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  • Question 1 - A 16-year-old athlete presents to the clinic with pain and swelling over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old athlete presents to the clinic with pain and swelling over the medial aspect of the right knee joint. The pain occurs when climbing the stairs, but is not present when walking on flat ground. Clinically there is pain over the medial aspect of the proximal tibia, and the McMurray test is negative.What is the most probable cause of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Anterior cruciate ligament tear

      Correct Answer: Pes Anserinus Bursitis

      Explanation:

      The most probable cause for the patient’s symptoms would be pes anserine bursitis.Translated, pes anserinus means goose feet. It is the term used to describe the unified bursa enclosing the tendons of the sartorius, gracilis and semitendinous muscles inserting into the anteromedial proximal tibia.Pes anserine bursitis is common in people doing sports due to overuse injuries. The main sign is of pain in the medial part of the proximal tibia. As the McMurray test is negative, medial meniscal injury is excluded.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      76.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 7-year-old girl was brought to the OPD with a history of a...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl was brought to the OPD with a history of a large swelling on the side of her neck with associated lymph node swellings in her neck and axilla. Which if the following investigations will you order next?

      Your Answer: Lymph node biopsy

      Explanation:

      As there is lymphadenopathy already present in this patient, doing a biopsy of the lymph nodes will rule out metastasis of any underlying tumour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      46.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A boy with Duchene muscular dystrophy and healthy parents is expecting a new...

    Correct

    • A boy with Duchene muscular dystrophy and healthy parents is expecting a new brother. What are the chances that his brother develops the same disease after birth?

      Your Answer: 0.5

      Explanation:

      Duchenne muscular dystrophy has an X-linked recessive pattern of inheritance. Since the first son is affected by the disease, it means that the mother is a carrier. The male children will inherit the Y chromosome from their father and the X chromosome from their mother, having 50% chances of inheriting the X chromosome with the affected gene.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      35.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - An infant presents with a rash to her body consisting of greasy yellow...

    Correct

    • An infant presents with a rash to her body consisting of greasy yellow crusted lesions. Her mother complains that the child has been experiencing chronic diarrhoea and recurrent skin infections. She is non-febrile, but her growth chart is highly suggestive of failure to thrive.The constellation of symptoms present in this child suggests which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Leiner's disease

      Explanation:

      Based on the patient’s presentation, he’s probably suffering from Leiner’s diseaseLeiner’s disease is a severe generalised form of seborrhoeic dermatitis. It is also associated with recurrent diarrhoea, recurrent skin and internal infections, and failure to thrive.Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a common and self-limiting condition in childhood. Lesions affect the scalp (cradle cap), and sometimes the ear, nose, and eyebrows. It is characterised by greasy yellow or yellow-brown scales.There is an association with Malassezia, and the lesions are a reaction to this yeast, rather than caused by it.It is most common in the 6-12 month age group. Simple brushing with a soft bristle brush, use of oil or emollient, and ketoconazole 2% shampoo are all treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      253.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - The right testicular vein is the tributary of which of the following structures?...

    Correct

    • The right testicular vein is the tributary of which of the following structures?

      Your Answer: Inferior vena cava

      Explanation:

      The right testicular vein is a tributary of the inferior vena cava, while the left testicular vein drains into the left renal vein.Note:The testicular venous drainage begins in the septa and these veins together with those of the tunica vasculosa converge on the posterior border of the testis as the pampiniform plexus. The pampiniform plexus, in turn, drains to the testicular vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      37.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A baby boy born 5 weeks ago with a birth weight of 3.5kg...

    Incorrect

    • A baby boy born 5 weeks ago with a birth weight of 3.5kg presents to the clinic with jaundice. He is being breastfed and his current weight is 4.5kg. Which of the following is most likely responsible for the baby's jaundice?

      Your Answer: Galactosaemia

      Correct Answer: Breast Milk Jaundice

      Explanation:

      Breast milk jaundice is associated with breast-feeding. It typically occurs one week after birth and can sometimes last up to 12 weeks, but it rarely causes complications in healthy, breast-fed infants. The exact cause of breast milk jaundice isn’t known. However, it may be linked to a substance in the breast milk that prevents certain proteins in the infant’s liver from breaking down bilirubin. The condition may also run in families. Breast milk jaundice is rare, affecting less than 3 percent of infants. When it does occur, it usually doesn’t cause any problems and eventually goes away on its own. It is safe to continue breast-feeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      31.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - An 8 year old presents with pain in both his wrists and knees....

    Correct

    • An 8 year old presents with pain in both his wrists and knees. Swelling is also observed. He has a history of a right red eye which did not resolve with antibiotics. What should you exclude first?

      Your Answer: Iritis

      Explanation:

      The child has symptoms and signs suggestive of an inflammatory arthropathy. This is why he should firstly be referred for an eye exam to exclude iritis or treat it if present. – Amblyopia is not directly associated with inflammatory arthropathies unless they had recurrent ocular involvement.- Blepharitis is not an associated finding in a child with inflammatory arthropathy.- Episcleritis may occur, and is often non-sight threatening, and therefore would not be the main cause for concern.- Optic neuropathy in juvenile inflammatory arthritis has been reported, although it is rare.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 16-year-old girl experienced nausea, vomiting and abdominal cramps 4 h after eating...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl experienced nausea, vomiting and abdominal cramps 4 h after eating a hamburger in a local restaurant. Watery diarrhoea began a few hours later.The most likely organism causing her disease is?

      Your Answer: Vibrio vulnificus

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Food poisoning is defined as an illness caused by the consumption of food or water contaminated with bacteria and/or their toxins, or with parasites, viruses, or chemicals. The most common pathogens are Norovirus, Escherichia coli, Salmonella, Clostridium perfringens, Campylobacter, and Staphylococcus aureus.The following are some of the salient features of food poisoning:Acute diarrhoea in food poisoning usually lasts less than 2 weeks. Diarrhoea lasting 2-4 weeks is classified as persistent. Chronic diarrhoea is defined by duration of more than 4 weeks.The presence of fever suggests an invasive disease. However, sometimes fever and diarrhoea may result from infection outside the GI tract, as in malaria.A stool with blood or mucus indicates invasion of the intestinal or colonic mucosa.Reactive arthritis can be seen with Salmonella, Shigella, Campylobacter, and Yersinia infections.A profuse rice-water stool suggests cholera or a similar process.Abdominal pain is most severe in inflammatory processes. Painful abdominal cramps suggest underlying electrolyte loss, as in severe cholera.A history of bloating should raise the suspicion of giardiasis.Yersinia enterocolitis may mimic the symptoms of appendicitis.Proctitis syndrome, seen with shigellosis, is characterized by frequent painful bowel movements containing blood, pus, and mucus. Tenesmus and rectal discomfort are prominent features.Consumption of undercooked meat/poultry is suspicious for Salmonella, Campylobacter, Shiga toxin E coli, and C perfringens.Consumption of raw seafood is suspicious for Norwalk-like virus, Vibrioorganism, or hepatitis A.Consumption of homemade canned foods is associated with C botulinum.Consumption of unpasteurized soft cheeses is associated with Listeria, Salmonella, Campylobacter, Shiga toxin E coli, and Yersinia.Consumption of deli meats notoriously is responsible for listeriosis.Consumption of unpasteurized milk or juice is suspicious for Campylobacter, Salmonella, Shiga toxin E coli, and Yersinia.Salmonella has been associated with consumption of raw eggs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      76.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Children with eczema herpeticum exhibit which of the following features? ...

    Incorrect

    • Children with eczema herpeticum exhibit which of the following features?

      Your Answer: The blisters are polymorphic

      Correct Answer: Atopic children have reduced immunity to the herpes simplex virus

      Explanation:

      Eczema herpeticum is a form of Kaposi varicelliform eruption, characterized by extensive vesicular skin eruptions that arise from a pre-existing skin condition, usually atopic dermatitis. The most common pathogen is the herpes simplex virus type 1, which has a higher propensity of attacking the epidermis already damaged by atopic dermatitis. The incubation period of the illness is 5-14 days. The eruption is initially small, monomorphic, dome-shaped papulovesicles that rupture to form tiny punched-out ulcers. It is diagnosed by taking viral swabs for culture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      163.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - An adolescent girl has missed her period by six days, which is unusual...

    Incorrect

    • An adolescent girl has missed her period by six days, which is unusual given her regular 28-day cycle. Suspicious, she buys a urine pregnancy test kit and tests positive.The release of which of the following substances is stimulated by the sperm at the time of fertilization in order to prevent polyspermy?

      Your Answer: Lysozymes

      Correct Answer: Calcium ions

      Explanation:

      Fertilization occurs when the sperm reaches an egg released during ovulation. At the time of fertilization, the interaction of sperm with the zona pellucida stimulates the release of calcium. This process initiates a corona reaction that prevents polyspermy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - All of the given are features of cow's milk protein intolerance EXCEPT? ...

    Correct

    • All of the given are features of cow's milk protein intolerance EXCEPT?

      Your Answer: Steatorrhoea

      Explanation:

      CMPI ( cow’s milk protein intolerance) is an immunological reaction to one or more of the many proteins found in cow’s milk. It may be IgE mediated or non-IgE mediated. The prominent signs and symptoms include sneezing, rhinorrhoea, coughing, wheezing, oral angioedema, oral itching, diarrhoea, vomiting, and bloody stools. Steatorrhea is not a recognized feature of CMPI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 14-year-old girl with HIV develops jaundice while being treated for overwhelming sepsis....

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl with HIV develops jaundice while being treated for overwhelming sepsis. Blood investigations reveal:ALT: 50 IU/L (0–45) Alkaline phosphatase (ALP): 505 IU/L (0–105)Which of the following medications has she most likely been administered in the course of her treatment?

      Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav

      Explanation:

      Based on the presentation, she probably was administered co-amoxiclav.The liver function tests are highly suggestive of cholestatic jaundice, which is a classic adverse dug reaction related to co-amoxiclav use.Other options:- Erythromycin is more commonly associated with gastrointestinal (GI) disturbance.- Gentamicin is more commonly associated with renal impairment.- Meropenem does not commonly cause cholestasis but is associated with transaminitis.- Vancomycin is associated with red man syndrome on fast administration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • HIV
      42.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 13-year-old girl presents with a swollen left knee following a fall. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl presents with a swollen left knee following a fall. Her parents state she suffers from haemophilia and has been treated for a right-sided haemarthrosis previously. What other condition is she most likely to have?

      Your Answer: Ataxia telangiectasia

      Correct Answer: Turner's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Haemophilia is a X-linked recessive disorder. In X-linked recessive inheritance only males are affected. An exception to this seen in examinations are patients with Turner’s syndrome, who are affected due to only having one X chromosome. X-linked recessive disorders are transmitted by heterozygote females (carriers) and male-to-male transmission is not seen. Affected males can only have unaffected sons and carrier daughters.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 10-year-old boy is brought to the hospital by his mother. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy is brought to the hospital by his mother. She has noticed that the boy has become tired quicker than normal for the past two months. She also noticed a reduction in the boy's appetite. He no longer enjoys football and often complains of aches and pains. He has a faint rash on his arms and has to 'climb up' his legs to get up from a supine position.What is the most probable diagnosis for this boy?

      Your Answer: Duchenne muscular dystrophy

      Correct Answer: Dermatomyositis

      Explanation:

      The clinical presentation and way the boy ‘climbs up’ his legs to get up from a supine position (Gowers’ sign) suggests proximal muscle weakness secondary to dermatomyositis.Dermatomyositis is an inflammatory myopathy that typically presents between the ages of five years and ten years. The onset is insidious, and the proximal muscle weakness and raised creatine kinase might be mistaken for muscular dystrophy. However, the systemic illness and rash are characteristic features of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      21.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 8 year old child presents with fresh rectal bleeding. Which of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 8 year old child presents with fresh rectal bleeding. Which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: Peutz-Jegher syndrome is associated with malignant transformation in the gastrointestinal tract

      Correct Answer: Intestinal hamartomatous polyps are seen in Cowden syndrome

      Explanation:

      Colonic Polyposis and neoplasia are often seen in Cowden Syndrome which is a hamartomatous polyposis syndrome. Patients with Cowden syndrome have an increased risk for colorectal cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      50.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following are not a recognized feature of Down's syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following are not a recognized feature of Down's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Ataxic gait

      Explanation:

      Ataxic gait is not a direct association of Down’s syndrome. All other given responses are associated with Down’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 6 year old boy presents with a tibial fracture in a cast...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old boy presents with a tibial fracture in a cast and continuous pain. You suspect a compartment syndrome injury. Which of the following represents a late sign of the condition?

      Your Answer: Increasing pain

      Correct Answer: Absent distal pulses

      Explanation:

      The Five P’s: pain, pulselessness, paraesthesia, paralysis, and pallor, are the most common symptoms of compartment syndrome. However, late signs of the condition include the absence of distal pulses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      30.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 19-year-old boy presents to the emergency department following a blow to the...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old boy presents to the emergency department following a blow to the face playing rugby. He informs that he had a nosebleed which lasted for about 10-15 minutes but has now stopped completely. Presently the boy complains of difficulty breathing through his nose. On inspection, there is visible bruising to the nose, and upper lip. Further examination reveals bilateral red swellings arising from the septum. What is the best immediate step in the management of the boy's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Refer to ENT team

      Explanation:

      Based on the presenting features, the patient has developed a septal haematoma after the trauma. Septal hematoma:In this condition, blood collects between the septal cartilage and the perichondrium. The patient classically presents with symptoms of nasal difficulty and pain following a nasal injury. Care should be taken not to misdiagnose a septal haematoma as a blood clot on the septum. In the case of a septal haematoma the swelling will typically be visible on both sides of the septum although this is not always the case. Referral to an ENT surgeon is indicated because, if untreated, there is a high risk of cartilage breakdown and complications related to infection.Other options:- The nosebleed has now stopped therefore compression is no longer required. The boy has developed a septal haematoma after traumatic injury. – CT head is not indicated in this patient as the diagnosis is clearly a septal hematoma.- Management of a septal hematoma consists of drainage and antibiotics. There is no role for intranasal corticosteroids.- If untreated, there is a high risk of cartilage breakdown and complications related to infection. Thus, referral to the ENT is essential| reassurance and discharge can lead to complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      38.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 16-year-old boy with iron-deficiency anaemia is found to have numerous polyps in...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old boy with iron-deficiency anaemia is found to have numerous polyps in his jejunum. On examination, he is also noted to have pigmented lesions on his palms and soles. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical scenario provided, the most probable diagnosis is Peutz-Jeghers syndrome.Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition characterised by numerous hamartomatous polyps in the gastrointestinal tract. It is also associated with pigmented freckles on the lips, face, palms and soles.Genetic basis: It follows an autosomal dominant inheritance, and the gene responsible encodes serine-threonine kinase LKB1 or STK11.Classical features of PJS include:- Hamartomatous polyps in the GI tract (mainly small bowel)- Pigmented lesions on lips, oral mucosa, face, palms and soles- Intestinal obstruction, e.g. intussusception- Gastrointestinal bleedingThe treatment is mainly conservative unless complications develop.Note:Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia can also be associated with mucocutaneous lesions and iron-deficiency anaemia, but intestinal polyps are not a feature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 6 year old female presents with an increase in the size of...

    Correct

    • A 6 year old female presents with an increase in the size of her breasts and light hair on the border of the labia majora. Her mother worries she might be having premature puberty. What is her Tanner stage?

      Your Answer: II

      Explanation:

      Tanner stage two presents with the following: Downy hair, Breast bud palpable under areola (1st pubertal sign in females).Stage 1 (prepubertal) – elevation of papilla only – no pubic hairStage 2 – breast bud forms – sparse, slightly pigmented hair on labia majoraStage 3 – Breast begins to become elevated, extends beyond areola borders – hair becomes more coarse and curlyStage 4 – increased size and elevation. Areola and papilla form secondary mound – adult like, but sparing medial thighsStage 5 – final size, areola returns but papilla remains projected – hair extends to medial thighs

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - The following is true of power calculations for comparison of a numerical measurement...

    Correct

    • The following is true of power calculations for comparison of a numerical measurement between the two groups:

      Your Answer: Should be performed before the study commences

      Explanation:

      Power calculations are a important step in study design and preparation, but do not directly help with the interpretation of the results. They are used to determine how many subjects are needed in order to avoid errors in accepting or rejecting the null hypothesis. These calculations are not usually complex and for the best results, the power of the test should be set to above 80%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 7-week-old infant is brought to the emergency department by his mother. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-week-old infant is brought to the emergency department by his mother. She complains that the child is having episodes of non-bilious vomiting for the past 10 days. She observed that the episodes typically occur directly after feeding and notes that the volume brought up varies, but that her baby does seem to be very hungry and has not gained much weight. What is the most probable diagnosis for this infant?

      Your Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD)

      Correct Answer: Pyloric stenosis

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient would be congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis.Congenital Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis (CHPS):Pyloric stenosis should be ruled out in any baby who presents with a long-term history of vomiting and failure to thrive. Infants typically present with projectile, non-bilious vomiting and are said to be hungry and wanting to feed despite poor weight gain. A blood gas would be helpful in this instance, although the diagnosis can be made more accurately by observing the stenosis during ultrasound. Many infants have symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease, although only a small minority are unable to gain weight adequately. A UTI in infants can present with non-specific symptoms, but they might have a fever and can show poor feeding. Malrotation will present with bilious vomiting.The definitive surgical management is the Ramsteadt’s pyloromyotomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      2004
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Jamila, a 16 year old girl, was brought to the emergency centre following...

    Incorrect

    • Jamila, a 16 year old girl, was brought to the emergency centre following a collapse and abnormal movements earlier at school today. The episode occurred when she was walking to her next lesson with her friends. Suddenly she told her friends that she felt scared and complained that her vision had become blurry. She was helped to a chair where she sat for 15 minutes speaking incoherently before collapsing to the floor. Her friends observed irregular jerking movements of her right leg and left arm. The movement continued for about 15 minutes after which she was able to sit up unsupported but could not speak for about 20 minutes. There was also bleeding from the tongue which she had bit during the episode. She had a similar episode yesterday at home while on a video call with her mother. Her father narrated that she suddenly dropped the phone, and her eyes began to roll up. She initially remained standing but fell to the floor after a minute. He noticed irregular movements of both her legs, and her eyes were tightly shut. The movements ended after 2 minutes after which she became responsive to questions, but her eyes remained closed. She was brought later in the day, and was discharged after routine investigations. Jamila is a GCSE candidate preparing for her mock examinations, and currently lives with her father as her mother works abroad. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for Jamila’s condition?

      Your Answer: Complex partial epilepsy

      Correct Answer: Non-epileptic attack disorder

      Explanation:

      Non Epileptic attack disorder, also known as psychogenic non epileptic seizures, is a condition characterised by episodes of abnormal movement and behaviours that resemble seizures , but are not caused by electrical activity changes in the brain. It is believed that the disorder is caused by the brain’s response to overwhelming or stressful situations. In Jamila’s case, triggering conditions for her episodes may have been the absence of her mother, and the stress of her upcoming examinations. A diagnosis of generalised epilepsy is unlikely because this would require abnormal movement in all 4 limbs during an episode and a longer period of semi consciousness after. Cataplexy can also be ruled out as it does not involve a loss of consciousness which we see in Jamila’s case. Vasovagal syncope does not correspond with the history as there was no evidence of simultaneous collapse and responsiveness coupled with colour change and near spontaneous recovery when supine. A complex partial seizure may be possible in Jamila’s case, however the history of long duration, her eyes being tightly shut and the differences in presentation between the two episodes makes it less likely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      107.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following findings would be NOT be expected in a child...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following findings would be NOT be expected in a child with kernicterus?

      Your Answer: Dental enamel hypoplasia

      Correct Answer: Learning disability

      Explanation:

      Bilirubin encephalopathy (BE), also known as kernicterus is a preventable complication of neonatal jaundice. Bilirubin deposits in the basal ganglia, hippocampus, geniculate bodies and cranial nerve nuclei, exerting direct neurotoxic effects and causing mass-destruction of neurons by apoptosis and necrosis.The clinical features of this diagnosis have been well described and can be divided into 3 stages:Phase 1 (first few days of life): Decreased alertness, hypotonia, and poor feeding are the typical signs. Obviously, these are quite nonspecific and could easily be indicative of a multitude of neonatal abnormalities. A high index of suspicion of possible BIND at this stage that leads to prompt intervention can halt the progression of the illness, significantly minimizing long-term sequelae. Of note, a seizure is not typically associated with acute bilirubin encephalopathy.Phase 2 (variable onset and duration): Hypertonia of the extensor muscles is a typical sign. Patients present clinically with retrocollis (backward arching of the neck), opisthotonos (backward arching of the back), or both. Infants who progress to this phase develop long-term neurologic deficits. Phase 3 (infants aged >1 wk): Hypotonia is a typical sign.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Out of 30 children who are exposed to a chemical, 15 develop a...

    Correct

    • Out of 30 children who are exposed to a chemical, 15 develop a disorder, compared to only 1 child out of 10 developing the same disorder who were not exposed.The following can be deduced from this information:

      Your Answer: The relative risk of exposure to the chemical is 5

      Explanation:

      Relative risk is the probability of an outcome occurring in an exposed group as compared to the probability of that outcome in an unexposed group. In the scenario given, 50% of the children exposed developed the disease while only 10% of the children who were unexposed developed the disease. The relative risk was therefore 50/10=5. There is no further information about whether the study was controlled, the confidence interval, or the type of study. It therefore cannot be confirmed whether the chemical is causative and if it should be avoided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      30.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Two healthy parents have two children, one with cystic fibrosis and the other...

    Correct

    • Two healthy parents have two children, one with cystic fibrosis and the other one healthy. What are the chances of the third child being a carrier?

      Your Answer: 1 in 2

      Explanation:

      Cystic fibrosis has an autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance, meaning that a person might be a carrier of the disease without developing it. If the unaffected partner is a carrier, then there is a 50% chance of inheritance and a 50% chance of having a child who is a carrier. However, if the partner is not a carrier, the offspring will not develop the disease but the possibility of being a carrier raises up to 100%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      56.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following does not have an increased incidence in adolescence for...

    Correct

    • Which of the following does not have an increased incidence in adolescence for patients with Klinefelter's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Infertility

      Explanation:

      Boys and men with Klinefelter syndrome typically have small testes that produce a reduced amount of testosterone (primary testicular insufficiency). Testosterone is the hormone that directs male sexual development before birth and during puberty. Without treatment, the shortage of testosterone can lead to delayed or incomplete puberty, breast enlargement (gynecomastia), decreased muscle mass, decreased bone density, and a reduced amount of facial and body hair. As a result of the small testes and decreased hormone production, affected males are not generally infertile but may benefit from assisted reproductive technologies. Some affected individuals also have differences in their genitalia, including undescended testes (cryptorchidism), the opening of the urethra on the underside of the penis (hypospadias), or an unusually small penis (micropenis).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 17-year-old Caucasian woman presents with lethargy and chronic nausea. Her mother is...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old Caucasian woman presents with lethargy and chronic nausea. Her mother is worried she may be depressed. On examination, there are signs of chronic liver disease and a gold-yellow ring at the periphery of the iris in both eyes. Her serum copper level is low. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Haemochromatosis

      Correct Answer: Wilson’s disease

      Explanation:

      This patient has Wilson’s disease. They Kayser-Fleischer ring (ring that encircles the iris) is diagnostic of this. Low serum copper is seen in Wilson’s disease. With the Kayser-Fleischer ring, this makes all of the other answer choices incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      29.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 1 week old baby boy is taken to the A&E department after...

    Incorrect

    • A 1 week old baby boy is taken to the A&E department after a right sided groin swelling had been noticed. An examination is done and the testes are correctly located but there is a right sided inguinal hernia that is soft and easily reduced. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Surgery at 1 year of age

      Correct Answer: Surgery over the next few days

      Explanation:

      Answer: Surgery over the next few daysInguinal hernia is a type of ventral hernia that occurs when an intra-abdominal structure, such as bowel or omentum, protrudes through a defect in the abdominal wall. Inguinal hernias do not spontaneously heal and must be surgically repaired because of the ever-present risk of incarceration. Generally, a surgical consultation should be made at the time of diagnosis, and repair (on an elective basis) should be performed very soon after the diagnosis is confirmed.The infant or child with an inguinal hernia generally presents with an obvious bulge at the internal or external ring or within the scrotum. The parents typically provide the history of a visible swelling or bulge, commonly intermittent, in the inguinoscrotal region in boys and inguinolabial region in girls. The swelling may or may not be associated with any pain or discomfort.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      112.2
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - What is the most probable diagnosis for an infant presenting with prolonged neonatal...

    Correct

    • What is the most probable diagnosis for an infant presenting with prolonged neonatal jaundice, dark urine, and pale stools?

      Your Answer: Biliary atresia

      Explanation:

      Biliary atresia is a rare condition that causes obstructive jaundice. Without surgical treatment, e.g. Roux-en-Y, Kasai procedure or liver transplantation, death is likely by 2 years of age. The aetiology of biliary atresia is unknown. Theories suggest a multitude of etiological and causative factors that are both genetic and acquired.The other conditions do not cause a conjugated hyperbilirubinemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
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