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  • Question 1 - A woman is prescribed docetaxel as part of her chemotherapy for breast cancer....

    Incorrect

    • A woman is prescribed docetaxel as part of her chemotherapy for breast cancer. What is the mechanism of action of docetaxel?

      Your Answer: Inhibits formation of microtubules

      Correct Answer: Prevents microtubule disassembly

      Explanation:

      The principal mechanism of action of taxanes (e.g. docetaxel) is the prevention of microtubule disassembly.

      Other aforementioned options are ruled out because:

      1. Doxorubicin: stabilizes DNA topoisomerase II complex and inhibits DNA and RNA synthesis.

      2. Vincristine, vinblastine: inhibits formation of microtubules.

      3. Cisplatin: causes cross-linking in DNA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 28-year-old woman is evaluated in the endocrinology clinic for increased urine output....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman is evaluated in the endocrinology clinic for increased urine output. She weighs 60 kg and has a 24-hour urine output of 3500 ml. Her basal urine osmolality is 210 mOsm/kg.
      She undergoes a fluid deprivation test and her urine osmolality after fluid deprivation (loss of weight 3 kg) is 350 mOsm/kg. Subsequent injection of subcutaneous DDAVP (desmopressin acetate) did not result in a further significant rise of urine osmolality after 2 hours (355 mOsm/kg).
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pituitary diabetes insipidus

      Correct Answer: Primary polydipsia

      Explanation:

      In central and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus (DI), urinary osmolality will be less than 300 mOsm/kg after water deprivation. After the administration of ADH, the osmolality will rise to more than 750 mOsm/kg in central DI but will not rise at all in nephrogenic DI. In primary polydipsia, urinary osmolality be above 750 mOsm/kg after water deprivation. A urinary osmolality that is 300-750 mOsm/kg after water deprivation and remains below 750 mOsm/kg after administration of ADH may be seen in partial central DI, partial nephrogenic DI, and primary polydipsia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      30.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old female had an oral glucose tolerance test. Her oral glucose test...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female had an oral glucose tolerance test. Her oral glucose test after 2 hrs was 10mml/l. What is the result of her test?

      Your Answer: Diabetes Mellitus Type II

      Correct Answer: Impaired glucose tolerance

      Explanation:

      Impaired glucose tolerance is a pre-diabetic state of hyperglycaemia that is associated with insulin resistance and increased risk of cardiovascular pathology. To diagnose impaired glucose tolerance, the OGTT value after 2 hrs should be 140-199mg/dl (7.7 – 11.0 mmol/l). Impaired fasting glucose is diagnosed as fasting blood sugar between 100 mg/dl to 125 mg/dl.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      46
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 74-year-old man presents with left-sided lower abdominal pain. He is obese and...

    Incorrect

    • A 74-year-old man presents with left-sided lower abdominal pain. He is obese and admits to a dislike of high fibre foods. The pain has been grumbling for the past couple of weeks and is partially relieved by defecation. He has suffered intermittent diarrhoea.
       
      Blood testing reveals a neutrophilia, and there is also a microcytic anaemia. Barium enema shows multiple diverticula, more marked on the left-hand side of the colon.
       
      Which diagnosis fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Lactose intolerance

      Correct Answer: Diverticular disease

      Explanation:

      Given that he has diverticula in the clinical scenario combined with his presenting symptoms, it is likely that he has diverticular disease. A low fibre diet would support this diagnosis. Acute diverticulitis would require treatment with antibiotics. Depending on the severity (Hinchey classification) would determine if he needs oral or IV antibiotics, hospital admission or outpatient treatment. Sometimes abscesses or micro perforations occur, which typical require drainage and possibly surgical intervention. Diverticular disease is clearly a better answer than other possible answer choices, simply based on the symptoms presented in the prompt (and mention of low fibre).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      1891.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following conditions is not linked to hyperuricemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is not linked to hyperuricemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Explanation:

      Hyperuricemia is an elevated uric acid level in the blood. The normal upper limit is 6.8mg/dL, and anything over 7 mg/dL is considered saturated, and symptoms can occur. Causes of hyperuricemia can be classified into three functional types:
      1. Increased production of uric acid – Purine rich diet, Tumour lysis syndrome, HGPRT deficiency (Lesch-Nyhan and Kelley-Seegmiller syndromes), Increased PRPP synthetase activity and Polycythaemia
      2. Decreased excretion of uric acid – Renal impairment, Metabolic syndrome, Drugs (diuretics, low-dose aspirin, cyclosporin, tacrolimus, pyrazinamide, ethambutol, levodopa, nicotinic acid), Acidosis, Pre-eclampsia and eclampsia, Hypothyroidism and hyperparathyroidism, Sarcoidosis, Familial juvenile gouty nephropathy, Chronic lead intoxication, Trisomy 21
      3. Idiopathic and mixed type – Alcohol, Exercise, Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency, Aldolase B deficiency

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 44-year-old patient has sudden onset of breathlessness and stridor a few minutes...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old patient has sudden onset of breathlessness and stridor a few minutes after extubation for thyroidectomy. The patient had long standing goitre for which she had surgery. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tracheomalacia

      Explanation:

      Prolonged compression of the trachea by a large goitre will cause tracheomalacia following thyroidectomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following vaccines do not contain live organisms? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following vaccines do not contain live organisms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polio (Salk)

      Explanation:

      Live virus vaccines include: Vaccinia (smallpox), Measles, Mumps, Rubella (MMR combined vaccine), Varicella (chickenpox), Influenza (nasal spray), Rotavirus, Zoster (shingles) and Yellow fever. Inactivated vaccines are Polio (IPV), Hepatitis A and Rabies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 68-year-old male presents with muscle weakness - he is unable to go...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male presents with muscle weakness - he is unable to go up the stairs and has complained of mild breathlessness. He has said that he finds it difficult to swallow food sometimes. Lab tests are conducted and the reports show the following results: alkaline phosphatase 216 U/L; aspartate aminotransferase 49 U/L; alanine transaminase 43 U/L; creatine kinase 417; erythrocyte sedimentation rate 16 mm/h. From the list of options, choose the most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polymyositis

      Explanation:

      Muscle weakness and the inability to climb the stairs are consistent with a diagnosis of polymyositis. The condition usually affects those between 30-50 years of age and individuals present with stiffness in the muscles closest to the trunk which gradually worsens over time. Difficulty swallowing may be experienced if the muscle in the oesophagus is affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
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      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which one of the following is a contraindication to the use of a...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is a contraindication to the use of a triptan in the management of migraine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A history of ischaemic heart disease

      Explanation:

      A history of ischaemic heart disease in a contraindication for prescribing triptans because they act by constricting cerebral and also coronary vessels, increasing the risk of stroke.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
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  • Question 10 - A 50-year-old woman came to the diabetes clinic for her regular follow up.
    The...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman came to the diabetes clinic for her regular follow up.
      The following results are obtained:
      Urine analysis: Protein+
      HBA1c 86 mmol/mol (10.0%)

      What is her average blood glucose level during the past 2 months?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 15

      Explanation:

      The level of haemoglobin A1c (HbA1c), also known as glycated haemoglobin, determines how well a patient’s blood glucose level has been controlled over the previous 8-12 weeks. Recent studies have been made to correlate between HbA1c and average glucose level.
      Using the following formula: Average blood glucose (mmol/l) = (1.98 x 1 HbA1c) – 4.29

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 11 - A 63-year-old woman visits the diabetes clinic for review. She has had type-2...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old woman visits the diabetes clinic for review. She has had type-2 diabetes for 9 years and is now on insulin therapy. She has diabetic nephropathy, as exemplified by hypertension and proteinuria (urinary PCR 155); a recent creatinine level was 205 μmol/l and eGFR 24 ml/min.
       
      Which of the following options best fits her prognosis or management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treatment with ARB or ACE-I may slow further deterioration in renal function

      Explanation:

      Treatment with ARB or ACE-I may slow further deterioration in renal function in this patient, as studies have shown that blocking of the RAS in type 2 diabetic patients improve renal function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
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      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A husband visits the clinic with his wife because he wants to be...

    Incorrect

    • A husband visits the clinic with his wife because he wants to be screened for cystic fibrosis. His brother and wife had a child with cystic fibrosis so he is concerned. His wife is currently 10 weeks pregnant. When screened, he was found to be a carrier of the DF508 mutation for cystic fibrosis but despite this result, the wife declines testing. What are the chances that she will have a child with cystic fibrosis, given that the gene frequency for this mutation in the general population is 1/20?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Jan-80

      Explanation:

      The chance of two carriers of a recessive gene having a child that is homozygous for that disease (that is both genes are transmitted to the child) is 25%. Therefore, the chances of this couple having a child with CF are 25%(1/4) x 1/20 = 1/80.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      0
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  • Question 13 - A 34-year-old lady presented with complaints of generalised body ache, arthritis, dryness of...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old lady presented with complaints of generalised body ache, arthritis, dryness of eyes and mouth. The most likely diagnosis would be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primary Sjögren's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Sjogren syndrome is characterised by keratoconjunctivitis sicca, dry mouth and generalised body aches. It is one of the connective tissue diseases and has positive auto Ro and La antibodies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - An elderly woman is referred with worsening chronic pulmonary disease (COPD). She smokes...

    Incorrect

    • An elderly woman is referred with worsening chronic pulmonary disease (COPD). She smokes seven cigarettes per day. Her exercise tolerance is only a few yards around the house now. Her FEV1 is 37% of predicted.

      What is the most appropriate intervention for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give regular high-dose inhaled fluticasone and inhaled long-acting β-agonist

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 48-year-old male presents to the clinic complaining of a swelling in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old male presents to the clinic complaining of a swelling in his left groin that disappears on lying down. He also reports occasional haematuria and a mass in his left loin. On examination, the swelling is bluish in colour and has an appearance and consistency like that of a 'bag of worms'. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left sided renal cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Renal cell carcinoma (RCC) may remain clinically occult for most of its course. The classic triad of flank pain, haematuria, and flank mass is uncommon (10%) and is indicative of advanced disease. A varicocele, usually left sided, is due to obstruction of the testicular vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Men's Health
      0
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  • Question 16 - All of the following are true regarding carcinoid syndrome, except? ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following are true regarding carcinoid syndrome, except?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pharmacological blockade is clinically useful in only 10% of patients

      Explanation:

      For medical management of carcinoid syndrome, there are two somatostatin analogues available, Octreotide and Lanreotide. Somatostatin is an amino acid peptide which is an inhibitory hormone, which is synthesized by paracrine cells located ubiquitously throughout the gastrointestinal tract. Both somatostatin analogues provide symptom relief in 50% to 70% of patients and biochemical response in 40% to 60% patients. Many studies have shown that Octreotide and Lanreotide also inhibit the proliferation of tumour cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      0
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  • Question 17 - A 22-year-old male presents with loose stools and abdominal pain that is vague...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old male presents with loose stools and abdominal pain that is vague in nature. He previously had an episode of lower abdominal pain that was associated with pyrexia which settled on its own. He has also experienced mild weight loss recently. On examination, he is pale and has an ill defined mass in the right iliac fossa. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Crohn's disease

      Explanation:

      Crohn’s Disease (CD) is an inflammatory bowel disease, the pathogenesis of which is not fully understood. The clinical presentation of CD may be similar to ulcerative colitis (UC), the other most common inflammatory bowel disease. CD mostly affects young adults and adolescents between the ages of 15 and 35. It is typically located in the terminal ileum, but can discontinuously affect the entire gastrointestinal tract and commonly leads to complications such as fistulas, abscesses, and stenosis. Clinical features include diarrhoea, weight loss, and abdominal pain in the right lower quadrant (RLQ), as well as extraintestinal manifestations in the eyes, joints, or skin. It is often difficult to diagnose because there is no confirmatory test. Diagnosis is therefore based on the patient’s medical history, physical examination, lab tests, imaging (e.g., MRI), endoscopy, and serological testing. Acute episodes are treated with corticosteroids, and in severe cases, immunosuppressants may be indicated. Antibiotics and surgical intervention may be needed to help treat complications. Because the entire gastrointestinal tract may be affected, Crohn disease cannot be cured (in contrast to ulcerative colitis). The goal of treatment is thus to avoid the progression and recurrence of inflammatory episodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 32-year-old female who is 37 weeks pregnant presents with a swollen, painful...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female who is 37 weeks pregnant presents with a swollen, painful right calf. A deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is confirmed on Doppler scan.

      What should be the preferred anticoagulant?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subcutaneous low molecular weight heparin (LMWH)

      Explanation:

      Subcutaneous (S/C) low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) is a preferred anticoagulant in pregnancy. Warfarin is contraindicated due to its teratogenic effects, especially in the first trimester and at term.

      Pregnancy is a hypercoagulable state with the majority of VTE incidents occurring in the last trimester.

      Hypercoagulability in pregnancy is caused by:
      1. Increase in factors VII, VIII, X, and fibrinogen
      2. Decrease in protein S
      3. Uterus pressing on IVC causing venous stasis in legs

      Management options include:
      1. S/C LMWH preferred to IV heparin (less bleeding and thrombocytopaenia)
      2. Warfarin contraindicated

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 27-year-old patient presents to the OPD with a history of longstanding constipation,...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old patient presents to the OPD with a history of longstanding constipation, blood on the side of stool and extremely painful defecation. Digital rectal examination also results in pain. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anal fissure

      Explanation:

      An anal fissure is a longitudinal tear of the perianal skin distal to the dentate line, often due to increased anal sphincter tone. Anal fissures are classified according to aetiology (e.g., trauma or underlying disease) or duration of disease (e.g., acute or chronic). They are typically very painful and may present with bright red blood per rectum (haematochezia). Anal fissures are a clinical diagnosis based on history and examination findings. Management is primarily conservative, and includes stool softeners, analgesia, and possible local muscle relaxation; because of the risk of incontinence, surgical intervention is a last resort.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which one of the following is a recognised cause of hypokalaemia associated with...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is a recognised cause of hypokalaemia associated with hypertension:


      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Liddle's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Liddle’s Syndrome is an autosomal dominant disorder that presents with hypertension usually in young patients, that do not respond to anti-hypertensive therapy and is later associated with hypokalaemia, low renin plasma, and low aldosterone levels as well. The other conditions listed do not present with hypertension and associated hypokalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      0
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Haematology & Oncology (0/1) 0%
Endocrine System & Metabolism (1/1) 100%
Gastrointestinal System (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal System (0/1) 0%
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