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  • Question 1 - The Fick principle can be used to determine the blood flow to any...

    Incorrect

    • The Fick principle can be used to determine the blood flow to any organ of the body.

      At rest, which one of these organs has the highest blood flow (ml/min/100g)?

      Your Answer: Kidney

      Correct Answer: Thyroid gland

      Explanation:

      After the carotid body, the thyroid gland is the second most richly vascular organ in the body.

      The global blood flow to the thyroid gland can be measured using:
      1. Colour ultrasound sonography
      2. Quantitative perfusion maps using MRI of the thyroid gland using an arterial spin labelling (ASL) method.

      This table shows the blood flow to various organs of the body at rest:
      Organ Blood Flow(ml/minute/100g)
      Hepatoportal 58
      Kidney 420
      Brain 54
      Skin 13
      Skeletal muscle 2.7
      Heart 87
      Carotid body 2000
      Thyroid gland 560

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 30 year old male was the victim of an electrocution injury and...

    Correct

    • A 30 year old male was the victim of an electrocution injury and has been treated. The option that best describes the current levels for this injury is:

      Your Answer: Tonic muscle contraction - 15 mA

      Explanation:

      There are different effects of electrocution and these can be shown in the table below.

      Current Effect
      1 mA Tingling
      5 mA Pain
      15 mA Tonic muscle contraction
      50 mA Respiratory arrest
      100 mA Ventricular fibrillation and cardiac arrest

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Among the different classes of anti-arrhythmics, which one is the first line treatment...

    Correct

    • Among the different classes of anti-arrhythmics, which one is the first line treatment for narrow complex AV nodal re-entry tachycardia?

      Your Answer: Adenosine

      Explanation:

      Adenosine is the first line for AV nodal re-entry tachycardia. An initial dose of 6 mg is given, and a consequent second dose or third dose of 12 mg is administered if the initial dose fails to terminate the arrhythmia.

      Aside from Adenosine, a vagal manoeuvre (e.g. carotid massage) is done to help terminate the supraventricular arrhythmia.

      Amiodarone is not a first-line drug for supraventricular tachycardias. Digoxin and Propranolol can be considered if the arrhythmia is of a narrow complex irregular type. Verapamil is an alternative to Adenosine if the latter is contraindicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      31.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 30-year old male has Von Willebrand's disease and attends the hospital to...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year old male has Von Willebrand's disease and attends the hospital to get an infusion of desmopressin acetate. The way this works is by stimulating the release of von Willebrand factor from cells, which in turn increases factor VIII and platelet plug formation in clotting.

      In patients that have no clotting abnormalities, the substance that keeps the blood soluble and prevents platelet activation normally is which of these?

      Your Answer: Fibrinogen

      Correct Answer: Prostacyclin

      Explanation:

      Even though aprotinin reduces fibrinolysis and therefore bleeding, there is an associated increased risk of death. It was withdrawn in 2007.
      Protein C is dependent upon vitamin K and this may paradoxically increase the risk of thrombosis during the early phases of warfarin treatment.

      The coagulation cascade include two pathways which lead to fibrin formation:
      1. Intrinsic pathway – these components are already present in the blood
      Minor role in clotting
      Subendothelial damage e.g. collagen
      Formation of the primary complex on collagen by high-molecular-weight kininogen (HMWK), prekallikrein, and Factor 12
      Prekallikrein is converted to kallikrein and Factor 12 becomes activated
      Factor 12 activates Factor 11
      Factor 11 activates Factor 9, which with its co-factor Factor 8a form the tenase complex which activates Factor 10

      2. Extrinsic pathway – needs tissue factor that is released by damaged tissue)
      In tissue damage:
      Factor 7 binds to Tissue factor – this complex activates Factor 9
      Activated Factor 9 works with Factor 8 to activate Factor 10

      3. Common pathway
      Activated Factor 10 causes the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin and this hydrolyses fibrinogen peptide bonds to form fibrin. It also activates factor 8 to form links between fibrin molecules.

      4. Fibrinolysis
      Plasminogen is converted to plasmin to facilitate clot resorption

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      46.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Out of the following, which is NOT true regarding the external carotid? ...

    Correct

    • Out of the following, which is NOT true regarding the external carotid?

      Your Answer: It ends by bifurcating into the superficial temporal and ascending pharyngeal artery

      Explanation:

      The external carotid artery has eight important branches:
      Anterior surface:
      1. Superior thyroid artery (first branch)
      2. Lingual artery
      3. Facial artery
      Medial branch
      4. Ascending pharyngeal artery
      Posterior branches
      5. Occipital artery
      6. Posterior auricular artery
      Terminal branches
      7. Maxillary artery
      8. Superficial temporal artery

      The external carotid has eight branches, 3 from its anterior surface ; thyroid, lingual and facial. The pharyngeal artery is a medial branch. The posterior auricular and occipital are posterior branches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      20.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following causes the right-sided shift of the oxygen haemoglobin dissociation...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following causes the right-sided shift of the oxygen haemoglobin dissociation curve?

      Your Answer: Decreased 2,3-DPG in transfused red cells

      Correct Answer: Chronic iron deficiency anaemia

      Explanation:

      With respect to oxygen transport in cells, almost all oxygen is transported within erythrocytes. There is limited solubility and only 1% is carried as solution. Thus, the amount of oxygen transported depends upon haemoglobin concentration and its degree of saturation.

      Haemoglobin is a globular protein composed of 4 subunits. Haem is made up of a protoporphyrin ring surrounding an iron atom in its ferrous state. The iron can form two additional bonds – one is with oxygen and the other with a polypeptide chain.
      There are two alpha and two beta subunits to this polypeptide chain in an adult and together these form globin. Globin cannot bind oxygen but can bind to CO2 and hydrogen ions.
      The beta chains are able to bind to 2,3 diphosphoglycerate. The oxygenation of haemoglobin is a reversible reaction. The molecular shape of haemoglobin is such that binding of one oxygen molecule facilitates the binding of subsequent molecules.

      The oxygen dissociation curve (ODC) describes the relationship between the percentage of saturated haemoglobin and partial pressure of oxygen in the blood.
      Of note, it is not affected by haemoglobin concentration.

      Chronic anaemia causes 2, 3 DPG levels to increase, hence shifting the curve to the right

      Haldane effect – Causes the ODC to shift to the left. For a given oxygen tension there is increased saturation of Hb with oxygen i.e. Decreased oxygen delivery to tissues.
      This can be caused by:
      -HbF, methaemoglobin, carboxyhaemoglobin
      -low [H+] (alkali)
      -low pCO2
      -ow 2,3-DPG
      -ow temperature

      Bohr effect – causes the ODC to shifts to the right = for given oxygen tension there is reduced saturation of Hb with oxygen i.e. Enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues. This can be caused by:
      – raised [H+] (acidic)
      – raised pCO2
      -raised 2,3-DPG
      -raised temperature

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What makes the ultrasound nebulizer efficient? ...

    Incorrect

    • What makes the ultrasound nebulizer efficient?

      Your Answer: Humidification of inspired gas by up to 100%

      Correct Answer: Reduction in gas flow resistance

      Explanation:

      Smallest drops reach not only the upper but also the lower respiratory tracks. As a result, the ultrasonic nebulizer is most efficient for the therapy of pulmonary diseases and stands out as a robust and reliable support within the clinical setting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - In a study lasting over a period of two years, in which the...

    Incorrect

    • In a study lasting over a period of two years, in which the mean age of 800 patients was 82 years, the efficacy of hip protectors in reducing femoral neck fractures was discussed.

      Both experimental and control group had 400 members. Instances of fractures reported over the two year time duration were 10 for the control group (that were prescribed hip protector) and 20 for the control group.

      What is the value of Absolute Risk Reduction?

      Your Answer: 0.5

      Correct Answer: 0.025

      Explanation:

      ARR= (Risk factor associated with the new drug group) — (Risk factor associated with the currently available drug)

      So,

      ARR= (10/400)-(20/400)

      ARR= 0.025-0.05

      ARR= 0.025 (Numerical Value)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      72.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What vessel is NOT considered a major branch of the descending thoracic aorta?...

    Correct

    • What vessel is NOT considered a major branch of the descending thoracic aorta?

      Your Answer: Inferior thyroid artery

      Explanation:

      The descending thoracic aorta begins at the lower border of T4 near the midline as a continuation of the arch of the aorta. It descends and ends at the level of T12 at the aortic hiatus in the diaphragm, where it becomes the abdominal aorta.

      The aorta gives off the following branches: (descending order)

      1. Bronchial arteries
      2. Mediastinal arteries
      3. Oesophageal arteries
      4. Pericardial arteries
      5. Superior phrenic arteries

      The posterior intercostal arteries are branches that originate throughout the length of the posterior aspect of the descending thoracic aorta.

      The inferior thyroid artery is usually derived from the thyrocervical trunk, a branch of the subclavian artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      33
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following statement is true about Loop diuretics? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statement is true about Loop diuretics?

      Your Answer: May lead to hyperkalaemia

      Correct Answer: Are useful in the treatment of acute heart failure

      Explanation:

      Loop diuretics act by causing inhibition of Na+ K+ 2Cl– symporter present at the luminal membrane of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle.

      Furosemide, torsemide, bumetanide, ethacrynic acid, furosemide, piretanide, tripamide, and mersalyl are the important members of this group

      The main use of loop diuretics is to remove the oedema fluid in renal, hepatic, or cardiac diseases. Thus they are useful in the treatment of acute heart failure. These can be administered i.v. for prompt relief of acute pulmonary oedema (due to vasodilatory action).

      Hypokalaemia, hypomagnesemia, hyponatremia, alkalosis, hyperglycaemia, hyperuricemia, and dyslipidaemia are seen with both thiazides as well as loop diuretics

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Health workers are at increased risks of anaesthetic exposure. Therefore, The Control of...

    Correct

    • Health workers are at increased risks of anaesthetic exposure. Therefore, The Control of Substances Hazardous to Health (COSHH) regulations require measures implemented to assess and control the risks related to this exposure.

      Among the following control measures, which one is most likely to limit potentially harmful exposure to anaesthetic agents within an operating theatre?

      Your Answer: Total intravenous anaesthesia (TIVA)

      Explanation:

      Exposure to anaesthetic hazards is one among the occupational exposures in manipulating toxic agents or inhaling toxic gases during anaesthetic practices.

      Toxic gases mainly nitrous oxide, is one of the most gaseous anaesthetic agents that constitutes an important source of pollution. One of the safe and effective technics used in anaesthesia and reducing the amount of pollution is the Total Intravenous Anaesthesia (TIVA) which consists of using opioids in analgesia and propofol for the induction and the maintenance of anaesthesia. It refers to the administration intravenously of an anaesthetic, sedative, and/or tranquilizer. A less polluting but not the best way to get rid of the toxic aesthetic agents is the scavenger system that collects and expels the gas outside the medical environment. Yet, this technique still represents a hazard for the environment and still increase the risk of exposure for the health workers and clinical staff.

      Fume cupboards are also not recommended to use because of their high pollution potency, mainly of the air resulting in a great harm for medical workers.

      Supraglottic airways as well as the Air Changes per Hour technics could be harmful for both patients and health workers, increasing the risks of transmitted diseases, namely nosocomial infections.

      Therefore, the Total Intravenous Anaesthesia technique (TIVA) is most likely to be safe and recommended to use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      33.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - The immediate physiological response to massive perioperative blood loss is: ...

    Correct

    • The immediate physiological response to massive perioperative blood loss is:

      Your Answer: Stimulation of baroreceptors in carotid sinus and aortic arch

      Explanation:

      With regards to compensatory response to blood loss, the following sequence of events take place:

      1. Decrease in venous return, right atrial pressure and cardiac output
      2. Baroreceptor reflexes (carotid sinus and aortic arch) are immediately activated
      3. There is decreased afferent input to the cardiovascular centre in medulla. This inhibits parasympathetic reflexes and increases sympathetic response
      4. This results in an increased cardiac output and increased SVR by direct sympathetic stimulation. There is increased circulating catecholamines and local tissue mediators (adenosine, potassium, NO2)
      5. Fluid moves into the intravascular space as a result of decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure absorbing interstitial fluid.

      A slower response is mounted by the hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal axis.
      6. Reduced renal blood flow is sensed by the intra renal baroreceptors and this stimulates release of renin by the juxta-glomerular apparatus.
      7. There is cleavage of circulating Angiotensinogen to Angiotensin I, which is converted to Angiotensin II in the lungs (by Angiotensin Converting Enzyme ACE)

      Angiotensin II is a powerful vasoconstrictor that sets off other endocrine pathways.
      8. The adrenal cortex releases Aldosterone
      9. There is antidiuretic hormone release from posterior pituitary (also in response to hypovolaemia being sensed by atrial stretch receptors)
      10. This leads to sodium and water retention in the distal convoluted renal tubule to conserve fluid
      Fluid conservation is also aided by an increased amount of cortisol which is secreted in response to the increase in circulating catecholamines and sympathetic stimulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Regarding the following induction agents, which one is cleared at the fastest rate...

    Correct

    • Regarding the following induction agents, which one is cleared at the fastest rate from the plasma?

      Your Answer: Propofol

      Explanation:

      Propofol is cleared at the fastest rate at the rate of 60ml/kg/min.

      Clearance rate of other drugs are as follows:
      – Thiopental: 3.5 ml/kg/min
      – Methohexitone: 11 ml/kg/min
      – Ketamine: 17 ml/kg/min
      – Etomidate: 10-20 ml/kg/min

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Arrythmias can develop from abnormal conduction, which may be as a result of...

    Correct

    • Arrythmias can develop from abnormal conduction, which may be as a result of impaired blood flow in the coronary arteries which causes hypoxia. Phase 0 depolarisation can be slowed, and this leads to slower conduction speeds.
      Rapid depolarisation in the cardiac action potential is caused by which movement of ions?

      Your Answer: Sodium influx

      Explanation:

      Cardiac conduction

      Phase 0 – Rapid depolarization. Opening of fast sodium channels with large influx of sodium

      Phase 1 – Rapid partial depolarization. Opening of potassium channels and efflux of potassium ions. Sodium channels close and influx of sodium ions stop

      Phase 2 – Plateau phase with large influx of calcium ions. Offsets action of potassium channels. The absolute refractory period

      Phase 3 – Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close. Relative refractory period

      Phase 4 – Repolarization continues as sodium/potassium pump restores the ionic gradient by pumping out 3 sodium ions in exchange for 2 potassium ions coming into the cell. Relative refractory period

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 70-year-old female is on bisoprolol, amitriptyline, and gabapentin medication and required hemiarthroplasty...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old female is on bisoprolol, amitriptyline, and gabapentin medication and required hemiarthroplasty for a fractured neck of the femur. Spinal anaesthesia using 10 mg of IV ketamine to aid positioning was decided to be used. This resulting block extended to T8 and she required boluses of metaraminol for hypotension.

      She became profoundly hypertensive and had multiple ventricular ectopic beats on ECG following positioning in theatre.

      Which of the following is the cause for this?

      Your Answer: Ketamine

      Explanation:

      Ketamine is primarily used for the induction and maintenance of anaesthesia. It induces dissociative anaesthesia. But it is contraindicated in cardiovascular diseases such as unstable angina or poorly controlled hypertension.

      Tricyclic antidepressants (TCA) are primarily used as antidepressants which is important for the management of depression. These are second-line drugs next to SSRI. They work by competitively preventing re-uptake of amines (noradrenaline and serotonin) from the synaptic cleft so increasing their concentration. But TCA overdoses are toxic and have cardiovascular effects, central effects, and anticholinergics effects. Cardiovascular effects like prolonged QT and widened QRS at lower doses progressing to ventricular arrhythmias and refractory hypotension at higher doses can be life-threatening. When used in the perioperative period, it can lead to increased sensitivity to circulating catecholamines therefore care is needed perioperatively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      43.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A trail has analysed that a new screening test may increase the survival...

    Incorrect

    • A trail has analysed that a new screening test may increase the survival time of ovarian cancer patients. But analyst say that the apparent increase in the patients survival time is just because of earlier detection instead of actual improvement.

      What kind of bias is in this experiment?

      Your Answer: Recall bias

      Correct Answer: Lead time bias

      Explanation:

      Observation bias occurs when the behaviour of an individual changes that results from their awareness of being observed.

      Recall bias introduced when participants in a study are systematically more or less likely to recall and relate information on exposure depending on their outcome status.

      Attrition bias is a systematic error caused by unequal loss of participants from a randomized controlled trial (RCT). In clinical trials, participants might dropout due to unsatisfactory treatment or efficacy, intolerable adverse events, or even death.

      Selection bias introduced when the individuals are not chosen randomly to take a part in the study. It usually occurs when the research decides who is going to be studied, they are not the representative of the population.

      Lead-time bias occurs when a disease is detected by a screening test at an earlier time point rather than it would have been diagnosed by its clinical appearance. In this bias, earlier detection improves the survival time in the intervention group.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Seven days after undergoing an inguinal hernia repair, a 24-year old male presents...

    Correct

    • Seven days after undergoing an inguinal hernia repair, a 24-year old male presents with a wound that is erythematous, tender and has a purulent discharge. The most likely cause of this is which of the following?

      Your Answer: Infection with Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Staphylococcus aureus infection is the most likely cause.

      Surgical site infections (SSI) occur when there is a breach in tissue surfaces and allow normal commensals and other pathogens to initiate infection. They are a major cause of morbidity and mortality.

      SSI comprise up to 20% of healthcare associated infections and approximately 5% of patients undergoing surgery will develop an SSI as a result.
      The organisms are usually derived from the patient’s own body.

      Measures that may increase the risk of SSI include:
      -Shaving the wound using a single use electrical razor with a disposable head
      -Using a non iodine impregnated surgical drape if one is needed
      -Tissue hypoxia
      -Delayed prophylactic antibiotics administration in tourniquet surgery, patients with a prosthesis or valve, in clean-contaminated surgery of in contaminated surgery.

      Measures that may decrease the risk of SSI include:
      1. Intraoperatively
      – Prepare the skin with alcoholic chlorhexidine (Lowest incidence of SSI)
      -Cover surgical site with dressing

      In contrast to previous individual RCT’s, a recent meta analysis has confirmed that administration of supplementary oxygen does not reduce the risk of wound infection and wound edge protectors do not appear to confer benefit.

      2. Post operatively
      Tissue viability advice for management of surgical wounds healing by secondary intention

      Use of diathermy for skin incisions
      In the NICE guidelines the use of diathermy for skin incisions is not advocated. Several randomised controlled trials have been undertaken and demonstrated no increase in risk of SSI when diathermy is used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Arterial pressure waveforms give an indication of the operation of the heart and...

    Incorrect

    • Arterial pressure waveforms give an indication of the operation of the heart and the patient's clinical state.

      Which of the following listed characteristics of arterial waveforms is most indicative of myocardial contractility?

      Your Answer: Position of the dicrotic notch on the downstroke.

      Correct Answer: Slope of the upstroke of the curve.

      Explanation:

      Arterial pressure waveforms is an invasive form of monitoring cardiac parameters. It provides a lot of information on the performance of the heart from different sections, including:

      Cardiac measurements:

      Heart rate
      Systolic pressure
      Diastolic pressure
      Mean arterial pressure
      Pulse pressure
      Change in pulse amplitude corresponding to respiratory changes
      Slope of anacrotic limb associated with aortic stenosis

      From the shape of the arterial waveform displayed:

      Slope of anacrotic limb represents aortic valve and LVOT flow
      Indications of aortic stenosis (AS): Slurred wave, collapsing wave
      Rapid systolic decline in LVOTO
      Bisferiens wave in HOCM
      Low dicrotic notch in states with poor peripheral resistance
      Position and quality of dicrotic notch as a reflection of the damping coefficient

      For this question, the upstroke slope of the pressure wave is indicative of myocardial contractility and is mathematically represented as:

      dP/dt, which represents a change of pressure with regards to time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which statement is true when describing carbonic anhydrase? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is true when describing carbonic anhydrase?

      Your Answer: Is present in the plasma

      Correct Answer: Isoenzyme IV is found in the brush border of the proximal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      Carbonic anhydrase is an enzyme which contains zinc and can be found in:
      1. Erythrocytes
      2. Pulmonary endothelium
      3. The intestine
      4. Pancreas
      5. Cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle.

      To date, there have been seven isoenzymes identified. Of note, isoenzyme IV is found in the brush border of the proximal convoluted tubule and isoenzyme II is found within the luminal cells.

      Acetazolamides a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor and is used as prophylaxis against mountain sickness and in glaucoma management.

      Spironolactone is a potassium diuretic and is an aldosterone antagonist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Very large SI units are easily expressed using mathematical prefixes.

    One terabyte is equal...

    Incorrect

    • Very large SI units are easily expressed using mathematical prefixes.

      One terabyte is equal to which of the following numbers?

      Your Answer: 1,000,000,000 bytes

      Correct Answer: 1,000,000,000,000 bytes

      Explanation:

      To denote large measured units, the following SI mathematical prefixes are used:

      1 deca = 10 bytes (101)
      1 hecto (h) = 100 bytes
      1 kilo (k)= 1,000 bytes
      1 mega (M) = 1,000,000 bytes
      1 giga (G) = 1,000,000,000 bytes
      1 Tera (T) = 1,000,000,000,000 bytes
      1 Peta (P) = 1,000,000,000,000,000 bytes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Following an acute appendicectomy, a 6-year-old child is admitted to the recovery unit.

    Your...

    Incorrect

    • Following an acute appendicectomy, a 6-year-old child is admitted to the recovery unit.

      Your consultant has requested that you prescribe maintenance fluids for the next 12 hours. The child is 21 kg in weight.

      What is the most suitable fluid volume to be prescribed?

      Your Answer: 610 ml

      Correct Answer: 732 ml

      Explanation:

      After a paediatric case, you’ll frequently have to calculate and prescribe maintenance fluids. The ‘4-2-1 rule’ should be used as a guideline:

      1st 10 kg – 4 ml/kg/hr
      2nd 10 kg – 2 ml/kg/hr
      Subsequent kg – 1 ml/kg/hr

      Hence

      1st 10 kg = 4 × 10 = 40 ml
      2nd 10 kg = 2 × 10 = 20 ml
      Subsequent kg = 1 × 1 = 1 ml
      Total = 61 ml/hr

      61 × 12 = 732 ml over 12 hrs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      25.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - At which of the following location is there no physiological oesophageal constriction? ...

    Incorrect

    • At which of the following location is there no physiological oesophageal constriction?

      Your Answer: Arch of the aorta

      Correct Answer: Lower oesophageal sphincter

      Explanation:

      The oesophagus is a muscular tube that connects the pharynx to the stomach. It begins at the lower border of the cricoid cartilage and C6 vertebra. It ends at T11.

      The oesophagus has physiological constrictions at the following levels:
      1. Cervical constriction: Pharyngo-oesophageal junction (15 cm from the incisor teeth) produced by the cricopharyngeal part of the inferior pharyngeal constrictor muscle
      2. Thoracic constrictions:
      i. where the oesophagus is first crossed by the arch of the aorta (22.5 cm from the incisor teeth)
      ii. where the oesophagus is crossed by the left main bronchus (27.5 cm from the incisor teeth)
      3. Diaphragmatic constriction: where the oesophagus passes through the oesophageal hiatus of the diaphragm (40 cm from the incisor teeth)

      Awareness of these constrictions is important for clinical purposes when it is required to pass instruments through the oesophagus into the stomach or when viewing radiographs of patients’ oesophagus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Noradrenaline is used as an infusion to increase blood pressure in a 43-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • Noradrenaline is used as an infusion to increase blood pressure in a 43-year-old woman with pneumonia admitted to ICU.
      Which of the following statements is true regarding Noradrenaline?

      Your Answer: Increases renal and hepatic blood flow

      Correct Answer: Has a short half life about 2 minutes

      Explanation:

      Noradrenaline has a short half-life of about 2 minutes. It is rapidly cleared from plasma by a combination of cellular reuptake and metabolism.

      It acts as sympathomimetics by acting on ?1 receptors and also on ? receptors.

      It decreases renal and hepatic blood flow.

      Norepinephrine is metabolized by the enzymes monoamine oxidase and catechol-O-methyltransferase to 3-methoxy-4-hydroxymandelic acid and 3-methoxy-4-hydroxyphenylglycol (MHPG).

      Natural catecholamines are Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, and Dopamine

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      141.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 72-year old man is experiencing a cardiac risk evaluation for the management...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year old man is experiencing a cardiac risk evaluation for the management of obstructive umbilical hernia. Echocardiogram demonstrates an aortic valve area=0.59cm with a pressure of 70mmHg. Five years ago, he had mild myocardial infarction complicated with pulmonary oedema. Now he encounters angina with little exertion.

      Which of the following factor is the foremost profoundly weighted using Deysky's cardiac risk scoring system in this case?

      Your Answer: Angina with mild exertion

      Correct Answer: Aortic stenosis

      Explanation:

      Detsky’s Modified cardiac risk classification system in patients undergoing non-cardiac surgery:

      Age more than 70: 05 points

      History of myocardial infarction:

      Less than 6 months: 10 points
      More than 6 months: 5 points

      Angina Pectoris:

      Angina with minimal exertion: 10 points

      Angina at any level of exertion: 20 points

      Pulmonary Oedema:

      Within 7 days: 10 points
      At any time: 5 points

      Suspected aortic valve stenosis with valve area <0.6cm2: 20 points Arrhythmia: Any rhythm other than sinus or sinus with premature atrial complexes (PACs): 5 points More than 5 premature ventricular contractions: 5 points
      Emergency Surgery: 10 points
      Deficient general medical condition: 5 points

      Risk classification:

      Grade I: 0-15 points = low risk
      Grade II: 15-30 points = moderate risk
      Grade III: >30 points = high risk

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      30.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - The arterial-venous oxygen (a-vO2) difference is the difference between the oxygen content of...

    Correct

    • The arterial-venous oxygen (a-vO2) difference is the difference between the oxygen content of arterial blood (CaO2) and mixed-venous blood (CvO2).

      At rest, which organ has the greatest a-vO2 difference?

      Your Answer: Heart

      Explanation:

      At rest, the heart has the greatest a-vO2 difference, a high capillary to myocyte ratio, short diffusion distances, and a high mitochondrial density. The flow of blood through the coronary arteries is also tightly controlled. At rest, 70-80 percent of the oxygen available to the cardiac muscle is extracted, increasing to 90 percent during exercise.

      The a-vO2 difference indicates the body’s or an individual organ’s ability to extract oxygen from the blood.

      CaO2 is influenced by a number of factors, including Hb concentration, PaO2 and pulmonary diffusion capacity.

      CvO2 is influenced by a number of factors, including capillary density, regional blood flow, heart, resting skeletal muscle, kidney, intestine and skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      28.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which structure does NOT lie in the posterior triangle of the neck? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which structure does NOT lie in the posterior triangle of the neck?

      Your Answer: Occipital lymph nodes

      Correct Answer: Internal jugular vein

      Explanation:

      The sternocleidomastoid muscle divides the neck into anterior and posterior triangles on both sides of the neck.

      The posterior triangle has the following boundaries:
      anteriorly – sternocleidomastoid muscle
      posteriorly – trapezius
      roof – investing layer of deep cervical fascia
      floor – prevertebral fascia overlying splenius capitis, levator scapulae, and the scalene muscles

      The contents of the posterior triangle are:
      1. fat
      2. lymph nodes (level V)
      3. accessory nerve
      4. cutaneous branches of the cervical plexus (A major branch of this plexus is the phrenic nerve, which arises from the anterior divisions of spinal nerves C3-C5)
      5. inferior belly of omohyoid
      6. branches of the thyrocervical trunk (transverse cervical and suprascapular arteries)
      7. third part of the subclavian artery
      8. external jugular vein

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 74-year-old with a VVI pacemaker is undergoing a hip replacement.

    Which of the...

    Correct

    • A 74-year-old with a VVI pacemaker is undergoing a hip replacement.

      Which of the following is most likely to predispose him to an electrical hazard?

      Your Answer: Use of cutting unipolar diathermy

      Explanation:

      A single chamber pacemaker was implanted in the patient. In VVI mode, a pacemaker paces and senses the ventricle while being inhibited by a perceived ventricular event. The most likely electrical hazard from diathermy is electromagnetic interference (EMI).

      EMI has the potential to cause the following: Inhibition of pacing
      Asynchronous pacing
      Reset to backup mode
      Myocardial burns, and
      Trigger VF.

      Diathermy entails the implementation of high-frequency electrical currents to produce heat and either make incisions or induce coagulation. Monopolar cautery involves disposable cautery pencils and electrosurgical diathermy units. In typical monopolar cautery, an electrical plate is placed on the patient’s skin and acts as an electrode, while the current passes between the instrument and the plate. Monopolar diathermy can therefore interfere with implanted metal devices and pacemaker function.

      Bipolar diathermy, where the current passes between the forceps tips and not through the patient and is less likely to generate EMI.

      Whilst the presence of a CVP line may in theory predispose the patient to microshock, the use of prerequisite CF electrical equipment makes this very unlikely. The presence of a CVP line and pacemaker does not therefore unduly increase the risk of an electrical hazard.

      Isolating transformers are used to protect secondary circuits and individuals from electrical shocks. There is no step-up or step-down voltage (i.e. there is a ratio of 1 to 1 between the primary and secondary windings).

      A ground (or earth) wire is normally connected to the metal case of an operating table to protect patients from accidental electrocution. In the event that a fault allows a live wire to make contact with the metal table (broken cable, loose connection etc.) it becomes live. The earth will provide an immediate path for current to safely flow through and so the table remains safe to touch. Being a low resistance path, the earth lets a large current flow through it when the fault occurs ensuring that the fuse or RCD will quickly blow. Without an operating table earth, the patient is not at more risk of an electrical hazard because of the pacemaker.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which of the following statements is true about the in-hospital management of ventricular...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true about the in-hospital management of ventricular fibrillation?

      Your Answer: When the defibrillator is charging all rescuers should stand clear of the patient

      Correct Answer: Amiodarone may be administered following a third DC shock

      Explanation:

      Ventricular fibrillation (VT) is an arrhythmia caused by a distortion in the organized contraction of the ventricles leading to an inability to pump blood out into the body.

      Amiodarone is an anti arrhythmic drug used for the treatment of ventricular and atrial fibrillations. It is the gold standard of treatment for refractory pulseless ventricular tachycardia (VT) and ventricular fibrillation (VF).

      Guidelines for emergency treatment state that only the rescuer carrying out chest compressions on the patient may stand near the defibrillator as it charges.

      Cardio-pulmonary resuscitation (CPR) during cardiac arrest is required for 2 minute cycles.

      Hypovolaemia is as a cause of pulseless electrical activity (PEA) can be reversed using fluid resuscitation, whereas hypotension during cardiac arrest is either persistent or undetectable and is therefore irreversible.

      Hyperkalaemia and hypocalcaemia are treated using calcium salts, but calcium chloride is often preferred over calcium gluconate.

      During a pulseless VT or VF, a single precordial thump will be effective if administered within the first seconds of the occurrence of a shockable rhythm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      26.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - After a bariatric surgery, average weight loss observed in patients is 18 kg....

    Correct

    • After a bariatric surgery, average weight loss observed in patients is 18 kg. The standard deviation was found to be 3 kg. What is the percentage of patients that lie between 9 and 27 kg?

      Note: Assume that the curve is normally distributed.

      Your Answer: 99.70%

      Explanation:

      9 & 27 can be obtained by subtracting and adding 9 from the mean. 9 is three times the standard deviation and we know that 99.7% values lie within 3 standard deviations from the mean. We can find the interval for 99.7% to verify in the following way:

      For 99.7% confidence interval, you can find the range as follows:

      1. Multiply the standard error by 3.

      2. Subtract the answer from mean value to get the lower limit.

      3. Add the answer obtained in step 1 from the mean value to get the upper limit.

      4. The range turns out to be 9-27 kg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - The coronary sinus is a collection of veins joined together to form a...

    Correct

    • The coronary sinus is a collection of veins joined together to form a large vessel that collects blood from the myocardium. Which structure forms the largest tributary of the coronary sinus?

      Your Answer: Great cardiac vein

      Explanation:

      The coronary sinus is large venous structure located on the posterior aspect of the left atrium, coursing within the left atrioventricular groove. The function of the coronary sinus is to drain the venous blood from the majority of the heart. It opens into the right atrium between the opening of inferior vena cava, the fossa ovalis and the right atrioventricular orifice. The coronary sinus is often guarded by a thin, semicircular endocardial fold, also known as the thebesian valve.
      Tributaries include: Great cardiac vein, middle cardiac vein, small cardiac vein, posterior vein of left ventricle, oblique vein of left atrium. The great cardiac vein is the largest tributary of the coronary sinus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      28.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Physiology (0/3) 0%
Clinical Measurement (1/2) 50%
Pharmacology (3/5) 60%
Physiology And Biochemistry (3/5) 60%
Anatomy (3/5) 60%
Basic Physics (0/2) 0%
Statistical Methods (1/3) 33%
Anaesthesia Related Apparatus (2/2) 100%
Pathophysiology (1/3) 33%
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