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  • Question 1 - Which coronary artery is mostly likely affected if an ECG shows ST segment...

    Correct

    • Which coronary artery is mostly likely affected if an ECG shows ST segment elevation in leads II, III and aVF, and ST segment depression in V1-V3?

      Your Answer: Right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      A posterior wall MI occurs when posterior myocardial tissue (now termed inferobasilar), usually supplied by the posterior descending artery — a branch of the right coronary artery in 80% of individuals — acutely loses blood supply due to intracoronary thrombosis in that vessel. This frequently coincides with an inferior wall MI due to the shared blood supply.

      The ECG findings of an acute posterior wall MI include the following:

      1. ST segment depression (not elevation) in the septal and anterior precordial leads (V1-V4). This occurs because these ECG leads will see the MI backwards; the leads are placed anteriorly, but the myocardial injury is posterior.
      2. A R/S wave ratio greater than 1 in leads V1 or V2.
      3. ST elevation in the posterior leads of a posterior ECG (leads V7-V9). Suspicion for a posterior MI must remain high, especially if inferior ST segment elevation is also present.
      4. ST segment elevation in the inferior leads (II, III and aVF) if an inferior MI is also present.

      The following ECG leads determine the location and vessels involved in myocardial infarction:

      ECG Leads Location Vessel involved
      V1-V2 Septal wall Left anterior descending
      V3-V4 Anterior wall Left anterior descending
      V5-V6 Lateral wall Left circumflex artery
      II, III, aVF Inferior wall Right coronary artery (80%) or Left circumflex artery (20%)
      I, aVL High lateral wall Left circumflex artery
      V1, V4R Right ventricle Right coronary artery
      V7-V9 Posterior wall Right coronary artery

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      47.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 12-year old boy is taken to the emergency room after accidentally falling...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year old boy is taken to the emergency room after accidentally falling off the monkey bars. Witnesses of the accident reported that, when the patient fell, he hit his right hand on a bar and a loud thump was heard. On examination, the hand is oedematous, tender and erythematous. On ultrasound, a rupture of the flexor carpi ulnaris is noted.

      Which of the following statements is true regarding the flexor carpi ulnaris?

      Your Answer: It receives its blood supply from the radial artery

      Correct Answer: It acts to adduct the hand at the wrist joint

      Explanation:

      Flexor carpi ulnaris is a fusiform muscle located in the anterior compartment of the forearm. It belongs to the superficial flexors of the forearm, along with pronator teres, palmaris longus, flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor carpi radialis. Flexor carpi ulnaris is the most medial of the superficial flexors.

      Innervation of the flexor carpi ulnaris muscle is from the brachial plexus via the ulnar nerve (C7-T1).

      Flexor carpi ulnaris receives its arterial blood supply via three different routes. Proximally, a branch of the posterior ulnar recurrent artery supplies the muscle as it passes between the humeral and ulnar heads. Branches of the ulnar artery supply the middle and distal parts of the muscle, with an accessory supply also present distally via the inferior ulnar collateral artery.

      Due to its position and direction in the forearm, flexor carpi ulnaris can move the hand sideways as well as flexing it. Contracting with flexor carpi radialis and palmaris longus, flexor carpi ulnaris produces flexion of the hand at the wrist joint. However, when it contracts alongside the extensor carpi ulnaris muscle in the posterior compartment, their counteracting forces produce adduction of the hand at the wrist, otherwise known as ulnar deviation or ulnar flexion

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      73.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The role of the juxtaglomerular (granular) cells of the juxtaglomerular apparatus is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The role of the juxtaglomerular (granular) cells of the juxtaglomerular apparatus is:

      Your Answer: Contraction of arteriole smooth muscle

      Correct Answer: Production of renin

      Explanation:

      Juxtaglomerular cells synthesise renin. These cells are specialised smooth muscle cells that are located in the walls of the afferent arterioles, and there are some in the efferent arterioles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      3270.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Regarding codeine, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding codeine, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: There is a reduced risk of toxicity in patients who are ultra-rapid metabolisers of codeine.

      Explanation:

      Codeine phosphate is a weak opioid and can be used for the relief of mild to moderate pain where other painkillers such as paracetamol or ibuprofen have proved ineffective.Codeine is metabolised to morphine which is responsible for its therapeutic effects. Codeine 240 mg is approximately equivalent to 30 mg of morphine. The capacity to metabolise codeine can vary considerably between individuals; there is a marked increase in morphine toxicity in people who are ultra rapid metabolisers, and reduced therapeutic effect in poor codeine metabolisers. Codeine is contraindicated in patients of any age who are known to be ultra-rapid metabolisers of codeine (CYP2D6 ultra-rapid metabolisers).Codeine is also contraindicated in children under 12, and in children of any age who undergo the removal of tonsils or adenoids for the treatment of obstructive sleep apnoea due to reports of morphine toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A thyroid function test is done for a 55-year-old woman with non-specific symptoms,...

    Incorrect

    • A thyroid function test is done for a 55-year-old woman with non-specific symptoms, the results are shown below:
      TSH = 5.2
      Free T4 is normal
      Free T3 is normal

      The most likely diagnosis in this patient is?

      Your Answer: No significant abnormality detected

      Correct Answer: Subclinical hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Hypothyroidism is diagnosed using the results of thyroid function tests (TFTs).

      In the early stages of the disease, the earliest biochemical change noticed is a rise in thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels. Free triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4) levels are usually normal.

      In primary hypothyroidism, the serum TSH level is usually greater than 10 mU/L, and free T4 levels are below the reference range.

      Subclinical hypothyroidism is diagnosed when the serum TSH level is above the reference range, and the free T4 levels are within the reference range. The test should, however, be repeated after 3-6 months to exclude transient causes of raised TSH.

      In summary, how to interpret TFTs in cases of suspected hypothyroidism is shown below:

      Subclinical hypothyroidism
      TSH is raised
      Free T4 is normal
      Free T3 is normal

      Primary hypothyroidism
      TSH is raised
      Free T4 is lowered
      Free T3 is lowered or normal

      Secondary hypothyroidism
      TSH is lowered or normal
      Free T4 is lowered
      Free T3 is lowered or normal

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      62.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Regarding dynamic compression of the airways, which of the following statements is CORRECT:...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding dynamic compression of the airways, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: It is brought about by reflex activation of parasympathetic nerves.

      Correct Answer: It occurs during forced expiration.

      Explanation:

      Dynamic compression occurs because as the expiratory muscles contract during forced expiration, all the structures within the lungs, including the airways, are compressed by the positive intrapleural pressure. Consequently the smaller airways collapse before the alveoli empty completely and some air remains within the lungs (the residual volume). Physiologically this is important as a completely deflated lung with collapsed alveoli requires significantly more energy to inflate. Dynamic compression does not occur in normal expiration because the intrapleural pressure is negative throughout the whole cycle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      106.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which statement concerning aerosol transmission is true? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement concerning aerosol transmission is true?

      Your Answer: They can be spread via ventilation systems in hospitals

      Explanation:

      Aerosols are airborne particles less than 5 µm in size containing infective organisms.

      They usually cause infection of both the upper and/or lower respiratory tract.

      The organisms can remain suspended in the air for long periods and also survive outside the body.

      They can be transmitted through the ventilation systems and can spread over great distances.

      Some examples of organisms transmitted by the aerosol route include: Varicella zoster virus, Mycobacterium tuberculosis and measles virus

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles Of Microbiology
      194.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 25 year old man presents to the emergency room with abdominal pain,...

    Correct

    • A 25 year old man presents to the emergency room with abdominal pain, vomiting and constipation. A CT scan is done which is suggestive of Meckel's diverticulum. Where does the blood supply of the Meckel's diverticulum originate?

      Your Answer: Superior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      Meckel’s diverticulum has certain classic characteristics.
      1. It lies on the antimesenteric border of the middle-to-distal ileum
      2. It is approximately 2 feet proximal to the ileocaecal junction
      3. It appears as a blind-ended tubular outpouching of bowel
      4. It is about 2 inches long,
      5. It occurs in about 2% of the population,
      6. It may contain two types of ectopic tissue (gastric and pancreatic).
      7. The diverticulum is supplied by the superior mesenteric artery.
      8. Proximal to the major duodenal papilla the duodenum is supplied by the gastroduodenal artery (branch of the coeliac trunk)
      9. Distal to the major duodenal papilla it is supplied by the inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery (branch of superior mesenteric artery).
      10. The arterial supply to the jejunoileum is from the superior mesenteric artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      34.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - You are reviewing a patient complaining of loss of vision. Previous images shows...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing a patient complaining of loss of vision. Previous images shows a lesion at the optic chiasm. What type of visual field defect are you most likely to see in a lesion at the optic chiasm:

      Your Answer: Homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing

      Correct Answer: Bitemporal hemianopia

      Explanation:

      A lesion at the optic chiasm will result in a bitemporal hemianopia.
      A lesion of the optic nerve will result in ipsilateral monocular visual loss.
      A lesion of the optic tract will result in a contralateral homonymous hemianopia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      24.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following is NOT one of insulin's actions: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT one of insulin's actions:

      Your Answer: Increased lipogenesis

      Correct Answer: Increased gluconeogenesis

      Explanation:

      Insulin has a number of effects on glucose metabolism, including:
      Inhibition of glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis
      Increased glucose transport into fat and muscle
      Increased glycolysis in fat and muscle
      Stimulation of glycogen synthesis
      By inhibiting gluconeogenesis, insulin maintains the availability of amino acids as substrates for protein synthesis. Thus, insulin supports protein synthesis through direct and indirect mechanisms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pharmacology
      37.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following laboratory findings are indicative of von Willebrand disease (VWD):...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following laboratory findings are indicative of von Willebrand disease (VWD):

      Your Answer: Prolonged PT

      Correct Answer: Prolonged APTT

      Explanation:

      Laboratory results often show that:
      PFA-100 test results are abnormal.
      Low levels of factor VIII (if a factor VIII/VWF binding assay is conducted)
      APTT is Prolonged (or normal)
      PT is normal
      VWF values are low.
      Defective Platelet aggregation
      The platelet count is normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Swelling of the lips, tongue, and face is observed in a 59-year-old African-American...

    Incorrect

    • Swelling of the lips, tongue, and face is observed in a 59-year-old African-American woman. In the emergency room, she is given intramuscular adrenaline, but her symptoms do not improve. Her GP recently started her on a new medication.

      Which of the following drugs is most likely to have caused her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Furosemide

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are the most common cause of drug-induced angioedema in the United Kingdom and the United States, owing to their widespread use.

      Angioedema is caused by ACE inhibitors in 0.1 to 0.7 percent of patients, with data indicating a persistent and relatively constant risk year after year. People of African descent have a five-fold higher chance of contracting the disease.

      Swelling of the lips, tongue, or face is the most common symptom, but another symptom is episodic abdominal pain due to intestinal angioedema. Itching and urticaria are noticeably absent.

      The mechanism appears to be activated complement or other pro-inflammatory cytokines like prostaglandins and histamine, which cause rapid vasodilation and oedema.

      Other medications that are less frequently linked to angioedema include:
      Angiotensin-receptor blockers (ARBs)
      Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
      Bupropion (e.g. Zyban and Wellbutrin)
      Beta-lactam antibiotics
      Statins
      Proton pump inhibitors

      The majority of these reactions are minor and can be treated by stopping the drug and prescribing antihistamines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Regarding antihistamines, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding antihistamines, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Antihistamines are used as the first line treatment in anaphylaxis.

      Correct Answer: Elderly patients and children are more susceptible to side effects.

      Explanation:

      Elderly patients and children are more susceptible to side effects. Antihistamines are competitive inhibitors at the H1-receptor. The newer antihistamines e.g. cetirizine cause less sedation and psychomotor impairment than the older antihistamines because they are much less lipid soluble and penetrate the blood brain barrier only to a slight extent. Antihistamines are used as a second line adjunct to adrenaline in anaphylaxis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following statements is INCORRECT. Fick's law tells us that the...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is INCORRECT. Fick's law tells us that the rate of diffusion of a gas across a membrane increases as:

      Your Answer: the partial pressure gradient decreases.

      Explanation:

      Fick’s law tells us that the rate of diffusion of a gas increases:
      the larger the surface area involved in gas exchange
      the greater the partial pressure gradient across the membrane
      the thinner the membrane
      the more soluble the gas in the membrane
      the lower the molecular weight of the gas

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      48.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - When a child has chickenpox, how long should he or she be off...

    Incorrect

    • When a child has chickenpox, how long should he or she be off from school?

      Your Answer: 48 hours after starting treatment

      Correct Answer: Until all vesicles have crusted over

      Explanation:

      To avoid the spread of infection, infected patients should be isolated. All lesions should be crusted over before children return to nursery or school, even if the standard exclusion time is 5 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      28
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What type of pump is the Na+/K+ATPase pump? ...

    Incorrect

    • What type of pump is the Na+/K+ATPase pump?

      Your Answer: A symporter

      Correct Answer: An antiporter

      Explanation:

      In order for primary active transport to pump ions against their electrochemical gradient, chemical energy is used in the form of ATP. This is facilitated by the Na+/K+-ATPase antiporter pump, which uses metabolic energy to move 3 Na+ions out of the cell for every 2 K+ions that come in, against their respective electrochemical gradients. As a result, the cell the maintains a high intracellular concentration of K+ions and a low concentration of Na+ions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      99.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A patient has an elevated potassium level of 6.7 mmol/L. All of the...

    Incorrect

    • A patient has an elevated potassium level of 6.7 mmol/L. All of the following conditions may cause elevated potassium levels, except for which one?

      Your Answer: Rhabdomyolysis

      Correct Answer: Bartter’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Bartter’s syndrome is an autosomal recessive renal tubular disorder characterized by hypokalaemia, hypochloraemia, metabolic alkalosis, and hyperreninemia with normal blood pressure. The underlying kidney abnormality results in excessive urinary losses of sodium, chloride, and potassium.

      Bartter’s syndrome does not cause an elevated potassium level, but instead causes a decrease in its concentration (hypokalaemia). The other choices are causes of hyperkalaemia or elevated potassium levels.

      Renal failure, Addison’s disease (adrenal insufficiency), congenital adrenal hyperplasia, renal tubular acidosis (type 4), rhabdomyolysis, burns and trauma, tumour syndrome, and acidosis are non-drug causes of hyperkalaemia. On the other hand, drugs that can cause hyperkalaemia include ACE inhibitors, angiotensin receptor blockers, NSAIDs, beta-blockers, digoxin, and suxamethonium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      103.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 40-year-old man with episodes of blood in urine and flank pain that...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man with episodes of blood in urine and flank pain that are recurrent presents for management. He has a history of hypertension that is difficult to control and recurrent urinary tract infections. Other findings are: bilateral masses in his flanks and haematuria (3+ on dipstick).

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Alport syndrome

      Correct Answer: Polycystic kidney disease

      Explanation:

      Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) presents with abdominal or loin discomfort due to the increasing size of the kidneys, acute loin pain with or without haematuria, hypertension, and male infertility. It is the most common cause of serious renal disease and the most common inherited cause of renal failure in adults.

      Alport syndrome has hearing loss and eye abnormalities in addition to symptoms of kidney disease.

      Renal cell carcinoma presents with additional features of unexplained weight loss, loss of appetite, fever of unknown origin and anaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - All of the statements regarding vascular tone are correct except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the statements regarding vascular tone are correct except:

      Your Answer: Most types of vascular smooth muscle do not generate action potentials, but instead depolarisation is graded, allowing graded entry of Ca2+.

      Correct Answer: Most endogenous vasodilators act by decreasing levels of cAMP or cGMP.

      Explanation:

      Most vasoconstrictors bind to G-protein coupled receptors. These mediate elevation in intracellular [Ca2+] which leads to vascular smooth muscle contraction. Important vasoconstrictors include noradrenaline, endothelin-1 and angiotensin II.

      Increased intracellular Ca2+ is as a result of the release of Ca2+from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and depolarisation and entry of Ca2+via L-type voltage-gated Ca2+channels. Most types of vascular smooth muscle do not generate action potentials – instead, the depolarisation is graded, which allows graded entry of Ca2+.
      sequestration by the sarcoplasmic reticulum Ca2+ATPase, removal from the cell by a plasma membrane Ca2+ATPase and Na+/Ca2+exchange decreases intracellular Ca2+, resulting in vasodilation. Relaxation is a result of most endogenous vasodilators when there is an increase in cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP) like nitric oxide) or cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) like prostacyclin and beta-adrenergic receptor agonists. These activate protein kinases causing substrate level phosphorylation.
      Clinically effective vasodilators are L-type Ca2+channel blocker drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      22.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - An ambulance transports a 40-year-old man to the hospital. He ingested a significant...

    Correct

    • An ambulance transports a 40-year-old man to the hospital. He ingested a significant amount of aspirin.

      In the early stages of an aspirin overdose, which form of acid-base problem should you anticipate?

      Your Answer: Respiratory alkalosis

      Explanation:

      When you take too much aspirin, you have a mix of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. Respiratory centre stimulation produces hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis in the early phases. The direct acid actions of aspirin tend to create a higher anion gap metabolic acidosis in the latter phases.
      Below summarizes some of the most common reasons of acid-base abnormalities:

      Respiratory alkalosis:
      – Hyperventilation (e.g. anxiety, pain, fever)
      – Pulmonary embolism
      – Pneumothorax
      – CNS disorders (e.g. CVA, SAH, encephalitis)
      – High altitude
      – Pregnancy
      – Early stages of aspirin overdose

      Respiratory acidosis:
      – COPD
      – Life-threatening asthma
      – Pulmonary oedema
      – Respiratory depression (e.g. opiates, benzodiazepines)
      – Neuromuscular disease (e.g. Guillain-BarrĂ© syndrome, muscular dystrophy
      – Incorrect ventilator settings (hypoventilation)
      – Obesity

      Metabolic alkalosis:
      – Vomiting
      – Cardiac arrest
      – Multi-organ failure
      – Cystic fibrosis
      – Potassium depletion (e.g. diuretic usage)
      – Cushing’s syndrome
      – Conn’s syndrome

      Metabolic acidosis (with raised anion gap):
      – Lactic acidosis (e.g. hypoxaemia, shock, sepsis, infarction)
      – Ketoacidosis (e.g. diabetes, starvation, alcohol excess)
      – Renal failure
      – Poisoning (e.g. late stages of aspirin overdose, methanol, ethylene glycol)

      Metabolic acidosis (with normal anion gap):
      – Renal tubular acidosis
      – Diarrhoea
      – Ammonium chloride ingestion
      – Adrenal insufficiency

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      465.9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Regarding the heart sounds in the cardiac cycle, which of the following statements...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the heart sounds in the cardiac cycle, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: Inspiration delays closure of the pulmonary valve and thus causes splitting of the second heart sound.

      Correct Answer: The third heart sound is caused by filling of an abnormally stiff ventricle in atrial systole.

      Explanation:

      Heart Sound – Phase of Cardiac Cycle – Mechanical Event:
      First heart sound – Start of systole – Caused by closure of the atrioventricular (mitral & tricuspid) valves
      Second heart sound – End of systole – Caused by closure of the semilunar (aortic and pulmonary) valves
      Third heart sound – Early diastole – Caused by rapid flow of blood from the atria into the ventricles during the ventricular filling phase
      Fourth heart sound – Late diastole – Caused by filling of an abnormally stiff ventricle in atrial systole

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      56.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 7-year-old boy is brought to the emergency room with complaints of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy is brought to the emergency room with complaints of a red and painful left eye. Upon physical examination, it was noted that there is the presence of conjunctival erythema. A mucopurulent discharge and crusting of the lid was also evident. A diagnosis of bacterial conjunctivitis was made.

      According to the latest NICE guidelines, which of the following should NOT be a part of the management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Inform the mother that infective conjunctivitis is contagious

      Correct Answer: Topical antibiotics should be prescribed routinely

      Explanation:

      The following are the NICE guidelines on the management of bacterial conjunctivitis:
      – Infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting illness that usually settles without treatment within 1-2 weeks. If symptoms persist for longer than two weeks they should return for review.
      – Seek medical attention urgently if marked eye pain or photophobia, loss of visual acuity, or marked redness of the eye develop.
      – Remove contact lenses, if worn, until all symptoms and signs of infection have completely resolved and any treatment has been completed for 24 hours.
      – Lubricant eye drops may reduce eye discomfort; these are available over the counter, as well as on prescription.
      – Clean away infected secretions from eyelids and lashes with cotton wool soaked in water.
      – Wash hands regularly, particularly after touching the eyes.
      – Avoid sharing pillows and towels.
      – It is not necessary to exclude a child from school or childcare if they have infective conjunctivitis, as mild infectious illnesses should not interrupt school attendance. An exception would be if there is an outbreak of infective conjunctivitis, when advice should be sought from the Health Protection Agency by the school.
      – Adults who work in close contact with others, or with vulnerable patients, should avoid such contact until the discharge has settled.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      45.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 43-year old male is taken to the Emergency Room for a lacerated...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year old male is taken to the Emergency Room for a lacerated wound on the abdomen, situated above the umbilicus. A short segment of the small bowel has herniated through the wound.

      Which of these anatomic structures is the most superficial structure injured in the case above?

      Your Answer: Scarpa’s fascia

      Correct Answer: Camper’s fascia

      Explanation:

      The following structures are the layers of the anterior abdominal wall from the most superficial to the deepest layer:

      Skin
      Fatty layer of the superficial fascia (Camper’s fascia)
      Membranous layer of the superficial fascia (Scarpa’s fascia)
      Aponeurosis of the external and internal oblique muscles
      Rectus abdominis muscle
      Aponeurosis of the internal oblique and transversus abdominis
      Fascia transversalis
      Extraperitoneal fat
      Parietal peritoneum

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      387.6
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 70-year-old man has a resting tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia, and a shuffling gait....

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man has a resting tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia, and a shuffling gait. Parkinson's disease is caused by one of the following mechanisms:

      Your Answer: Loss of serotonergic neurons in the globus pallidus and red nucleus

      Correct Answer: Loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra

      Explanation:

      Parkinson’s disease (PD) is one of the most common neurologic disorders, affecting approximately 1% of individuals older than 60 years and causing progressive disability that can be slowed but not halted, by treatment. The 2 major neuropathologic findings in Parkinson’s disease are loss of pigmented dopaminergic neurons of the substantia nigra pars compacta and the presence of Lewy bodies and Lewy neurites. See the images below.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      108.1
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A young male has presented to you with respiratory depression and small pupils...

    Incorrect

    • A young male has presented to you with respiratory depression and small pupils on examination. You diagnose opioid overdose and immediately start therapy with Naloxone.

      Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding naloxone?

      Your Answer: It has a longer duration of action than most opioids

      Correct Answer: It can be given by a continuous infusion if repeated doses are required

      Explanation:

      Naloxone is a short-acting, specific antagonist of mu(μ)-opioid receptors. It is used to reverse the effects of opioid toxicity.

      It can be given by a continuous infusion if repeated doses are required and the infusion rate is adjusted according to the vital signs. Initially, the infusion rate can be set at 60% of the initial resuscitative IV dose per hour.

      Naloxone has a shorter duration of action (6-24 hours) than most opioids and so close monitoring according to the respiratory rate and depth of coma and repeated injections are necessary. When repeated doses are needed in opioid addicts, naloxone administration may precipitate a withdrawal syndrome with abdominal cramps, nausea and diarrhoea, but these usually settle within 2 hours.

      An initial dose of 0.4 to 2 mg can be given intravenously and can be repeated at 2 to 3-minute intervals to a maximum of 10mg.

      If the intravenous route is inaccessible, naloxone can be administered via an IO line, subcutaneously (SQ), IM, or via the intranasal (IN) route.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • CNS Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      83.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - An very unwell patient is receiving treatment in your hospital's HDU and is...

    Incorrect

    • An very unwell patient is receiving treatment in your hospital's HDU and is found to have an Escherichia coli O157 infection.

      Which one of these statements about Escherichia coli O157 is true?

      Your Answer: Infections are more common in winter

      Correct Answer: Haemolytic uraemic syndrome develops in approximately 6% of patients

      Explanation:

      Escherichia coli O157 is a serotype of Escherichia coli.
      The Escherichia coliO157 strain is ‘enterohaemorrhagic’ and causes severe forms of acute haemorrhagic diarrhoea. It can also cause non-haemorrhagic diarrhoea.

      Incubation period of Escherichia coli O157 is usually 3-4 days and bloody diarrhoea usually begins on the 3rd or 4th day of the infection.

      Infections with Escherichia coliO157 are more common during the warmer months than in winter.

      Haemolytic uraemic syndrome develops in approximately 6% of patients. It is commonly seen in children and in the elderly.

      Escherichia coli O157 can also cause:
      Haemorrhagic colitis
      Haemolytic uraemic syndrome
      Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura but not immune thrombocytopenic purpura.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      34.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 69-year-old man presents with a painful groin swelling on the right side....

    Incorrect

    • A 69-year-old man presents with a painful groin swelling on the right side. The suspected diagnosis is an inguinal hernia.

      Which of the following examination features make it more likely to be an indirect inguinal hernia?

      Your Answer: The hernia appears ‘round’ in shape

      Correct Answer: It can be controlled by pressure over the deep inguinal ring

      Explanation:

      The reduced indirect inguinal hernia can be controlled by pressure over the internal ring; a direct inguinal hernia cannot.

      An indirect inguinal hernia can be reduced superiorly then superolaterally, while a direct inguinal hernia can be reduced superiorly then posteriorly.

      An indirect inguinal hernia takes time to reach full size, but a direct inguinal hernia appears immediately upon standing.

      Indirect inguinal hernias are seen as elliptical swelling, while direct inguinal hernias appear as symmetric, circular swelling.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      160.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Regarding tapeworm, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding tapeworm, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diagnosis is by direct visualisation of characteristic eggs in the stool.

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of tapeworm is by direct visualisation of characteristic eggs in stool. Humans may be infected by pork or beef tapeworm. Treatment is with praziquantel or niclosamide. Specialist advice should be sought for the management of neurocysticercosis.Iron-deficiency anaemia is typically seen in hookworm infection. Threadworms migrate from the intestine at night to lay eggs on the perianal skin. Mebendazole is first line treatment for threadworms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 54-year-old woman has been visiting her GP with symptoms of tiredness, muscle...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman has been visiting her GP with symptoms of tiredness, muscle weakness and headaches. She is known to be hypertensive and takes amlodipine to control this. Her blood results today show that her potassium level is low at 3.0 mmol/L, and her sodium level is slightly elevated at 146 mmol/L.
      Which of the following is the SINGLE most appropriate INITIAL investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Plasma renin and aldosterone levels

      Explanation:

      Primary hyperaldosteronism occurs when there are excessive levels of aldosterone independent of the renin-angiotensin axis. Secondary hyperaldosteronism occurs due to high renin levels.
      The causes of primary hyperaldosteronism include:
      Adrenal adenoma (Conn’s syndrome) – the most common cause of hyperaldosteronism (,80% of all cases). These are usually unilateral and solitary and are more common in women.
      Adrenal hyperplasia – this accounts for ,15% of all cases. Usually, bilateral adrenal hyperplasia (BAH) but can be unilateral rarely. More common in men than women.
      Adrenal cancer – a rare diagnosis but essential not to miss
      Familial aldosteronism – a rare group of inherited conditions affecting the adrenal glands
      The causes of secondary hyperaldosteronism include:
      Drugs – diuretics
      Obstructive renal artery disease – renal artery stenosis and atheroma
      Renal vasoconstriction – occurs in accelerated hypertension
      Oedematous disorders – heart failure, cirrhosis and nephrotic syndrome
      Patients are often asymptomatic. When clinical features are present, the classically described presentation of hyperaldosteronism is with:
      Hypertension
      Hypokalaemia
      Metabolic alkalosis
      Sodium levels can be normal or slightly raised
      Other, less common, clinical features include:
      Lethargy
      Headaches
      Muscle weakness (from persistent hypokalaemia)
      Polyuria and polydipsia
      Intermittent paraesthesia
      Tetany and paralysis (rare)
      Often the earliest sign of hyperaldosteronism is from aberrant urea and electrolytes showing hypokalaemia and mild hypernatraemia. If the patient is taking diuretics, and the diagnosis is suspected, these should be repeated after the patient has taken off diuretics.
      If the diagnosis is suspected, plasma renin and aldosterone levels should be checked. Low renin and high aldosterone levels (with a raised aldosterone: renin ratio) is suggestive of primary aldosteronism.
      If the renin: aldosterone ratio is high, then the effect of posture on renin, aldosterone and cortisol can be investigated to provide further information about the underlying cause of primary hyperaldosteronism. Levels should be measured lying at 9 am and standing at noon:
      If aldosterone and cortisol levels fall on standing, this is suggestive of an ACTH dependent cause, e.g. adrenal adenoma (Conn’s syndrome)
      If aldosterone levels rise and cortisol levels fall on standing, this is suggestive of an angiotensin-II dependent cause, e.g. BAH
      Other investigations that can help to distinguish between an adrenal adenoma and adrenal hyperplasia include:
      CT scan
      MRI scan
      Selective adrenal venous sampling

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - You're evaluating a male patient who's having a lung function test done. In...

    Incorrect

    • You're evaluating a male patient who's having a lung function test done. In calculating the patient’s functional residual capacity, what parameters should you add to derive the functional residual capacity volume?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Expiratory reserve volume + residual volume

      Explanation:

      The volume of air that remains in the lungs after a single breath is known as functional residual capacity (FRC). It is calculated by combining the expiratory reserve volume and residual volume.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory Physiology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (4/7) 57%
Thorax (1/1) 100%
Upper Limb (0/1) 0%
Physiology (2/9) 22%
Renal (0/1) 0%
Central Nervous System (2/3) 67%
Pharmacology (4/5) 80%
Endocrine Physiology (1/2) 50%
Respiratory (1/2) 50%
Microbiology (4/5) 80%
Principles Of Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Abdomen (1/1) 100%
Endocrine (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Pathogens (1/2) 50%
Basic Cellular (0/1) 0%
Renal Physiology (1/2) 50%
General Pathology (1/1) 100%
Pathology (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (0/2) 0%
Specific Pathogen Groups (2/2) 100%
Abdomen And Pelvis (1/2) 50%
CNS Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Passmed