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  • Question 1 - A 27-year old lady is shot in the chest. The bullet enters superior...

    Correct

    • A 27-year old lady is shot in the chest. The bullet enters superior to the upper edge of the clavicle. She had difficulty in breathing which is interpreted by the A&E physician as a likely indicator of a collapsed lung. If that is the case, what portion of the pleura is most likely to have been punctured?

      Your Answer: Cupola

      Explanation:

      The cupola is part of the pleura that extends above the first rib into the root of the lung. Most likely to injured in a stab above the level of the clavicle.

      Costodiaphragmatic recess: the lowest extent of the pleural sac.

      Pulmonary ligament: is a fold of pleura located below the root of the lung.

      Mediastinal pleura: part of the pleura that lines the mediastinal cavity.

      Hilar reflection is the part of the pleura where the visceral pleura of the lung reflects to become continuous with the parietal pleura.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 44-year old gentleman presented to the hospital in congestive cardiac failure. On...

    Correct

    • A 44-year old gentleman presented to the hospital in congestive cardiac failure. On further investigation, he was found to have a right-sided retroperitoneal mass. On enquiry, he gave a history of intermittent hypertensive attacks. 24-hour urine specimen revealed raised metanephrine and vanillylmandelic acid levels. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pheochromocytoma

      Explanation:

      A neuroendocrine tumour of the chromaffin cells in adrenal medulla, pheochromocytoma secretes excessive catecholamines – adrenaline (epinephrine) and noradrenaline (norepinephrine). Pheochromocytomas are also known as the ‘10% tumour’. This is because 10% of them are bilateral, 10% are malignant, and 10% are extra-adrenal. Extra-adrenal paragangliomas (also known as extra-adrenal pheochromocytomas) are less common than pheochromocytomas and arise in the ganglia of sympathetic nervous system. Around 25% of pheochromocytomas are familial. Symptoms are described as feeling of ‘impending doom’, and include tachycardia, hypertension, palpitations, anxiety, headaches and pallor. Orthostatic hypertension is typically seen where there is a more than 100 mmHg fall in systolic pressure when the patient stands up. Pheochromocytomas can also lead to malignant hypertension. Diagnosis is by measurement of catecholamines and metanephrines in blood or in 24-hour urine, after exclusion of other possible causes such as stress, hypoglycaemia and drugs (methyldopa, dopamine agonists, ganglion-blocking antihypertensive). Imaging is also needed to localize the tumour. Localization of the tumour can also be done by Iodine-131 meta-iodobenzylguanidine (I131-MIBG) imaging.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pathology
      30.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 20-year old involved in a brawl was stabbed in the anterior chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year old involved in a brawl was stabbed in the anterior chest in a structure that is in close proximity to where the first rib articulates with the sternum. What is the structure that was most likely injured?

      Your Answer: Root of the lung

      Correct Answer: Sternoclavicular joint

      Explanation:

      The first rib articulates with the sternum right below the sternoclavicular joint.

      The sternal angle articulates with the costal cartilage of the second rib.

      The nipple is found between the fourth and the fifth ribs, in the fourth intercostal space.

      The xiphoid process is located right below the point of articulation of the costal cartilage of rib 7 with the sternum.

      The root of the lung is the part of the lung where neurovascular structures enter and leave the lung.

      Acromioclavicular joint is the point of articulation between the acromion process and the clavicle, near the shoulder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      51
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Under normal conditions, what is the major source of energy of cardiac muscles?...

    Correct

    • Under normal conditions, what is the major source of energy of cardiac muscles?

      Your Answer: Fatty acids

      Explanation:

      Under basal conditions, most of the energy needed by cardiac muscle for metabolism is derived from fats (60%), 35% by carbohydrates, and 5% by ketones and amino acids. However, after intake of large amounts of glucose, lactate and pyruvate are mainly used. During prolonged starvation, fat acts as the primary source. 50% of the used lipids are sourced from circulating fatty acids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Purkinje fibres in the heart conduct action potentials at the rate of: ...

    Correct

    • Purkinje fibres in the heart conduct action potentials at the rate of:

      Your Answer: 1.5–4.0 m/s

      Explanation:

      Purkinje fibres control the heart rate along with the sinoatrial node (SA node) and the atrioventricular node (AV node). The QRS complex is associated with the impulse passing through the Purkinje fibres. These fibres conduct action potential about six times faster than the velocity in normal cardiac muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 27-year-old woman has chronic low serum calcium levels. Which of the following...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman has chronic low serum calcium levels. Which of the following conditions may be responsible for the hypocalcaemia in this patient?

      Your Answer: Hypoparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      Chronic hypocalcaemia is mostly seen in patients with hypoparathyroidism as a result of accidental removal or damage to parathyroid glands during thyroidectomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      89.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following is likely to result in hematocolpos in a 12-year...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is likely to result in hematocolpos in a 12-year old girl?

      Your Answer: Imperforate hymen

      Explanation:

      Hematocolpos means accumulation of blood in vagina and hematometra is accumulation of blood in the uterus. These are most likely seen with an imperforate hymen; which is seen I 1 in 2000 females. If spontaneous resolution does not occur, treatment involves making a hole in the hymen to allow discharge of menstrual blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Women's Health
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 62-year-old woman presented to the doctor complaining of spine pain, fatigue and...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old woman presented to the doctor complaining of spine pain, fatigue and oliguria. She is diagnosed with chronic renal failure. Dipstick testing shows no protein, glucose, nitrite or ketones but a semi-quantitative sulphosalicylic acid test for urine protein is positive. Which of the following is the most probable cause of chronic renal failure in this patient.

      Your Answer: Multiple myeloma

      Explanation:

      Dipstick results are negative because the proteins found in the urine of this patient are not albumin but Bence Jones proteins. A Bence Jones protein is a monoclonal globulin protein commonly detected in patients affected by multiple myeloma. Multiple myeloma is a malignancy of plasma cells characterised by the production of monoclonal immunoglobulin. Symptoms include bone pain, bone fractures, bleeding, neurologic symptoms, fatigue, frequent infections and weight loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Renal
      122.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 50-year old gentleman who suffered a stroke was brought to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year old gentleman who suffered a stroke was brought to the emergency department by his relatives. The patient however denied the presence of paralysis of his left upper and lower limbs. What is the most likely site of the lesion in this patient?

      Your Answer: Posterior inferior gyrus of left frontal lobe

      Correct Answer: Right posterior parietal cortex

      Explanation:

      A large injury to the non-dominant parietal cortex can make the patient neglect or refuse to acknowledge the presence of paralysis on the contralateral side. This can also involve the perception of the external world. Smaller injuries in this area which involve the precentral gyrus (primary motor cortex) or postcentral gyrus (primary sensory cortex) cause contralateral spastic paralysis or contralateral loss of tactile sensation respectively. A lesion in posterior inferior gyrus of the dominant frontal lobe results in motor aphasia. Involvement of the posterior superior gyrus of the dominant frontal lobe produces sensory aphasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      203.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Myoglobin is released as a result of rhabdomyolysis from damaged skeletal muscles. What...

    Correct

    • Myoglobin is released as a result of rhabdomyolysis from damaged skeletal muscles. What function do they perform in the muscle?

      Your Answer: Acts like haemoglobin and binds with O2

      Explanation:

      Myoglobin is a pigmented globular protein made up of 153 amino acids with a prosthetic group containing haem around which the apoprotein folds. It is the primary oxygen carrying protein of the muscles. The binding of oxygen to myoglobin is unaffected by the oxygen pressure as it has an instant tendency to bind given its hyperbolic oxygen curve. It releases oxygen at very low pO2 levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      14.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (1/2) 50%
Thorax (1/2) 50%
Endocrine (1/1) 100%
Pathology (4/4) 100%
Cardiovascular (2/2) 100%
Physiology (3/4) 75%
Fluids & Electrolytes (1/1) 100%
Women's Health (1/1) 100%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
General (1/1) 100%
Passmed