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  • Question 1 - A 40-year-old obese woman has complaints of heartburn and regurgitation that is worse...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old obese woman has complaints of heartburn and regurgitation that is worse on lying flat. The doctor suspects gastroesophageal reflux due to a hiatus hernia. Lifestyle modifications to lose weight and antacids are prescribed to her.

      At which level of the diaphragm will you find an opening for this problem?

      Your Answer: T8

      Correct Answer: T10

      Explanation:

      Hiatus is an opening in the diaphragm. A hiatal hernia is a protrusion of the upper part of the stomach through an opening in the diaphragm, the oesophageal hiatus, into the thorax. The oesophageal hiatus occurs at the level of T10 in the right crus of the diaphragm.

      Other important openings in the diaphragm:
      T8: vena cava, terminal branches of the right phrenic nerve
      T10: oesophagus, vagal trunks, left anterior phrenic vessels, oesophageal branches of the left gastric vessels
      T12: descending aorta, thoracic duct, azygous and hemi-azygous vein

      An opening in the diaphragm is called a hiatus. The oesophageal hiatus is at vertebral level T10. A hiatus hernia is where the stomach bulges through the oesophageal hiatus hence the name – hiatus hernia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The coronary sinus is a collection of veins joined together to form a...

    Correct

    • The coronary sinus is a collection of veins joined together to form a large vessel that collects blood from the myocardium. Which structure forms the largest tributary of the coronary sinus?

      Your Answer: Great cardiac vein

      Explanation:

      The coronary sinus is large venous structure located on the posterior aspect of the left atrium, coursing within the left atrioventricular groove. The function of the coronary sinus is to drain the venous blood from the majority of the heart. It opens into the right atrium between the opening of inferior vena cava, the fossa ovalis and the right atrioventricular orifice. The coronary sinus is often guarded by a thin, semicircular endocardial fold, also known as the thebesian valve.
      Tributaries include: Great cardiac vein, middle cardiac vein, small cardiac vein, posterior vein of left ventricle, oblique vein of left atrium. The great cardiac vein is the largest tributary of the coronary sinus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 28-year-old girl, Sam, has suffered a road traffic accident. She is brought...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old girl, Sam, has suffered a road traffic accident. She is brought to the emergency department and undergoes investigations and treatment.

      On X-ray of the humerus, she has a mid-shaft fracture.

      What structure is at the highest risk of damage with a mid-shaft humeral fracture?

      Your Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      Mid-shaft fractures of the humerus usually occur after a direct blow to the upper arm, which can occur after a fall or RTAs.
      The most important clinical significance of a mid-shaft humeral fracture is an injury to the radial nerve. The radial nerve originates from the brachial plexus and has roots of C5-T1. It crosses the spiral groove on the posterior side of the shaft of the humerus.
      On examination, the patient may have a wrist drop, loss or weakness of finger extension, and decreased or absent sensation to the posterior forearm, digits 1 to 3, and the radial half of the fourth digit.

      The humeral shaft has two compartments:
      1. Anterior:
      Brachial artery and vein
      Biceps brachii, brachialis, coracobrachialis
      Musculocutaneous, median, and ulnar nerves
      2. Posterior:
      Radial nerve
      Triceps

      Other significant nerve injuries are:
      1. Axillary nerve – surgical neck fracture of the humerus
      2. Brachial Artery – supracondylar fracture of the humerus
      3. Axillary artery – surgical neck fracture of the humerus, but is relatively uncommon

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 10-year-old girl complains of right iliac fossa pain, and a provisional diagnosis...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old girl complains of right iliac fossa pain, and a provisional diagnosis of appendicitis is made.

      Which of the following embryological structures gives rise to the appendix?

      Your Answer: Midgut

      Explanation:

      The midgut gives rise to the appendix.
      At week 6, the caecal diverticulum appears and is the precursor for the cecum and vermiform appendix. The cecum and appendix undergo rotation and descend into the right lower abdomen. The appendix can take up various positions:
      1. Retrocecal appendix: behind the cecum
      2. Retrocolic appendix: behind the ascending colon
      3. Pelvic appendix: appendix descends into the pelvis

      The appendix grows in length so that at birth, it is long and worm-shaped, or vermiform. After birth, the caecal wall grows unequally, and the appendix comes to lie on its medial side.

      The midgut develops into the distal duodenum, jejunum, ileum, cecum, appendix, ascending colon, and proximal 2/3 of the transverse colon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What is the number of valves between the superior vena cava and the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the number of valves between the superior vena cava and the right atrium?

      Your Answer: One

      Correct Answer: None

      Explanation:

      The inflow of blood from the superior vena cava is directed towards the right atrioventricular orifice. It returns deoxygenated blood from all structures superior to the diaphragm, except the lungs and heart.

      There are no valves in the superior vena cava which is why it is relatively easy to insert a CVP line from the internal jugular vein into the right atrium. The brachiocephalic vein is similar as it also has no valves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - An 80 year old woman is due for cataract surgery.

    There are no...

    Correct

    • An 80 year old woman is due for cataract surgery.

      There are no contraindications to regional anaesthesia so a peribulbar block was performed. 8mls of 2% lidocaine was injected using an infratemporal approach. However, there is still movement of the globe after 5 mins.

      The least likely extraocular muscle to develop akinesia is:

      Your Answer: Superior oblique

      Explanation:

      The fibrotendinous ring formed by the congregation of the rectus muscles at the apex of the orbit does not include superior oblique. This muscle is completely outside the ring and so it is the most difficult muscle to anaesthetise completely. A good grasp of the anatomy of the area being anaesthetised is important with all regional anaesthetic techniques so that potential problems and complications with a block can be anticipated.

      The borders of this pyramid whose apex points upwards and outwards of the bony orbit are as follows:
      Floor – Zygoma and Maxilla
      Roof – frontal bone
      Medial wall – maxilla, ethmoid, sphenoid and lacrimal bones.
      Lateral wall – greater wing of the sphenoid and the zygoma.

      The four recti muscles (superior, medial, lateral and inferior) originate from a tendinous ring (the annulus of Zinn) and extend anteriorly to insert beyond the equator of the globe. Bands of connective tissue are present between the rectus muscles forming a conical structure and hinder the passage of local anaesthetic.

      The superior oblique muscle is situated outside this ring and is the most difficult muscle to anaesthetise completely, particularly with a single inferotemporal peribulbar injection. An additional medial injection may help to prevent this.

      The cranial nerve supply to the extraocular muscles are:
      3rd (inferior oblique, inferior recti, medial and superior)
      4th (superior oblique), and
      6th (lateral rectus).

      The long and short ciliary nerves provide the sensory supply to the globe and these are branches of the nasociliary nerve, (which is itself a branch of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve).

      To achieve anaesthesia for the eye, these nerves which enter the fibrotendinous ring need to be fully blocked to anaesthetise the eye for surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following is a correct match for reflex and their root...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a correct match for reflex and their root value?

      Your Answer: Knee reflex: L3/L4

      Explanation:

      Reflexes are a routine part of clinical examination. Hyperreflexia (abnormally brisk reflexes) is the sign of upper motor neuron damage whereas diminished or absent jerks are most commonly due to lower motor neuron lesions. Reflexes may be Monosynaptic (deep tendon reflexes) or polysynaptic (superficial reflexes)

      Here are deep tendon reflexes with their nerve root
      Biceps = C5, C6
      Supinator (Brachioradialis) = C5, C6
      Triceps = C6, C7
      Knee reflex = L3,L4
      Ankle reflex = S1

      Polysynaptic superficial reflexes with their nerve root are listed below
      Planter response = S1-2
      Abdominal reflexes = T8-12
      Cremasteric reflex = L1-2

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which nerve is responsible for the direct innervation of the sinoatrial node? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which nerve is responsible for the direct innervation of the sinoatrial node?

      Your Answer: Inferior cardiac nerve

      Correct Answer: None of the above

      Explanation:

      The sinoatrial node receives innervation from multiple nerves arising from the complex cardiac plexus.

      The cardiac plexus sends tiny branches into cardiac vessels, alongside the right and left coronary arteries.

      The vagal efferent fibres originate from the vagal and accessory nerves in the brainstem, and then travel to the cardiac plexus within the heart. The resulting vagal discharge controls heart rate.

      No singular nerve directly innervates the sinoatrial node.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old female, presents to the emergency department via ambulance. The paramedics have...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female, presents to the emergency department via ambulance. The paramedics have noted the patient's symptoms as unilateral left-sided weakness of the upper and lower limbs, homonymous hemianopia and dysphasia.
      She has previous personal and family history of deep vein thromboses.
      The report of her CT scan suggests a stroke involving the middle cerebral artery.
      Post recovery, she undergoes further diagnostic investigations to determine the cause of a stroke at her young age. She is eventually diagnosed with a hypercoagulable state disease called Factor V Leiden thrombophilia.

      An emboli in the middle cerebral artery results in dysfunction of which areas of the brain?

      Your Answer: Frontal, temporal, parietal and occipital lobes

      Correct Answer: Frontal, temporal and parietal lobes

      Explanation:

      The middle cerebral artery is a part of the circle of Willis system of anastomosis within the brain, and the most often affected by brain pathology.

      The primary function of the middle cerebral artery is providing oxygenated blood to related regions of the brain. It achieves this by giving off different branches to supply different brain regions, namely:

      The cortical branches: which supplies the primary motor and somatosensory cortical areas of some parts of the face, trunk and upper limbs.

      The small central branches: which supply the basal ganglia and internal capsule via the lenticulostriate vessels.

      The superior division: which supplies the lateral inferior frontal lobe, including the Broca area which is responsible for production of speech, language comprehension, and writing.

      The inferior division: which supplies the superior temporal gyrus, including Wernicke’s area which controls speech comprehension and language development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 56-year-old man, presents to his general practitioner with a lump in his...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man, presents to his general practitioner with a lump in his groin area. He is diagnosed with an indirect inguinal hernia and is scheduled for a laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair. During the repair, the surgeon sees several structures surrounding the inguinal canal.

      Name the structure that forms the anterior borders of the inguinal canal.

      Your Answer: Aponeurosis of external oblique

      Explanation:

      The inguinal canal is the pathway leading from the wall of the abdomen to the external genitalia.

      The borders of the inguinal canal are:

      Anterior wall: formed by the aponeurosis of the external oblique, supported by the internal oblique muscle laterally.

      Posterior wall: formed laterally by the transversalis fascia, and medially by the conjoint tendon

      Roof: formed by the internal oblique and transversus abdominis muscles

      Floor: formed by the inguinal ligament and supported medially by the lacunar ligament

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 60-year-old man is having his central venous pressure (CVP) measured. A long...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man is having his central venous pressure (CVP) measured. A long venous line was inserted via the femoral vein into the right atrium for this purpose. The catheter is advanced through the IVC.

      Which level of the vertebra is the site where this vessel enters the thorax?

      Your Answer: T10

      Correct Answer: T8

      Explanation:

      The diaphragm divides the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity. Structures penetrate the diaphragm at different vertebral levels through openings in the diaphragm to communicate between the two cavities. The diaphragm has openings at three vertebral levels:

      T8: vena cava, terminal branches of the right phrenic nerve
      T10: oesophagus, vagal trunks, left anterior phrenic vessels, oesophageal branches of the left gastric vessels
      T12: descending aorta, thoracic duct, azygous and hemi-azygous vein

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 60-year-old man, presents to the emergency department with crushing pain in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man, presents to the emergency department with crushing pain in the central chest area, which radiates to his left arm and jaw. He also reports feelings of nausea with no other symptoms. Elevation of the ST-segment is noted in multiple chest leads upon ECG, leading to a diagnosis of ST-elevation MI.

      What vessel gives rise to the coronary vessels?

      Your Answer: Coronary sinus

      Correct Answer: Ascending aorta

      Explanation:

      The above mentioned patient presentation is one of an acute coronary syndrome.

      The elevations noted in the ST-segments of multiple heart leads on ECG is diagnostic of an ST-elevation myocardial infarction.

      The pulmonary artery branches to give rise to the right and left pulmonary arteries, which supply deoxygenated blood to the right and left lungs from the right ventricle.

      The pulmonary veins do not form any bifurcations, and therefore do not give rise to any vessels. They travel to the left atrium from the lungs, carrying oxygenated blood.

      The descending aorta continues from the aortic arch, and bifurcates to give off many branches, including the right and left common iliac arteries.

      The coronary sinus is formed from the combination of four coronary veins, receiving blood supply from the great, middle, small and posterior cardiac veins, and transporting this venous blood into the right atrium.

      The right and left aortic sinus give rise to the right and left coronary arteries, respectively. They branch of the ascending aorta, in the area just superior to the aortic valve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 48-year-old woman has presented to the emergency with abdominal pain and distension...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman has presented to the emergency with abdominal pain and distension complaints. She is a known case of diabetes mellitus type 2 and has a BMI of 28 kg/m². On investigations, the liver function tests (LFTs) show raised alanine transaminase (ALT).

      Liver ultrasound is performed next to visualize the blood flow into and out of the liver.

      Which blood vessel supplies approximately one-third of the blood supply to the liver?

      Your Answer: Hepatic portal vein

      Correct Answer: Hepatic artery proper

      Explanation:

      The liver receives blood supply from two sources.
      1. Hepatic artery proper
      It arises from the celiac trunk via the common hepatic artery and brings oxygenated blood to the liver.
      It contributes to approximately 30% of the blood supply of the liver.
      2. Hepatic portal vein – supplies the liver with partially deoxygenated blood, carrying nutrients absorbed from the small intestine. It gets tributaries from the inferior mesenteric vein, splenic vein, and superior mesenteric vein

      The inferior mesenteric artery supplies the hindgut.
      The superior mesenteric artery supplies the pancreas and intestine up to the proximal two-thirds of the transverse colon.
      The inferior phrenic artery supplies the inferior surface of the diaphragm and oesophagus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A radiologist is conducting an arch aortogram. She begins by entering the brachiocephalic...

    Correct

    • A radiologist is conducting an arch aortogram. She begins by entering the brachiocephalic artery using the angiography catheter. As she continues to advance the catheter, what vessels will the catheter enter?

      Your Answer: Right subclavian artery

      Explanation:

      As there is no brachiocephalic artery on the left side, the artery is entered by the catheter on the right side.

      The brachiocephalic artery branches into the common carotid and the right subclavian artery, so the catheter is most likely to enter the right subclavian artery, or also possibly the right carotid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which peripheral nerve of the foot is often utilized to evaluate for neuromuscular...

    Correct

    • Which peripheral nerve of the foot is often utilized to evaluate for neuromuscular blockade?

      Your Answer: Posterior tibial nerve

      Explanation:

      The posterior tibial nerve lies on the posterior surface of the tibialis posterior and, lower down the leg, on the posterior surface of the tibia. The nerve accompanies the posterior tibial artery and lies at first on its medial side, then crosses posterior to it, and finally lies on its lateral side. The nerve, with the artery, passes behind the medial malleolus, between the tendons of the flexor digitorum longus and the flexor hallucis longus.

      It gives off muscular branches to the soleus, flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus, and tibialis posterior. A medial calcaneal branches off to supply the skin over the medial surface of the heel, and an articular nerve to supply the ankle joint. Finally, it terminates to become the medial and lateral plantar nerves.

      The saphenous nerve is a branch of the femoral nerve that gives off branches that supply the skin on the posteromedial surface of the leg.

      The sural nerve is a branch of the tibial nerve that supplies the skin on the lower part of the posterolateral surface of the leg.

      The superficial peroneal nerve is one of the terminal branches of the common peroneal nerve. It arises in the substance of the peroneus longus muscle on the lateral side of the neck of the fibular. It ascends between the peroneus longus and brevis muscles, and in the lower part of the leg it becomes cutaneous. Muscular branches of the superficial peroneal nerve supply the peroneus longus and brevis muscles, while medial and lateral cutaneous branches are distributed to the skin on the lower part of the leg and dorsum of the foot. In addition, the cutaneous branches supply the dorsal surfaces of the skin of all the toes, except the adjacent sides of the first and second toes and the lateral side of the little toe.

      The superficial peroneal, sural and saphenous nerves cannot be used to assess neuromuscular blocks since they are sensory nerves.

      The deep peroneal nerve enters the dorsum of the foot by passing deep to the extensor retinacula on the lateral side of the dorsalis pedis artery. It divides into terminal, medial, and lateral branches. The medial branch supplies the skin of the adjacent sides of the big and second toes. The lateral branch supplies the extensor digitorum brevis muscle. Both terminal branches give articular branches to the joints of the foot. This nerve is too deep to use for neuromuscular blockade assessment

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 60-year-old man, with a history of excessive alcohol intake, presents for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man, with a history of excessive alcohol intake, presents for the first time in the emergency department with acute abdominal pain in the epigastric region.

      On examination, the man is sweating and has a high-grade fever. His heart rate is 140/min and a BP of 92/59 mmHg.

      The patient is diagnosed with acute pancreatitis. Which of the following is a complication you are most likely to see in this patient?

      Your Answer: Abdominal distention with shifting dullness

      Correct Answer: Blue discolouration of the flank regions

      Explanation:

      Bulky, greasy stools are associated with improper digestion that can be expected if the pancreas loses its exocrine function. This is common in long-term chronic pancreatitis but since this is the patient’s first presentation with such symptoms, this complication is unlikely.

      Peripheral neuropathy is a common complication of chronic diabetes but has been reported with cases of chronic pancreatitis too.

      Abdominal distention with shifting dullness is a classic symptom of underlying ascites. Ascites is a complication of many diseases but it is not common with the acute first-time presentation of pancreatitis.

      Option E: This points towards abdominal obstruction but in the absence of the more common symptoms, nausea and bilious vomiting, this is unlikely.

      Option A: Grey Turner’s sign is the pooling of blood in the retroperitoneal space between the last rib and the top of the hip. The pancreas is a retroperitoneal organ and inflammation of the pancreas can cause retroperitoneal haemorrhage. The sign takes 24-48 hours to develop and can predict a severe attack of acute pancreatitis. The patient has presented with acute pancreatitis due to his history of high alcohol intake, and acute on chronic is unlikely as this is his first presentation. He also has low blood pressure and an increased heart rate, which suggest blood loss with acute pancreatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - The following foetal anatomical features functionally closes earliest at birth? ...

    Correct

    • The following foetal anatomical features functionally closes earliest at birth?

      Your Answer: Foramen ovale

      Explanation:

      Foramen ovale, ductus arteriosus (DA) and ductus venosus (DV) are the three important cardiac shunts in-utero.

      At birth the umbilical vessels constrict in response to stretch as they are clamped. Blood flow through the ductus venosus (DV) decreases but the DV closes passively in 3-10 days.

      As the pulmonary circulation is established, there is a drastic fall in pulmonary vascular resistance and an increased pulmonary blood flow. This increases flow and pressure in the Left Atrium that exceeds that of the right atrium. The difference in pressure usually leads to the IMMEDIATE closure of the foramen ovale.

      The DA is functionally closed within the first 36-hours of birth in a healthy full-term newborn. Subsequent endothelial and fibroblast proliferation leads to permanent anatomical closure within 2 – 3 weeks.

      Oxygenated blood from the placenta passes via the umbilical vein to the liver. Blood also bypasses the liver via the ductus venosus into the inferior vena cava (IVC). The Crista dividens is a tissue flap situated at the junction of the IVC and the right atrium (RA). This flap directs the oxygen-rich blood, along the posterior aspect of the IVC, through the foramen ovale into the left atrium (LA).

      The Eustachian valve also known as the valve of The IVC is a remnant of the crista dividens.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 70-year-old man presents with central crushing chest pain that radiates to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents with central crushing chest pain that radiates to the jaw in the emergency department. He has associated symptoms of nausea and diaphoresis.

      A 12 lead ECG is performed. ST-elevation is observed in leads V2-V4. The diagnosis of anteroseptal ST-elevation myocardial infarction is made.

      Which coronary vessel is responsible for this condition and runs in the interventricular septum on the anterior surface of the heart to reach the apex?

      Your Answer: Left marginal artery

      Correct Answer: Left anterior descending artery

      Explanation:

      The heart receives blood supply from coronary arteries. The right and left coronary arteries branch off the aorta and supply oxygenated blood to all heart muscle parts.

      The left main coronary artery branches into:
      1. Circumflex artery – supplies the left atrium, side, and back of the left ventricle. The left marginal artery arises from the left circumflex artery. It travels along the obtuse margin of the heart.
      2. Left Anterior Descending (LAD) artery – supplies the front and bottom of the left ventricle and front of the interventricular septum

      The left anterior descending coronary artery is the largest coronary artery. It courses anterior to the interventricular septum in the anterior interventricular groove, extending from the base of the heart to its apex. Around the apex, the LAD anastomosis with the terminal branches of the posterior descending artery (branch of the right coronary artery).
      Atherosclerosis or thrombotic occlusion of LAD causes myocardial infarction in large areas of the anterior, septal, and apical portions of the heart muscle. It can lead to a serious deterioration in heart performance.

      Occlusion of the LAD causes anteroseptal myocardial infarction, which is evident on the ECG with changes in leads V1-V4. Occlusion of the left circumflex artery causes lateral, posterior, or anterolateral MI. However, as it does not run towards the apex in the interventricular septum of the heart, it is not the correct answer for this question.

      The right coronary artery branches into:
      1. Right marginal artery
      2. Posterior descending artery

      The right coronary artery supplies the right atrium, right ventricle, interatrial septum, and the inferior posterior third of the interventricular septum. Occlusion of the right coronary artery causes inferior MI, which is indicated on ECG with changes in leads II, III, and aVF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      2.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 77-year-old man, is scheduled for an angiogram to investigate gastro-intestinal bleeding. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 77-year-old man, is scheduled for an angiogram to investigate gastro-intestinal bleeding. The radiologist performing the angiogram inserts the catheter into the coeliac axis.

      What level of the vertebrae does the coeliac axis normally arise from the aorta?

      Your Answer: None of the above

      Correct Answer: T12

      Explanation:

      The coeliac axis refers to one of the splanchnic arteries located within the abdomen.

      It arises from the aorta almost horizontally at the level of the T12 vertebrae

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      1.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The outer muscular layer of the oesophagus is covered by? ...

    Incorrect

    • The outer muscular layer of the oesophagus is covered by?

      Your Answer: Meissner's plexus

      Correct Answer: Loose connective tissue

      Explanation:

      The oesophagus has four layers namely; 1. the mucosal layer, 2. the submucosal layer, 3. the muscular layer and 4. the layer of loose connective tissue which binds to the outer mucosal layer. The oesophagus lacks the serosal layer and therefore holds sutures poorly.

      The mucosal layer consists of muscularis mucosa and the lamina propria and is made up of non keratinised stratified squamous epithelium. The mucosal layer is the innermost layer of the oesophagus.

      The submucosal layer being the strongest layer of all has mucous glands which are called as the tuboalveolar mucous glands.

      The outer muscular layer has two types of muscle layers of which one is the circular layer and the other the longitudinal layer. The Auerbach’s and Meissner’s nerve plexuses lie in between the longitudinal and circular muscle layers and submucosally. The muscle fibres present in the upper 1/3rd part of the oesophagus are skeletal muscle fibres, the middle 1/3rd layer has both smooth and skeletal muscle fibres, but the lower 1/3rd only has smooth muscle fibres.

      The loose connective tissue layer or the adventitious layer has dense fibrous tissue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      3.2
      Seconds

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