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  • Question 1 - The patient is a 61-year-old man with severe central chest pain. An acute...

    Incorrect

    • The patient is a 61-year-old man with severe central chest pain. An acute myocardial infarction is revealed by his ECG. Clopidogrel is one of the medications he takes as part of his treatment.

      Clopidogrel's direct mechanism of action is which of the following?

      Your Answer: Activation of antithrombin III

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of platelet ADP receptors

      Explanation:

      Clopidogrel, a thienopyridine derivative, prevents platelet aggregation and cross-linking by the protein fibrin by inhibiting the ADP receptor on platelet cell membranes (inhibits binding of ADP to its platelet receptor (P2Y12 ADP-receptor).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      43.6
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - All of the following single clinical risk groups is considered eligible to receive...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following single clinical risk groups is considered eligible to receive the seasonal influenza vaccination, except:

      Your Answer: Patients with chronic kidney disease

      Correct Answer: Patients with hypertension

      Explanation:

      The following is the list of all the health and age factors that are known to increase a person’s risk of getting serious complications from flu:
      – Adults 65 years and older
      – Children younger than 2 years old
      – Asthma
      – Neurological and neurodevelopmental conditions
      – Blood disorders (such as sickle cell disease)
      – Chronic lung disease (such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease [COPD] and cystic fibrosis)
      – Endocrine disorders (such as diabetes mellitus)
      – Heart disease (such as congenital heart disease, congestive heart failure and coronary artery disease)
      – Kidney diseases
      – Liver disorders
      – Metabolic disorders (such as inherited metabolic disorders and mitochondrial disorders)
      – People who are obese with a body mass index [BMI] of 40 or higher
      – People younger than 19 years old on long-term aspirin- or salicylate-containing medications.
      – People with a weakened immune system due to disease (such as people with HIV or AIDS, or some cancers such as leukaemia) or medications (such as those receiving chemotherapy or radiation treatment for cancer, or persons with chronic conditions requiring chronic corticosteroids or other drugs that suppress the immune system)
      – People who have had a stroke
      – Pregnant people and people up to 2 weeks after the end of pregnancy
      – People who live in nursing homes and other long-term care facilities

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles Of Microbiology
      45.4
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - A 55-year-old female is urgently rushed into the Emergency Department as she complains...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old female is urgently rushed into the Emergency Department as she complains of chest pain that is worse on breathing, shortness of breath, palpitations, and haemoptysis.

      She undergoes a CT pulmonary angiogram, which reveals a large pulmonary embolus. She is immediately started on heparin and shifted to the acute medical ward.

      Which of the following does heparin activate?

      Your Answer: Factor VII

      Correct Answer: Antithrombin III

      Explanation:

      Heparin works by binding to and activating the enzyme inhibitor antithrombin III.

      Antithrombin III inactivates thrombin (factor IIa) by forming a 1:1 complex with thrombin. The heparin-antithrombin III complex also inhibits factor Xa and some other proteases involved with clotting. The heparin-ATIII complex can also inactivate IX, XI, XII, and plasmin.

      Heparin is a polymer of glycosaminoglycan. It occurs naturally and is found in mast cells. Clinically, it is used in two forms:
      1. Unfractionated: widely varying polymer chain lengths
      2. Low molecular weight: Smaller polymers only

      Heparin is not thrombolytic or fibrinolytic. It prevents the progression of existing clots by inhibiting further clotting. The lysis of existing clots relies on endogenous thrombolytics.

      Heparin is used for:
      1. Prevention and treatment of venous thromboembolism
      2. Treatment of disseminated intravascular coagulation
      3. Treatment of fat embolism
      4. Priming of haemodialysis and cardiopulmonary bypass machines

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      31.7
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - Regarding bile, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding bile, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Bile passes into the duodenum through the ampulla of Vater.

      Explanation:

      Bile is synthesised in the liver. Bile functions to eliminate endogenous and exogenous substances from the liver, to neutralise gastric acid in the small intestine, and to emulsify fats in the small intestine and facilitate their digestion and absorption. Bile is stored and concentrated in the gallbladder. Bile passes out of the gallbladder via the cystic duct. Bile passes into the duodenum through the ampulla of Vater regulated by the sphincter of Oddi.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      39.8
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - A 60-year-old female presents with fatigue, easy bruising and repeated chest and skin...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old female presents with fatigue, easy bruising and repeated chest and skin infections for five months. She also complains about several episodes of nosebleeds over the last few days without any history of trauma.

      Her complete blood count shows the following results:
      Hb 9 g/dl
      Total leukocyte count: 2.5x10^9/L, 1100 neutrophils/ĹłL
      MCV 100
      platelet count of 90,000/ĹłL.

      Which one of the following conditions does this patient most likely have?

      Your Answer: Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

      Correct Answer: Myelodysplastic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Myelodysplastic syndromes are a group of clonal haematopoietic disorders which are characterised by anaemia, leukopenia and thrombocytopenia.

      Patients will complain of fatigue, symptoms of thrombocytopenia such as nosebleeds and easy bleeding and a history of repeated infections due to low white blood cells (especially Neutrophils).

      In Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia production of hematopoietic cells goes on for a longer time.

      Folate and B12 deficiency would result in hypersegmented neutrophils and a raised MCV.

      Iron deficiency anaemia would not cause neutropenia or thrombocytopenia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      34.1
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - Which of the following risk ratios indicates no difference in risk between two groups:...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following risk ratios indicates no difference in risk between two groups:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1

      Explanation:

      A risk ratio of 1 indicates no difference in risk between groups.If the risk ratio of an event is > 1, the rate of that event is increased in the exposed group compared to the control group.If the risk ratio is < 1, the rate of that event is reduced in the exposed group compared to the control group.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      • Statistics
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - Detection of urinary Bence-Jones protein would be most suggestive of which of the...

    Incorrect

    • Detection of urinary Bence-Jones protein would be most suggestive of which of the following malignancies:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Multiple myeloma

      Explanation:

      Bence Jones proteins are monoclonal immunoglobulin light chains found in urine (and plasma) of some patients with myeloma. Because of their relatively small size, light chains are readily excreted into the urine. The presence of significant amounts of Bence Jones proteins in urine is indicative of malignant B cell proliferation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - Which of the following is a contraindication for aspirin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a contraindication for aspirin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Children under 16 years

      Explanation:

      Aspirin contraindications include: hypersensitivity to NSAIDs; asthma, rhinitis, and nasal polyps; and usage in children or teens.
      There is little evidence of allergic cross-reactivity for salicylates. However, due to similarities in chemical structure and/or pharmacologic activities, the possibility of cross-sensitivity cannot be completely ruled out.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 9 - Which of the following statements concerning the facial nerve is INCORRECT? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements concerning the facial nerve is INCORRECT?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Forehead sparing in facial nerve palsy is indicative of a lower motor neuron lesion.

      Explanation:

      In facial nerve palsy, LMN damage will involve the forehead and there will be an inability to close the eyes due to paralysis of the orbicularis oculi or raise the eyebrows due to paralysis of the occipitofrontalis muscle.
      UMN damage causes sparing of the forehead as the occipitofrontalis and orbicularis oculi muscles have bilateral cortical representation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Cranial Nerve Lesions
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - The weight distribution in a group of patients included in a study was...

    Incorrect

    • The weight distribution in a group of patients included in a study was normal. The patients averaged 80 kg in weight. 5 kg was determined to be the standard deviation. Which of the following statements most accurately describes this group of patients:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 68% of the patients will weigh between 75 and 85 kg.

      Explanation:

      We can estimate the range of values that would be anticipated to include particular proportions of observations if we know the mean and standard deviation of a collection of normally distributed data: 68.2 percent of the sample results fall within a one SD range above and below the mean (+/- 1 SD), implying that 68 percent of the patients will weigh between 75 and 85 kg. Because +/- 2 SD encompasses 95.4 percent of the data, around 95 percent of the patients will weigh between 70 and 90 kg. +/- 3 SD encompasses 99.7% of the values, implying that nearly all of the patients will weigh between 65 and 95 kg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      • Statistics
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 11 - Which of the following globin chains makes up normal adult haemoglobin (HbA)? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following globin chains makes up normal adult haemoglobin (HbA)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Two alpha and two beta chains

      Explanation:

      Total adult haemoglobin comprises about 96 – 98 % of normal adult haemoglobin (HbA). It consists of two alpha (α) and two beta (β) globin chains.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 12 - A 6-year-old female is brought to the Ophthalmology Clinic by her mother with...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old female is brought to the Ophthalmology Clinic by her mother with the complaint of itching, redness, and a watery discharge of the right eye. Past medical history revealed an upper respiratory tract infection one week ago.

      On examination of the right eye, there is mild erythema of the palpebral conjunctiva and visible follicles seen on eversion of the eyelid, lid oedema, and subconjunctival petechial haemorrhages. The discharge is watery and not purulent.

      You diagnose her with viral conjunctivitis. According to the current NICE guidelines, which ONE of the following management options would NOT be included for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The child should be excluded from school until the infection has resolved

      Explanation:

      The NICE guidelines do NOT recommend isolating a patient with viral conjunctivitis from others or skipping school or work. The disease is contagious, but the spread of the disease can be controlled by maintaining good hygiene practices such as:
      1. frequent hand washing
      2. use of separate flannels and towels
      3. Avoid close contact with others

      Antibiotic prescriptions are not part of the NICE guidelines for viral conjunctivitis as they will not affect the course of the disease. Most cases of viral conjunctivitis are self-limiting and resolve within one to two weeks.

      The NICE guidelines recommend that symptoms may be eased with self-care measures such as:
      1. Bathing/cleaning the eyelids with cotton wool soaked in sterile saline or boiled and cooled water to remove any discharge
      2. Cool compresses applied gently around the eye area
      3. Use of lubricating drops or artificial tears

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 13 - A 68-year-old man has a very fast heartbeat' and is out of breath....

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man has a very fast heartbeat' and is out of breath. He has had a heart transplant in the past. His electrocardiogram reveals supraventricular tachycardia.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate adenosine dose for him to receive as a first dose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adenosine 3 mg IV

      Explanation:

      A rapid IV bolus of adenosine is given, followed by a saline flush. The standard adult dose is 6 mg, followed by 12 mg if necessary, and then another 12 mg bolus every 1-2 minutes until an effect is seen.

      Patients who have had a heart transplant, on the other hand, are extremely sensitive to the effects of adenosine and should start with a lower dose of 3 mg, then 6 mg, and finally 12 mg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 14 - A 59-year-old man presents to the emergency room with chest pain. He was...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man presents to the emergency room with chest pain. He was recently released from the hospital after receiving abciximab during coronary angioplasty.

      Which of the following is abciximab (ReoPro) mechanism of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antagonism of the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor

      Explanation:

      Abciximab (ReoPro) is a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist that is a chimeric monoclonal antibody. It is primarily used during and after coronary artery procedures such as angioplasty to inhibit platelet aggregation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 15 - Diagnosis of HIV is predominantly made through which of the following: ...

    Incorrect

    • Diagnosis of HIV is predominantly made through which of the following:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antibody detection

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of HIV is predominantly made through detection of HIV antibody and p24 antigen. Viral load (viral PCR) and CD4 count are used to monitor progression of disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 16 - The interquartile range (IQ) is often displayed using which of the following: ...

    Incorrect

    • The interquartile range (IQ) is often displayed using which of the following:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Box and whisker plot

      Explanation:

      A boxplot is a vertical or horizontal rectangle used to display the interquartile range, with the ends of the rectangle corresponding to the upper and lower quartiles of the data values. The box contains 50% of the data values. A line drawn through the rectangle corresponds to the median value. Whiskers, starting at the ends of the rectangle usually indicate the minimum and maximum values, therefore the entire box and whisker plot represents the range. Any outliers can be plotted independent of the box and whisker plot.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      • Statistics
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 17 - All of the following predisposes to lithium toxicity in patients taking long-term therapy...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following predisposes to lithium toxicity in patients taking long-term therapy EXCEPT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypernatraemia

      Explanation:

      A common complication of long term lithium therapy results in most cases of lithium intoxication. It is caused by reduced excretion of the drug which can be due to several factors including deterioration of renal function, dehydration, hyponatraemia, infections, and co-administration of diuretics or NSAIDs or other drugs that may interact.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 18 - Regarding the hard palate, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the hard palate, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lymphatic vessels from the palate usually drain into deep cervical lymph nodes.

      Explanation:

      Lymphatic vessels from the pharynx and palate drain into the deep cervical lymph nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 19 - A 61-year-old patient experiences a spontaneous rupture of his Achilles tendon following a...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old patient experiences a spontaneous rupture of his Achilles tendon following a course of antibiotics

      Which of the antibiotics listed below is MOST likely to be the cause? 

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Tendinopathy and spontaneous tendon rupture are caused by fluoroquinolones, which are an uncommon but well-known cause. Tendon problems caused by fluoroquinolones are expected to affect 15 to 20 people per 100,000. Patients over the age of 60 are most likely to develop them.

      It usually affects the Achilles tendon, but it has also been described in cases involving the quadriceps, peroneus brevis, extensor pollicis longus, long head of biceps brachii, and rotator cuff tendons. The exact aetiology is uncertain, although the fluoroquinolone medication is thought to obstruct collagen activity and/or cut off blood supply to the tendon.

      Other factors linked to tendon rupture spontaneously include:
      Gout
      Treatment with corticosteroids
      Hypercholesterolaemia
      Long-term dialysis
      Kidney transplant
      Rheumatoid arthritis 

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 20 - Polyuria and polydipsia develop in a patient with a history of affective disorder,...

    Incorrect

    • Polyuria and polydipsia develop in a patient with a history of affective disorder, who has been on long-term lithium treatment. She has a fluid deprivation test done because she is suspected of having nephrogenic diabetic insipidus. Which of the following urine osmolality findings would be the most reliable in confirming the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: After fluid deprivation <300 mosmol/kg, after IM desmopressin >800 mosmol/kg

      Explanation:

      The inability to produce concentrated urine is a symptom of diabetes insipidus. Excessive thirst, polyuria, and polydipsia are all symptoms of this condition. There are two forms of diabetes insipidus: Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus and cranial (central) diabetes insipidus.

      A lack of ADH causes cranial diabetic insipidus. Patients with cranial diabetes insipidus can have a urine output of up to 10-15 litres per 24 hours, however most patients can maintain normonatraemia with proper fluid consumption. Thirty percent of cases are idiopathic, while another thirty percent are caused by head injuries. Neurosurgery, brain tumours, meningitis, granulomatous disease (e.g. sarcoidosis), and medicines like naloxone and phenytoin are among the other reasons. There is also a very rare hereditary type that is linked to diabetes, optic atrophy, nerve deafness, and bladder atonia.

      Renal resistance to the action of ADH causes nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Urine output is significantly increased, as it is in cranial diabetes insipidus. Secondary polydipsia can keep serum sodium levels stable or raise them. Chronic renal dysfunction, metabolic diseases (e.g., hypercalcaemia and hypokalaemia), and medications, such as long-term lithium use and demeclocycline, are all causes of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus.

      The best test to establish if a patient has diabetes insipidus vs another cause of polydipsia is the water deprivation test, commonly known as the fluid deprivation test. It also aids in the distinction between cranial and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Weight, urine volume, urine osmolality, and serum osmolality are all measured after patients are denied water for up to 8 hours. At the end of the 8-hour period, 2 micrograms of IM desmopressin is given, and measures are taken again at 16 hours.

      The following are the way results are interpreted:
      Urine osmolality after fluid deprivation : Urine osmolality after IM desmopressin
      Cranial diabetes insipidus: <300 mosmol/kg : >800 mosmol/kg
      Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus: <300 mosmol/kg : <300 mosmol/kg
      Primary polydipsia: >800 mosmol/kg : >800 mosmol/kg

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 21 - The least likely feature expected to be seen in a lesion of the...

    Incorrect

    • The least likely feature expected to be seen in a lesion of the frontal lobe is which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Loss of two-point discrimination

      Explanation:

      Lesions in different areas give rise to different symptoms.
      Lesions of the parietal lobe give rise to loss of two-point discrimination.
      Lesions to Broca’s area give rise to expressive dysphasia results from damage
      Lesions to the primary motor cortex give rise to contralateral weakness of the face and arm.
      Lesions to the prefrontal cortex give rise to personality change.
      Lesions to the frontal eye field give rise to conjugate eye deviation towards side of lesion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 22 - Your consultant requests that you do a lumbar puncture on a patient who...

    Incorrect

    • Your consultant requests that you do a lumbar puncture on a patient who is suspected of having meningitis. This patient, a 15-year-old female, presented to the emergency department with a fever, headache, and neck stiffness. Where should you aspirate a sample of CSF?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subarachnoid space

      Explanation:

      A lumbar puncture, also known as a spinal tap, is a procedure that involves inserting a needle into the lower back’s lumbar region.

      A needle is inserted into the space between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater, also known as the subarachnoid space, to remove a sample of cerebrospinal fluid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 23 - A patient suffered from a chest injury while working out in the gym....

    Incorrect

    • A patient suffered from a chest injury while working out in the gym. As a consequence of his injury, his pectoralis minor muscle was damaged.

      Which of the following statements regarding the pectoralis minor muscle is considered correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It stabilises the scapula

      Explanation:

      The pectoralis minor, in comparison to the pectoralis major, is much thinner and triangular in shape and resides below the major. It originates from the margins of the third to fifth ribs adjacent to the costochondral junction. The fibres consequently pass upward and laterally to insert into the medial border and superior surface of the coracoid process. It is crucial in the stabilization of the scapula by pulling it downward and anteriorly against the thoracic wall.

      Arterial supply to the pectoralis minor also derives from the pectoral branch of the thoracoacromial trunk. Nerve supply of the pectoralis minor is a function of the lateral pectoral nerve and the medial pectoral nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 24 - What is the most common application of Nitrates? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most common application of Nitrates?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Angina

      Explanation:

      In patients with exertional stable angina, nitrates improve exercise tolerance, time to onset of angina, and ST-segment depression during exercise testing. In combination with beta-blockers or calcium channel blockers, nitrates produce greater anti-anginal and anti-ischemic effects.
      While they act as vasodilators, coronary vasodilators, and modest arteriolar dilators, the primary anti ischemic effect of nitrates is to decrease myocardial oxygen demand by producing systemic vasodilation more than coronary vasodilation. This systemic vasodilation reduces left ventricular systolic wall stress.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 25 - Glomerular filtration rate can be calculated using any substance that: ...

    Incorrect

    • Glomerular filtration rate can be calculated using any substance that:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: is freely filtered and neither reabsorbed nor secreted by the nephron

      Explanation:

      Clearance of a substance can provide an accurate estimate of the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) provided that the substance is:freely filterednot reabsorbed in the nephronnot secreted in the nephronnot synthesised or metabolised by the kidney

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 26 - Which of the following could denote a diagnosis of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following could denote a diagnosis of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) in a patient infected with HIV:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CD4 count < 200 cells/uL

      Explanation:

      A diagnosis of AIDS can be made in a patient infected with HIV if the patient has a CD4 count < 200 cells/uL, or an AIDS-defining illness. Antiretroviral treatment should be considered in patients with CD4 counts < 350 cells/uL.

      Oral candidiasis is not an AIDS defining illness – candidiasis of the bronchi, trachea, lungs or of the oesophagus is an AIDS defining illness.

      A positive p24 antigen test seen in early HIV infection and does not indicate the development of AIDS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 27 - What is the main mechanism of action of dobutamine as an inotropic sympathomimetic:...

    Incorrect

    • What is the main mechanism of action of dobutamine as an inotropic sympathomimetic:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Beta1-receptor agonist

      Explanation:

      Dobutamine directly stimulates the beta1-adrenergic receptors in the heart and increases contractility and cardiac output with little effect on the rate. In addition action on beta2-receptors causes vasodilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 28 - Regarding the heart sounds in the cardiac cycle, which of the following statements...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the heart sounds in the cardiac cycle, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The third heart sound is caused by filling of an abnormally stiff ventricle in atrial systole.

      Explanation:

      Heart Sound – Phase of Cardiac Cycle – Mechanical Event:
      First heart sound – Start of systole – Caused by closure of the atrioventricular (mitral & tricuspid) valves
      Second heart sound – End of systole – Caused by closure of the semilunar (aortic and pulmonary) valves
      Third heart sound – Early diastole – Caused by rapid flow of blood from the atria into the ventricles during the ventricular filling phase
      Fourth heart sound – Late diastole – Caused by filling of an abnormally stiff ventricle in atrial systole

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 29 - Which of the following is most likely to cause a homonymous hemianopia: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is most likely to cause a homonymous hemianopia:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior cerebral artery stroke

      Explanation:

      A posterior cerebral stroke will most likely result in a contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 30 - You review a 56-year-old man who has recently been prescribed antibiotics for a...

    Incorrect

    • You review a 56-year-old man who has recently been prescribed antibiotics for a chest infection. He suffers from COPD and is currently prescribed salbutamol and Seretide inhalers, and Phyllocontin continus. Since starting the antibiotics, he has been experiencing nausea, vomiting and abdominal pain.
      Which of the following antibiotics is he MOST LIKELY to have been prescribed for his chest infection? Select ONE answer only .

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Levofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Phyllocontin continus contains aminophylline (a mixture of theophylline and ethylenediamine), a bronchodilator used in the management of COPD and asthma.
      This patient is exhibiting symptoms of theophylline toxicity, which may have been triggered by the prescription of the antibiotic. Quinolone antibiotics, such as ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin, and macrolide antibiotics, such as erythromycin, increase the plasma concentration of theophyllines and can lead to toxicity.
      The drugs that commonly affect the half-life and the plasma concentration of theophylline are summarised in the table below:
      Drugs increasing plasma concentration of theophylline
      Drugs decreasing plasma concentration of theophylline
      Calcium channel blockers, e.g. Verapamil
      Cimetidine
      Fluconazole
      Macrolides, e.g. erythromycin
      Quinolones, e.g. ciprofloxacin
      Methotrexate
      Barbiturates
      Carbamazepine
      Phenobarbitol
      Phenytoin (and fosphenytoin)
      Rifampicin
      St. John’s wort

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular Pharmacology (0/2) 0%
Pharmacology (0/2) 0%
Microbiology (0/1) 0%
Principles Of Microbiology (0/1) 0%
Gastrointestinal (1/1) 100%
Physiology (1/1) 100%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Pathology (0/1) 0%
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