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  • Question 1 - According to the Vaughan William's classification of antiarrhythmic agents, lidocaine is a: ...

    Incorrect

    • According to the Vaughan William's classification of antiarrhythmic agents, lidocaine is a:

      Your Answer: Class IV agent

      Correct Answer: Class Ib agent

      Explanation:

      Lidocaine is an example of class IB antiarrhythmics.The Vaughan-Williams classification of antiarrhythmicsI: Membrane stabilizing agentsIA: Quinidine, Procainamide, DisopyramideIB: Lidocaine, MexiletineIC: Propafenone, Flecainide II: β blockers – Propranolol, EsmololIII: Agents widening AP – Amiodarone, Dronedarone, Dofetilide, Ibutilide, SotalolIV: Calcium channel blockers – Verapamil, DiltiazemV: Miscellaneous – Digoxin, adenosine, magnesium

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Lipid- lowering drugs like Lovastatin reduce cholesterol synthesis by inhibiting which enzyme? ...

    Correct

    • Lipid- lowering drugs like Lovastatin reduce cholesterol synthesis by inhibiting which enzyme?

      Your Answer: HMG-CoA reductase

      Explanation:

      Statins, also known as HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors, are a class of lipid-lowering medications. Statins have been found to reduce cardiovascular disease (CVD) and mortality in those who are at high risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - In the clotting mechanism, activation of factor IX can occur through the direct...

    Incorrect

    • In the clotting mechanism, activation of factor IX can occur through the direct actions of:

      Your Answer: Factor XIa & XIIa

      Correct Answer: Factor VIIa & XIa

      Explanation:

      Factor IX is processed to remove the signal peptide, glycosylated and then cleaved by factor XIa (of the contact pathway) or factor VIIa (of the tissue factor pathway). When activated into factor IXa, in the presence of Ca2+, membrane phospholipids, and a Factor VIII cofactor, it hydrolyses one arginine-isoleucine bond in factor X to form factor Xa. Factor IX is inhibited by antithrombin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Protein digestion starts in the stomach by which enzyme? ...

    Correct

    • Protein digestion starts in the stomach by which enzyme?

      Your Answer: Pepsin

      Explanation:

      Pepsinogen is the inactive form of pepsin which is secreted by gastric chief cells and is converted to pepsin, in the presence of gastric HCL. Pepsin is a peptidase that breaks down proteins into smaller peptides.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - If UA = concentration of A in urine, V = urine flow per...

    Incorrect

    • If UA = concentration of A in urine, V = urine flow per unit time, and PA = arterial plasma level of A, renal clearance of A is equal to?

      Your Answer: (UA/PA) x V

      Correct Answer: (UA x V)/PA

      Explanation:

      Renal clearance = [Urine concentration (UA) x Urine flow (V)]/[Plasma concentration (PA)]

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which one of the following is least associated with photosensitivity? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is least associated with photosensitivity?

      Your Answer: Herpes labialis

      Correct Answer: Acute intermittent porphyria

      Explanation:

      Sunlight, especially its ultraviolet radiation component, can cause increased or additional types of damage in predisposed individuals, such as those taking certain phototoxic drugs, or those with certain conditions associated with photosensitivity, including:- Psoriasis- Atopic eczema- Erythema multiforme- Seborrheic dermatitis- Autoimmune bullous diseases (immunobullous diseases)- Mycosis fungoides- Smith–Lemli–Opitz syndrome- Porphyria cutanea tardaAlso, many conditions are aggravated by strong light, including:- Systemic lupus erythematosus- Sjögren’s syndrome- Sinear Usher syndrome- Rosacea- Dermatomyositis- Darier’s disease- Kindler-Weary syndromeAcute intermittent porphyria (AIP) belongs to the group inborn errors of metabolism and most patients with AIP are not light sensitive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the flowing plasma proteins has the greatest affinity for T4? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the flowing plasma proteins has the greatest affinity for T4?

      Your Answer: Thyroxin-binding globulin

      Explanation:

      There are three principal plasma thyroid hormone-binding proteins, thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG), transthyretin (TTR), and albumin. TBG is synthesized in the liver and due to its relatively high affinity for iodothyronines, binds and carries approximately 70–75% of circulating T4 and T3.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - In the life cycle of plasmodium species: ...

    Incorrect

    • In the life cycle of plasmodium species:

      Your Answer: Merozoites migrate to the salivary glands of the mosquito

      Correct Answer: Merozoites are released from the liver and enter the red blood cell

      Explanation:

      Plasmodium is a genus of parasitic protozoa, many of which cause malaria in their hosts. The parasite always has two hosts in its life cycle: a Dipteran insect host and a vertebrate host. Sexual reproduction always occurs in the insect, making it the definitive host.The life-cycles of Plasmodium species involve several different stages both in the insect and the vertebrate host. These stages include sporozoites, which are injected by the insect vector into the vertebrate host’s blood. Sporozoites infect the host liver, giving rise to merozoites and (in some species) hypnozoites. These move into the blood where they infect red blood cells. In the red blood cells, the parasites can either form more merozoites to infect more red blood cells, or produce gametocytes which are taken up by insects which feed on the vertebrate host. In the insect host, gametocytes merge to sexually reproduce. After sexual reproduction, parasites grow into new sporozoites, which move to the insect’s salivary glands, from which they can infect a vertebrate host bitten by the insect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Where is thyroglobulin produced? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where is thyroglobulin produced?

      Your Answer: Colloid

      Correct Answer: Thyrocytes

      Explanation:

      Thyroglobulin, or Tg, is a protein that functions as the precursor to thyroid hormones. It is synthesized by thyrocytes and then secreted into the colloid. It also functions as a negative-feedback regulator of thyroid hormone biosynthesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 45 year old man presents with fever, malaise, weight loss and myalgias...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year old man presents with fever, malaise, weight loss and myalgias that have been occurring for a month. You suspect polyarteritis nodosa and arrange for some lab investigations. Which of the following abnormality would most likely be present?

      Your Answer: Leukopenia

      Correct Answer: Elevated creatinine

      Explanation:

      People with polyarteritis nodosa often exhibit anaemia of chronic disease. Leucocytosis and eosinophilia may also be present. ANCA is only rarely positive. As polyarteritis nodosa affects the kidneys as well, the creatinine is elevated in most cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following enzymes are involved in Phase I drug metabolism? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following enzymes are involved in Phase I drug metabolism?

      Your Answer: Alcohol dehydrogenase

      Explanation:

      Drug metabolism can be broadly classified into:Phase I (functionalization) reactions: also termed non-synthetic reactions, they include oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis, cyclization and de-cyclization. The most common and vital reactions are oxidation reactions. (Of the given enzymes only Alcohol dehydrogenase is involved in phase I drug metabolism. Succinate dehydrogenase, is a vital enzyme involved in the Kreb’s cycle and the mitochondrial electron transport chain). They are mainly catalysed by Cytochrome P-450 enzyme.Phase II (conjugation) reactions: occur following phase I reactions, they include reactions: glucuronidation and sulphate conjugation, etc. They are mostly catalysed by UDP-glucuronosyltransferase enzyme. Other phase II enzymes include: sulfotransferases, N-acetyltransferases, glutathione S-transferases and methyltransferases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Cholecystokinin causes the pancreas to ...

    Incorrect

    • Cholecystokinin causes the pancreas to

      Your Answer: Secrete large amounts of acidic pancreatic juice

      Correct Answer: Produce pancreatic juice rich in enzymes

      Explanation:

      Cholecystokinin (CCK) mediates digestion in the small intestine by inhibiting gastric emptying and decreasing gastric acid secretion. It stimulates the acinar cells of the pancreas to release a juice rich in pancreatic digestive enzymes, hence the old name pancreozymin. Together these enzymes catalyse the digestion of fat, protein, and carbohydrates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 33 year old female presents with dyspnoea, myalgia, arthralgia and a skin...

    Incorrect

    • A 33 year old female presents with dyspnoea, myalgia, arthralgia and a skin rash. The presence of which of the following antibodies would be the most specific for SLE?

      Your Answer: ANA

      Correct Answer: Anti-Sm

      Explanation:

      Anti-Sm antibodies are essential for diagnosis of SLE, especially in anti-dsDNA-negative patients. ANA are also found in 95% of the patients with SLE but they may also occur with other conditions like Juvenile inflammatory arthritis, chronic activity hepatitis, and Sjogren’s syndrome. Anti-Ro, although also found with SLE are more characteristic of Sjogren Syndrome. RF is usually associated with rheumatoid arthritis and cANCA with Wegener’s granulomatosis, Churg Strauss, and microscopic polyangiitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      25.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following statements with regards to regulation of pulmonary blood flow...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements with regards to regulation of pulmonary blood flow is correct:

      Your Answer: Oxygen deficiency indirectly causes vasoconstriction

      Correct Answer: Decreased blood flow to a region causes constriction of bronchi that area

      Explanation:

      Oxygen deficiency or hypoxia has a direct effect on pulmonary vessels and results in vasoconstriction. Increased carbon dioxide levels causes pH levels to fall and results in pulmonary vasoconstriction. Decreased blood flow to a pulmonary region causes bronchoconstriction in that area to allow for flow of blood to an area where ventilation is high. Exercise increases demand of oxygen and causes increased pulmonary artery pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Respiratory
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - In a patient with prostate cancer, what is the mechanism by which goserelin...

    Incorrect

    • In a patient with prostate cancer, what is the mechanism by which goserelin acts?

      Your Answer: Androgen receptor antagonist

      Correct Answer: GnRH agonist

      Explanation:

      Androgen deprivation therapy (ADT) for prostate cancer:Goserelin (Zoladex) is a synthetic gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) analogue; chronic stimulation of goserelin results in suppression of LH, FSH serum levels thereby preventing a rise in testosterone.Dosage form: 3.6 mg/10.8mg implants.Adverse effects include flushing, sweating, diarrhoea, erectile dysfunction, less commonly, rash, depression, hypersensitivity, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Almost all of the protein that appears in the stool is: ...

    Correct

    • Almost all of the protein that appears in the stool is:

      Your Answer: Comes from bacteria and cellular debris

      Explanation:

      75% of faecal weight is water. By dry weight 30% of faeces is bacteria,10-20% is fat and 2-3% proteins. Almost all proteins ingested are absorbed in the gut.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following statements regarding psoriasis is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding psoriasis is incorrect?

      Your Answer: Increased risk of psoriatic arthritis & lymphomas

      Correct Answer: Mediated by type 2 helper T cells

      Explanation:

      Psoriasis is a long-lasting autoimmune disease which is characterized by patches of abnormal skin. These skin patches are typically red, itchy, and scaly commonly on the extensor surfaces. Psoriasis is associated with an increased risk of psoriatic arthritis, lymphomas, cardiovascular disease, Crohn’s disease, and depression. Psoriatic arthritis affects up to 30% of individuals with psoriasis. Psoriasis is mediated by type 1 helper T cells which are involved in the cell mediated response, rather than type 2 helper T cells

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following components regulate cardiac output? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following components regulate cardiac output?

      Your Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      Cardiac output is regulated by the autonomic nervous system with sympathetic nerves having a positive chronotropic and inotropic effect and parasympathetic nerves having the opposite effect. An increase in preload will increase cardiac output likewise an afterload increase will also increase cardiac output.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      921.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Intermediate filaments achieve cell to cell contact via: ...

    Correct

    • Intermediate filaments achieve cell to cell contact via:

      Your Answer: Desmosomes

      Explanation:

      At the plasma membrane, some keratins interact with desmosomes (cell-cell adhesion) and hemidesmosomes (cell-matrix adhesion) via adapter proteins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 47-year-old woman diagnosed with oestrogen receptor positive breast cancer three months ago...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old woman diagnosed with oestrogen receptor positive breast cancer three months ago was started on treatment with tamoxifen. Which of the following is most likely a complaint of this patient during her review today?

      Your Answer: Hot flushes

      Explanation:

      The most likely complaint of this patient would be hot flushes.

      Alopecia and cataracts are listed as possible side-effects, however they are not as prevalent as hot flushes, which are very common in pre-menopausal women.

      Tamoxifen is a Selective Oestrogen Receptor Modulator (SERM) which acts as an oestrogen receptor antagonist and partial agonist. It is used in the management of oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer

      Adverse effects:

      • Menstrual disturbance: vaginal bleeding, amenorrhoea
      • Hot flushes – 3% of patients stop taking tamoxifen due to climacteric side-effects.
      • Venous thromboembolism.
      • Endometrial cancer (although antagonistic with respects to breast tissue, tamoxifen may serve as an agonist at other sites. Therefore the risk of endometrial cancer is increased). Raloxifene is a pure oestrogen receptor antagonist and carries a lower risk of endometrial cancer.

      Tamoxifen is typically used for 5 years following the removal of the tumour.

       

       

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      64.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - The enzyme located on the brush border of the small intestine activating the...

    Incorrect

    • The enzyme located on the brush border of the small intestine activating the proteolytic enzymes for further digestion of proteins is called?

      Your Answer: Pepsin

      Correct Answer: Enterokinase

      Explanation:

      Enterokinase is a brush border enzyme of the duodenum that activates proteolytic enzymes for further digestion of proteins. Trypsinogen is converted to trypsin by the action of enterokinase. Trypsin and chymotrypsin are secreted by the pancreatic acinar cells and are enzymes that aid in protein digestion. Pepsin is secreted by chief cells of the gastric mucosa. Procarboxydase is the inactive form of carboxypeptidase which is converted to its active form by trypsin and is secreted by pancreatic acinar cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Stimulation of the carotid sinus results in: ...

    Correct

    • Stimulation of the carotid sinus results in:

      Your Answer: Drop in blood pressure

      Explanation:

      Stimulation of the carotid sinus will result in an increase in the baroreceptor discharge. This will travel via the afferent nerves to the medulla. Signals will pass through the vagus nerve to decrease the sympathetic outflow to the heart and the blood vessels. This inhibition will result in vasodilation of the blood vessels, venodilation and bradycardia hence decreasing the total peripheral resistance and lowering the blood pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      2.5
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Where is the site of action of spironolactone? ...

    Correct

    • Where is the site of action of spironolactone?

      Your Answer: Distal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist which acts act in the distal convoluted tubule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - When is the blood pressure at its lowest during pregnancy? ...

    Correct

    • When is the blood pressure at its lowest during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Second trimester

      Explanation:

      It is lowest during the second trimester.

      Previous studies have reported changes in blood pressure (BP) throughout pregnancy, and it was generally accepted that in clinically healthy pregnant women, BP falls gradually at first trimester, reaching the lowest around 22–24 weeks, rising again from 28 weeks, and reaching preconception levels by 36 weeks of gestation

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Regarding the anatomy of the intestine, the muscularis propria contains all of which...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the anatomy of the intestine, the muscularis propria contains all of which of the following constituents?

      Your Answer: Lamina propria, muscularis mucosa, submucosa

      Correct Answer: Circular muscle, myenteric plexus, longitudinal muscle

      Explanation:

      The muscularis mucosa/propria consists of the inner circular muscles and the outer longitudinal muscles. Between these muscles is the myenteric plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following tracts are involved in the control of vital functions?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following tracts are involved in the control of vital functions?

      Your Answer: Spinocerebellar

      Correct Answer: Reticulospinal

      Explanation:

      Reticulospinal tract pass down from the reticular formation of the mid brain, pons and medulla. It descends in the lateral white column. Both sets of fibers enter the anterior grey column and may facilitate or inhibit the gamma and alpha neurons. By this means the reticulospinal tract controls voluntary and reflex activities. It also contains the descending autonomic fiber, thus providing a pathway for the hypothalamus to control the sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which mechanism of action does Trimethoprim use? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which mechanism of action does Trimethoprim use?

      Your Answer: Inhibit DNA gyrase

      Correct Answer: Inhibit Folic Acid metabolism

      Explanation:

      Trimethoprim binds to dihydrofolate reductase and inhibits the reduction of dihydrofolic acid (DHF) to tetrahydrofolic acid (THF). THF is an essential precursor in the thymidine synthesis pathway and interference with this pathway inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - The pressure in the portal circulation is normally adjusted in the: ...

    Correct

    • The pressure in the portal circulation is normally adjusted in the:

      Your Answer: Sinusoids

      Explanation:

      The pressure in the portal circulation depends on the pressure of the hepatic sinusoids mainly because the direction of transport of nutrients in the portal vein occurs from the portal vein to the hepatic sinusoids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which part of the chromosome plays a role in preserving its integrity and...

    Correct

    • Which part of the chromosome plays a role in preserving its integrity and stability?

      Your Answer: Telomere

      Explanation:

      Telomeres are non coding DNA plus proteins that are found at the end of the linear chromosomes. They maintain the integrity of the chromosomes and prevent their shortening

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - What percentage of blood is supplied to the liver by the portal vein?...

    Correct

    • What percentage of blood is supplied to the liver by the portal vein?

      Your Answer: 75%

      Explanation:

      The portal vein supplies 75% of the blood to the liver and exceeds the arterial supply of the organ.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      15.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Medicine (14/30) 47%
Pharmacology (3/5) 60%
Metabolism (1/1) 100%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Gastrointestinal (3/6) 50%
Renal (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (0/2) 0%
Endocrinology (1/2) 50%
Infectious Diseases (0/2) 0%
Connective Tissue (0/2) 0%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular (3/3) 100%
Cell Biology (1/1) 100%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Genetics (1/1) 100%
Hepatobiliary (1/1) 100%
Passmed