following autoantibody is most specific for this condition?

      Your Answer: Anti-centromere bodies

      Correct Answer: Anti-Mi-2 antibodies

      Explanation:

      Anti–Mi-2 antibodies are highly specific for dermatomyositis, but sensitivity is low; only 25% of patients with dermatomyositis demonstrate these antibodies. A positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) finding is common in patients with dermatomyositis, but is not necessary for diagnosis. Anti-Jo-1 antibodies are mostly associated with polymyositis. Anti Scl-70 antibodies and anti centromere antibodies are most commonly found in systemic scleroderma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      31.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A cohort study is being designed to look at the relationship between smoking...

    Incorrect

    • A cohort study is being designed to look at the relationship between smoking and prostate cancer. What is the usual outcome measure in a cohort study?

      Your Answer: Numbers needed to harm

      Correct Answer: Relative risk

      Explanation:

      A cohort study is a particular form of longitudinal study that samples a cohort (a group of people who share a defining characteristic, typically those who experienced a common event in a selected period, such as birth or graduation), performing a cross-section at intervals through time. The relative risk (RR) or risk ratio is the ratio of the probability of an outcome in an exposed group to the probability of an outcome in an unexposed group. Relative risk is used in the statistical analysis of the data of experimental, cohort and cross-sectional studies, to estimate the strength of the association between treatments or risk factors, and outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Research Skills
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - The coronary sinus drains into the: ...

    Incorrect

    • The coronary sinus drains into the:

      Your Answer: Right ventricle

      Correct Answer: Right atrium

      Explanation:

      The coronary sinus drains into the right atrium. Most of the venous blood returns to the heart via the coronary sinus and the anterior cardiac veins. Apart from these there are other vessels that drain directly into the heart chambers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Depolarization spreads rapidly through cardiac muscle fibers because of the presence of: ...

    Correct

    • Depolarization spreads rapidly through cardiac muscle fibers because of the presence of:

      Your Answer: Gap junctions

      Explanation:

      The cardiac muscles have gap junctions in between the cells. They allow for the formation of low resistance passages, which allow ions to diffuse through every muscle fiber rapidly and result in the cardiac muscles functioning as a syncytium, without any protoplasmic bridges involved.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following vitamins are fat soluble? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following vitamins are fat soluble?

      Your Answer: A, D, E, C

      Correct Answer: A, D, E, K

      Explanation:

      Vitamins are classified as either fat soluble (vitamins A, D, E and K) or water soluble (vitamins B and C).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Where does control of self-reactive T cells (self-tolerance) initially occur? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where does control of self-reactive T cells (self-tolerance) initially occur?

      Your Answer: Bone marrow

      Correct Answer: Thymus

      Explanation:

      The thymus provides an inductive environment for development of T cells from hematopoietic progenitor cells. In addition, thymic stromal cells allow for the selection of a functional and self-tolerant T cell repertoire. Therefore, one of the most important roles of the thymus is the induction of central tolerance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - As assessed by immunocytochemistry and electron microscopy, the anterior pituitary gland contains how...

    Incorrect

    • As assessed by immunocytochemistry and electron microscopy, the anterior pituitary gland contains how many different types of cells?

      Your Answer: 8

      Correct Answer: 5

      Explanation:

      The pituitary is divided into three sections

      -the anterior lobe which constitute the majority of the pituitary mass and is composed primarily of five hormone-producing cell types (thyrotropes, lactotropes, corticotropes, somatotropes and gonadotropes) each secreting thyrotropin, prolactin, ACTH, growth hormone and gonadotropins (FSH and LH) respectively.

      There is also a sixth cell type in the anterior lobe -the non-endocrine, agranular, folliculostellate cells.

      The intermediate lobe produces melanocyte-stimulating hormone and endorphins, whereas the posterior lobe secretes anti-diuretic hormone (vasopressin) and oxytocin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      22.3
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - The reflex responses activated by cold are controlled by which area? ...

    Incorrect

    • The reflex responses activated by cold are controlled by which area?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior hypothalamus

      Explanation:

      The posterior nucleus of the hypothalamus is responsible for thermoregulation and thermogenesis. Studies have shown that the neurons in the posterior hypothalamus which mediate the reflex of shivering are sensitive to temperature; damage to this nucleus produces hypothermia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 28 year old man presents to the clinic with fatigue, exertional dyspnoea,...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old man presents to the clinic with fatigue, exertional dyspnoea, abdominal discomfort, xerophthalmia and xerostomia. Examination reveals enlargement of the parotid glands bilaterally, hepatomegaly and peripheral motor neuropathy. Lab results are negative for RF, ANA, SS-A and SS-B antibodies. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diffuse infiltrative lymphocytic syndrome (DILS)

      Explanation:

      The Diffuse Infiltrative Lymphocytosis Syndrome (DILS) is a rare multisystemic syndrome described in HIV-infected patients. It is characterised by CD8(+) T-cell lymphocytosis associated with a CD8(+) T-cell infiltration of multiple organs. DILS is usually seen in uncontrolled or untreated HIV infection but can also manifest itself independently of CD4(+) T-cell counts. The syndrome may present as a Sjögren-like disease that generally associates sicca signs with bilateral parotiditis, lymphadenopathy, and extra glandular organ involvement. The latter may affect the lungs, nervous system, liver, kidneys, and digestive tract. Anomalies of the respiratory system are often identified as lymphocytic interstitial pneumonia. Facial nerve palsy, aseptic meningitis or polyneuropathy are among the more frequent neurological features. Hepatic lymphocytic infiltration, lymphocytic interstitial nephropathy and digestive tract lymphocytic infiltration account for more rarely noted complications. Sicca syndrome, organomegaly and/or organ dysfunction associated with polyclonal CD8(+) T-cell organ-infiltration are greatly suggestive of DILS in people living with HIV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Medicine (17/28) 61%
Neurology (0/4) 0%
Hepatobiliary (1/2) 50%
Cardiovascular (3/6) 50%
Endocrinology (3/4) 75%
Haematology (3/3) 100%
Connective Tissue (1/3) 33%
Genetics (1/1) 100%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Immunology (2/2) 100%
Passmed