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  • Question 1 - When administered as an infusion, which of the following medicines causes a reflex...

    Incorrect

    • When administered as an infusion, which of the following medicines causes a reflex tachycardia?

      Your Answer: Tizanidine

      Correct Answer: Phentolamine

      Explanation:

      The ?-2 adrenoceptor has three subtypes (2a, 2b and 2c). The receptors are generally presynaptic, meaning they prevent noradrenaline from being released at nerve endings. Both the central and peripheral nerve systems are affected by the ?-2 agonists. ?-2 agonists cause drowsiness, analgesia, and euphoria centrally in the locus coeruleus (in the brainstem), lower the MAC of volatile anaesthetic drugs, and are used to treat acute withdrawal symptoms in chronic opioid addicts.

      The most common impact of ?-2 agonists on heart rate is bradycardia. The adrenoreceptors ?-1 and ?-2 are blocked by phenoxybenzamine.

      Clonidine is a selective agonist for the ? -2 receptor, having a 200:1 affinity ratio for the ?-2: ?-1 receptors, respectively.

      Tizanidine is similar to clonidine but has a few key variances. It has the same sedative, anxiolytic, and analgesic characteristics as clonidine, although for a shorter period of time and with less effect on heart rate and blood pressure.

      Dexmedetomidine, like clonidine, is a highly selective ?-2 adrenoreceptor agonist having a higher affinity for the ?-2 receptor. In the case of ?-2: ?-1 receptors, the affinity ratio is 1620:1. It has a biphasic blood pressure impact and induces a brief rise in blood pressure and reflex bradycardia (activation of ?-2b subtypes of receptors in vascular smooth muscles), followed by a reduction in sympathetic outflow from the brainstem and hypotension/bradycardia.

      A prodrug is methyldopa. It blocks the enzyme dopa-decarboxylase, which converts L-dopa to dopamine (a precursor of noradrenaline and adrenaline). It is also converted to alpha-methyl noradrenaline, a centrally active agonist of the ?-2 adrenoreceptor. These two processes contribute to its blood pressure-lowering effect. Without a rise in heart rate, cardiac output is generally maintained. The heart rate of certain patients is slowed.

      Phentolamine is a short-acting antagonist of peripheral ?-1 and ?-2 receptors that causes peripheral vascular resistance to reduce and vasodilation to increase. It’s used to treat hypertensive situations that aren’t life threatening (e.g. hypertension from phaeochromocytoma).

      A baroreceptor reflex commonly causes reflex tachycardia when systemic vascular resistance drops.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      1.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - An acidic drug with a pKA of 4.3 is injected intravenously into a...

    Correct

    • An acidic drug with a pKA of 4.3 is injected intravenously into a patient.

      At a normal physiological pH, the approximate ratio of ionised to unionised forms of this drug in the plasma is?

      Your Answer: 1000:01:00

      Explanation:

      The pH at which the drug exists in 50 percent ionised and 50 percent unionised forms is known as the pKa.

      To calculate the proportion of ionised to unionised form of an ACID, use the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation.

      pH = pKa + log ([A-]/[HA])

      or

      pH = pKa + log [(salt)/(acid)]
      pH = pKa + log ([ionised]/[unionised]).

      Hence, if the pKa − pH = 0, then 50% of drug is ionised and 50% is unionised.

      In this example:

      7.4 = 4.3 + log ([ionised]/[unionised])
      7.4 − 4.3 = log ([ionised]/[unionised])
      log 3.1 = log ([ionised]/[unionised])

      Simply put, the antilog is the inverse log calculation. In other words, if you know the logarithm of a number, you can use the antilog to find the value of the number. The antilogarithm’s definition is as follows:

      y = antilog x = 10x

      Antilog to the base 10 of 0 = 1, 1 = 10, 2 =100, 3 = 1000, and 4 = 10,000.

      If you want to find the antilogarithm of 3.1, for a number between 3 and 4, the antilogarithm will return a value between 1000 and 10,000. The ratio is 1:1 if pKa = pH, that is, pH pKa = log 0. (50 percent ionised and unionised).

      According to the above value, there is only one unionised molecule for every approximately 1000 (1259) ionised molecules of this drug in plasma, implying that this drug is largely ionised in plasma (99.99 percent ).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 89-year old male has hypertension, with a blood pressure of 170/68 mmHg...

    Incorrect

    • A 89-year old male has hypertension, with a blood pressure of 170/68 mmHg and has been admitted to the hospital. He is on no regular medications. His large pulse pressure can be accounted for by which of the following?

      Your Answer: Reduced left ventricular ejection fraction

      Correct Answer: Reduced aortic compliance

      Explanation:

      Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate

      Left ventricular ejection fraction = (stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume ) x 100%

      Stroke volume = end diastolic LV volume – end systolic LV volume

      Pulse pressure = Systolic Pressure – Diastolic Pressure

      Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output
      Factors that increase pulse pressure include:
      -a less compliant aorta (this tends to occur with advancing age)
      -increased stroke volume

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Using a negative feedback loop, Haem production is controlled by which of these...

    Correct

    • Using a negative feedback loop, Haem production is controlled by which of these enzymes?

      Your Answer: ALA synthetase

      Explanation:

      Heme a exists in cytochrome a and heme c in cytochrome c; they are both involved in the process of oxidative phosphorylation. 5′-Aminolevulinic acid synthase (ALA-S) is the regulated enzyme for heme synthesis in the liver and erythroid cells.

      There are two forms of ALA Synthase, ALAS1, and ALAS2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - An 85-year old female is being investigated and treated for pancytopenia of unknown...

    Incorrect

    • An 85-year old female is being investigated and treated for pancytopenia of unknown origin. Her most recent blood test is shown below which shows that he has a low platelet count.

      Hb-102 g/l
      WBC - 2.9* 109/l
      Platelets - 7 * 109/l

      Which of the following normally stimulates platelet production?


      Your Answer: Interleukin-4

      Correct Answer: Thrombopoietin

      Explanation:

      Interleukin-4 is a cytokine which acts to regulate the responses of B and T cells.

      Erythropoietin is responsible for the signal that initiated red blood cell production.

      Granulocyte-colony stimulating factor stimulates the bone marrow to produce granulocytes.

      Interleukin-5 is a cytokine that stimulates the proliferation and activation of eosinophils.

      Thrombopoietin is the primary signal responsible for megakaryocyte and thus platelet production.
      Platelets are also called thrombocytes. They, like red blood cells, are also derived from myeloid stem cells. The process involves a megakaryocyte developing from a common myeloid progenitor cell. A megakaryocyte is a large cell with a multilobulated nucleus, this grows to become massive where it will then break up to form platelets.

      Immune cells are generated from haematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow. They generate two main types of progenitors, myeloid and lymphoid progenitor cells, from which all immune cells are derived.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A balanced general anaesthetic including a muscle relaxant is administered at induction. It...

    Incorrect

    • A balanced general anaesthetic including a muscle relaxant is administered at induction. It is observed that the train-of-four count is two after two hours, with no further doses of the muscle relaxant.

      What is most likely reason for this?

      Your Answer: Rocuronium in renal failure

      Correct Answer: Mivacurium with plasma cholinesterase deficiency

      Explanation:

      Mivacurium is metabolised primarily by plasma cholinesterase at an In vitro rate of about 70% that of succinylcholine. Mivacurium is contraindicated in patients with genetic and acquired plasma cholinesterase deficiencies.

      The clearance of atracurium is by Hoffman degradation and ester hydrolysis in the plasma and is independent of both hepatic and renal function.

      Rocuronium is eliminated primarily by the liver after metabolises to a less active metabolite, 17-desacetyl-rocuronium. Its duration of action is not affected much by renal impairment.

      Vecuronium undergoes hepatic metabolism into 3-desacetyl-vecuronium which has 50-80% the activity of the parent drug. It undergoes biliary (40%) and renal excretion (30%). The aminoglycoside antibiotics possess additional neuromuscular blocking activity. The potency of gentamicin > streptomycin > amikacin. Calcium can be used to reverse the muscle weakness produced by gentamicin but not neostigmine. When vecuronium and gentamycin are given together the effect on neuromuscular blockade is synergistic.

      Significant residual neuromuscular block 2 hours after the administration of these drugs is unlikely In this scenario.

      Any recovery from neuromuscular blockade with suxamethonium in a patient with deficiency of plasma cholinesterase demonstrate four twitches on a train of four count.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      1.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which among the given choices can be used to describe a persistent and...

    Incorrect

    • Which among the given choices can be used to describe a persistent and expected level of disease in a particular population?

      Your Answer: Epidemic

      Correct Answer: Endemic

      Explanation:

      Phase 0 trials assist the scientists in studying the behaviour of drugs in humans by micro dosing patients. They are used to speed up the developmental process. They have no measurable therapeutic effect and efficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      141.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Regarding the treatment of bladder cancer, a study concerned with the usage of...

    Correct

    • Regarding the treatment of bladder cancer, a study concerned with the usage of a combined or monotherapy was conducted. A forest plot was used for the visual representation of the data.

      Which of the following is true regarding forest plots?

      Your Answer: Forest plots can present data from multiple studies

      Explanation:

      Being the part of a meta analysis, forest plots are more valued as evidence then randomised control trials.

      The notion that forest plots can only be used if the results are substantial is not true. They are good indicators of the significance of the data. If the diamond intersects the central line, the data is rendered significant. It also aggregates means and confidence intervals from studies conducted in the past which makes the study much more reliable as errors associated with individual studies tend to have less of an impact in this way.

      The suggestion that forest plots are primarily used for qualitative data is factually incorrect. Forest plots require numerical values to function.

      All in all, forest plots help us in determining whether or not there is a significant trend in that particular field of study.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      82.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A radical neck dissection is being performed. The ENT surgeon wishes to expose...

    Incorrect

    • A radical neck dissection is being performed. The ENT surgeon wishes to expose the external carotid artery fully. He inserts a self-retaining retractor close to the origin of the external carotid artery.

      What structure lies posterolaterally to the external carotid at this point?

      Your Answer: Facial artery

      Correct Answer: Internal carotid artery

      Explanation:

      External carotid artery originates at the upper border of the thyroid cartilage. It ascends and lies anterior to the internal carotid arteries and posterior to the posterior belly of the digastric muscle and stylohyoid muscle.

      The external carotid artery has eight important branches:
      Anterior surface:
      1. Superior thyroid artery (first branch)
      2. Lingual artery
      3. Facial artery
      Medial branch
      4. Ascending pharyngeal artery
      Posterior branches
      5. Occipital artery
      6. Posterior auricular artery
      Terminal branches
      7. Maxillary artery
      8. Superficial temporal artery

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      104.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 45-year old gentleman is in the operating room to have a knee...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year old gentleman is in the operating room to have a knee arthroscopy under general anaesthesia.

      Induction is done using fentanyl 1mcg/kg and propofol 2mg/kg. A supraglottic airway is inserted and the mixture used to maintain anaesthesia is and air oxygen mixture and 2.5% sevoflurane. Using a Bain circuit, the patient breathes spontaneously and the fresh gas flow is 9L/min. Over the next 30 minutes, the end-tidal CO2 increase from 4.5kPa to 8.4kPa, and the baseline reading on the capnograph is 0kPa.

      The most appropriate action that should follow is:

      Your Answer: Give doxapram

      Correct Answer: Observe the patient for further change

      Explanation:

      Such a high rise of end-tidal CO2 (EtCO2) in a patient who is spontaneously breathing is often encountered.

      Close observation should occur for further rises in EtCO2 and other signs of malignant hyperthermia. If this were to rise even more, it might be wise to ensure that ventilatory support is available.

      A lot would depend on whether surgery was almost completed. At this stage of anaesthesia, it would be inappropriate to administer opioid antagonists or respiratory stimulants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - An 80 year old woman is due for cataract surgery.

    There are no...

    Incorrect

    • An 80 year old woman is due for cataract surgery.

      There are no contraindications to regional anaesthesia so a peribulbar block was performed. 8mls of 2% lidocaine was injected using an infratemporal approach. However, there is still movement of the globe after 5 mins.

      The least likely extraocular muscle to develop akinesia is:

      Your Answer: Superior rectus

      Correct Answer: Superior oblique

      Explanation:

      The fibrotendinous ring formed by the congregation of the rectus muscles at the apex of the orbit does not include superior oblique. This muscle is completely outside the ring and so it is the most difficult muscle to anaesthetise completely. A good grasp of the anatomy of the area being anaesthetised is important with all regional anaesthetic techniques so that potential problems and complications with a block can be anticipated.

      The borders of this pyramid whose apex points upwards and outwards of the bony orbit are as follows:
      Floor – Zygoma and Maxilla
      Roof – frontal bone
      Medial wall – maxilla, ethmoid, sphenoid and lacrimal bones.
      Lateral wall – greater wing of the sphenoid and the zygoma.

      The four recti muscles (superior, medial, lateral and inferior) originate from a tendinous ring (the annulus of Zinn) and extend anteriorly to insert beyond the equator of the globe. Bands of connective tissue are present between the rectus muscles forming a conical structure and hinder the passage of local anaesthetic.

      The superior oblique muscle is situated outside this ring and is the most difficult muscle to anaesthetise completely, particularly with a single inferotemporal peribulbar injection. An additional medial injection may help to prevent this.

      The cranial nerve supply to the extraocular muscles are:
      3rd (inferior oblique, inferior recti, medial and superior)
      4th (superior oblique), and
      6th (lateral rectus).

      The long and short ciliary nerves provide the sensory supply to the globe and these are branches of the nasociliary nerve, (which is itself a branch of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve).

      To achieve anaesthesia for the eye, these nerves which enter the fibrotendinous ring need to be fully blocked to anaesthetise the eye for surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      356.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - The statement that best describes the classification of theatre equipment in terms of...

    Incorrect

    • The statement that best describes the classification of theatre equipment in terms of electrical safety is:

      Your Answer: The low leakage current limit is 0.1mA for Class IB

      Correct Answer: A floating circuit is equipment applied to patient that is isolated from all its other parts

      Explanation:

      There are different classes of electrical equipment that can be classified in the table below:

      Class 1 – provides basic protection only. It must be connected to earth and insulated from the mains supply

      Class II – provides double insulation for all equipment. It does not require an earth.

      Class III – uses safety extra low voltage (SELV) which does not exceed 24 V AC. There is no risk of gross electrocution but risk of microshock exists.

      Type B – All of above with low leakage currents (0.5mA for Class IB, 0.1 mA for Class IIB)

      Type BF – Same as with other equipment but has ‘floating circuit’ which means that the equipment applied to patient is isolated from all its other parts.

      Type CF – Class I or II equipment with ‘floating circuits’ that is considered to be safe for direct connection with the heart. There are extremely low leakage currents (0.05mA for Class I CF and 0.01mA for Class II CF)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      720
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What is the most sensitive method of detecting an intra-operative air embolism? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most sensitive method of detecting an intra-operative air embolism?

      Your Answer: Transoesophageal echocardiogram

      Explanation:

      An intra-operative air embolism occurs when air becomes trapped in the blood vessels during surgery.

      A transoesophageal echocardiography (OE) uses invasive echocardiography to monitor the integrity and performance of the heart. It is the gold standard as it provides real-time imaging of the heart to enable early diagnosis and treatment.

      Precordial doppler ultrasonography can also be used to detect into-operative air emboli. It is non-invasive and more practical, but is less sensitive.

      A change in end-tidal CO2 could be indicative of and increase in physiological dead-space, but could also be indicative of any processes that reduces the excretion or increases the production of CO2, making it non-specific.

      A transoesophageal stethoscope can be used to listen for the classic mill-wheel murmur produced by a large air embolus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - The following foetal anatomical features functionally closes earliest at birth? ...

    Incorrect

    • The following foetal anatomical features functionally closes earliest at birth?

      Your Answer: Eustachian valve

      Correct Answer: Foramen ovale

      Explanation:

      Foramen ovale, ductus arteriosus (DA) and ductus venosus (DV) are the three important cardiac shunts in-utero.

      At birth the umbilical vessels constrict in response to stretch as they are clamped. Blood flow through the ductus venosus (DV) decreases but the DV closes passively in 3-10 days.

      As the pulmonary circulation is established, there is a drastic fall in pulmonary vascular resistance and an increased pulmonary blood flow. This increases flow and pressure in the Left Atrium that exceeds that of the right atrium. The difference in pressure usually leads to the IMMEDIATE closure of the foramen ovale.

      The DA is functionally closed within the first 36-hours of birth in a healthy full-term newborn. Subsequent endothelial and fibroblast proliferation leads to permanent anatomical closure within 2 – 3 weeks.

      Oxygenated blood from the placenta passes via the umbilical vein to the liver. Blood also bypasses the liver via the ductus venosus into the inferior vena cava (IVC). The Crista dividens is a tissue flap situated at the junction of the IVC and the right atrium (RA). This flap directs the oxygen-rich blood, along the posterior aspect of the IVC, through the foramen ovale into the left atrium (LA).

      The Eustachian valve also known as the valve of The IVC is a remnant of the crista dividens.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      8314.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 43-year-old patient was brought to the emergency department with a traumatic amputation...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old patient was brought to the emergency department with a traumatic amputation of his leg at mid-thigh level. Resuscitation with 1 L gelofusine was done and four units of packed red blood cells were given before theatre. Thirty minutes following blood transfusion, the patient became flushed, breathless, hypotensive, develops haemoglobinuria, and had a fever of 38oC.

      Which one of the following correctly explains the patient signs and symptoms?

      Your Answer: Extravascular haemolytic transfusion reaction

      Correct Answer: Activation of classic complement pathway

      Explanation:

      This may be the classical case of blood transfusion reaction due to ABO incompatibility.

      Here red cells are destroyed in the bloodstream with the release of haemoglobin in circulation (causing haemoglobinuria). Here, IgM or IgG anti-A or anti-B antibody can cause rapid activation of complement cascade usually the classical pathway. This is called intravascular haemolysis.

      There may be extravascular haemolysis by cells of the mononuclear phagocyte system situated in the liver and spleen. Extravascular red cell destruction can increase breakdown products of haemoglobin, such as bilirubin and urobilinogen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      129.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - The ED95 of muscle relaxants is the dose required to reduce twitch height...

    Incorrect

    • The ED95 of muscle relaxants is the dose required to reduce twitch height by 95% in half of the target population. The dose of non-depolarizing muscle relaxants used for intubation is 2-3 times the ED95.

      For procedures that need a short duration of muscle relaxation and abrupt recovery, the short-acting drug Mivacurium is given at less than 2 times the ED95. What is the explanation for Mivacurium being an exception to this rule?

      Your Answer: It is metabolised more slowly than succinylcholine via plasma cholinesterase

      Correct Answer: Dose related histamine release occurs which frequently leads to tachycardia and hypotension

      Explanation:

      Mivacurium, when administered at doses greater than 0.2 mg/kg,increases the risk for hypotension, tachycardia, and erythema. This is due to the ability of mivacurium to release histamine with increasing dose. Contrary to this fact, anaphylaxis is rare for mivacurium because of the short duration of histamine release.

      The effective dose 50 (ED50) of mivacurium is between 0.08-0.15 mg/kg. It is administered slowly to prevent and decrease the risk of developing adverse effects.

      Mivacurium has a high potency thus a longer duration of action, however this is not the answer that we are looking for.

      Although drug metabolism takes longer for mivacurium than succinylcholine, it has no effect on the dose required for intubation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - What makes the ultrasound nebulizer efficient? ...

    Incorrect

    • What makes the ultrasound nebulizer efficient?

      Your Answer: Reduced risk of droplet infection

      Correct Answer: Reduction in gas flow resistance

      Explanation:

      Smallest drops reach not only the upper but also the lower respiratory tracks. As a result, the ultrasonic nebulizer is most efficient for the therapy of pulmonary diseases and stands out as a robust and reliable support within the clinical setting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      51.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following is the maximum volume of 0.5% bupivacaine that should...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the maximum volume of 0.5% bupivacaine that should be administered to a 10kg child?

      Your Answer: 3 ml

      Correct Answer: 5 ml

      Explanation:

      Bupivacaine is used to decrease sensation in a specific area. It is injected around a nerve that supplies the area, or into the spinal canal’s epidural space.

      The maximum volume of 0.5% bupivacaine that should be administered to a 10kg child is 5 ml

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      33.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following is true about the patellar reflex? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true about the patellar reflex?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is abolished immediately after transection of the spinal cord at T6

      Explanation:

      The patellar (knee jerk) reflex is a monosynaptic stretch reflex arising from L2-L4 nerve roots. It occurs after a tap on the patellar tendon which causes the spindles of the quadriceps muscles to stretch.

      The afferent nerve pathway occurred through A gamma fibres.

      Wesphal’s sign refers to a reduction, or absence of the patellar reflex. It is often indicated of a neurological disease affecting the PNS.

      A transection of the spinal cord results in a degree of shock which causes all reflexes to be reduced or completely absent, and required a period of approximately 6 weeks to recover.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 48-year-old woman has presented to the emergency with abdominal pain and distension...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman has presented to the emergency with abdominal pain and distension complaints. She is a known case of diabetes mellitus type 2 and has a BMI of 28 kg/m². On investigations, the liver function tests (LFTs) show raised alanine transaminase (ALT).

      Liver ultrasound is performed next to visualize the blood flow into and out of the liver.

      Which blood vessel supplies approximately one-third of the blood supply to the liver?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatic artery proper

      Explanation:

      The liver receives blood supply from two sources.
      1. Hepatic artery proper
      It arises from the celiac trunk via the common hepatic artery and brings oxygenated blood to the liver.
      It contributes to approximately 30% of the blood supply of the liver.
      2. Hepatic portal vein – supplies the liver with partially deoxygenated blood, carrying nutrients absorbed from the small intestine. It gets tributaries from the inferior mesenteric vein, splenic vein, and superior mesenteric vein

      The inferior mesenteric artery supplies the hindgut.
      The superior mesenteric artery supplies the pancreas and intestine up to the proximal two-thirds of the transverse colon.
      The inferior phrenic artery supplies the inferior surface of the diaphragm and oesophagus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Many of the processes we deal with in anaesthesia are exponential.

    What is the...

    Incorrect

    • Many of the processes we deal with in anaesthesia are exponential.

      What is the underlying mathematical principle of an exponential process?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The rate of change of x is dependent on the magnitude of x

      Explanation:

      The magnitude of x determines the rate of change of x. First-order drug kinetics is a good example. Most drugs’ plasma levels are controlled by an exponential process. The rate of change in drug metabolism is proportional to the current plasma concentration (so-called non-linear kinetics).

      A tear-away function is just one type of exponential relationship (y = ex), in which e is Euler’s number, x is the power, and e is the base. Natural logarithms rely on Euler’s number.

      Euler’s number is a mathematical constant, not a mathematical principle. It’s referred to as an irrational number. This is a number that cannot be expressed as a simple fraction or a ratio.

      A line or curve that acts as the limit of another line or curve is known as an asymptote. A washout exponential curve, for example, where the value y represents the plasma concentration of a drug in a single compartment model against time on the x axis. This descending curve approaches but never touches the x axis. This curve is asymptotic to the x axis, which is the curve’s asymptote. An asymptote isn’t just a characteristic of exponential curves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of the following anaesthetic agent is most potent with the lowest Minimal...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following anaesthetic agent is most potent with the lowest Minimal Alveolar Concentration (MAC)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Isoflurane

      Explanation:

      The clinical potency of the anaesthetic agent is measured using minimal alveolar concentration(MAC).

      MAC and oil: gas partition coefficient is inversely related. Anaesthetic agent Oil/gas partition coefficient and Minimal alveolar concentration (MAC) is given respectively as

      Desflurane 18 6
      Isoflurane 90 1.2
      Nitrous oxide 1.4 104
      Sevoflurane 53.4 2
      Xenon 1.9 71

      With these data, we can conclude Isoflurane is the most potent with the highest oil/gas partition coefficient of 90 and the lowest MAC of 1.2

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Regarding nerve supply to the vocal cords, which of the following provides sensation...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding nerve supply to the vocal cords, which of the following provides sensation to the area above the vocal cords?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Internal branch of superior laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The laryngeal folds are comprised of two types of folds; the vestibular fold and the vocal fold. The vocal folds are mobile, and concerned with voice production. They are formed by the mucous membrane covering the vocal ligament. They are avascular, hence, are white in colour.

      The internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve provides sensation above the vocal cords. Lesions to this nerve may lead to loss of sensation above the vocal cords and loss of taste on the epiglottis.

      The recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies the lateral and posterior cricoarytenoid, the thyroarytenoid. It also provides sensation below the vocal cords. Lesions to this nerve may cause respiratory obstruction, hoarseness, inability to speak and loss of sensation below the vocal cords.

      The external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve supplies the cricothyroid muscle.

      The glossopharyngeal nerve contains both sensory and motor components, and provides somatic innervation to the stylopharyngeus muscle, visceral motor innervation to the parotid gland, and carries afferent sensory fibres from the posterior third of the tongue, pharynx and tympanic cavity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - You've been summoned to the recovery room to examine a 28-year-old man who...

    Incorrect

    • You've been summoned to the recovery room to examine a 28-year-old man who has had an inguinal hernia repaired.

      His vital signs are normal, but you notice that he has developed abnormal upper-limb movements due to muscle contractions that cause repetitive twisting movements.

      What do you think is the most likely source for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prochlorperazine

      Explanation:

      Dystonia is characterised by repetitive twisting movements or abnormal postures. They are classified as either primary or secondary.

      Primary dystonia is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern.
      Secondary dystonia can be caused by focal brain lesions, Parkinson’s disease, or certain medications.

      The following drugs cause the most common drug-induced dystonic reactions:
      Antipsychotics, antiemetics (especially prochlorperazine and metoclopramide), and antidepressants.

      Following the administration of the neuroleptic prochlorperazine, 16 percent of patients experience restlessness (akathisia) and 4% experience dystonia.

      Several published reports have linked the anaesthetics thiopentone, fentanyl, and propofol to opisthotonos and other abnormal neurologic sequelae. Dystonias following a general anaesthetic are uncommon. Tramadol has been linked to serotonin syndrome, while remifentanil has been linked to muscle rigidity.

      The following are some of the risk factors:

      Positive family history
      Male
      Children
      An episode of acute dystonia occurred previously.
      Dopamine receptor (D2) antagonists at high doses and recent cocaine use

      Dystonia is treated in a variety of ways, including:

      Benztropine (as a first-line therapy):

      1-2 mg intravenous injection for adults
      Child: 0.02 mg/kg to 1 mg maximum

      Benzodiazepines are a type of benzodiazepine (second line treatment).

      Midazolam:

      1-2 mg intravenously, or 5-10 mg IV/PO diazepam

      Antihistamines with anticholinergic activity (H1receptor antagonists):

      Promethazine 25-50 mg IV/IM, or diphenhydramine 50 mg IV/IM (1 mg/kg in children) are used when benztropine is not available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 25 - Following a physical assault, a 28-year-old man is admitted to the emergency room....

    Incorrect

    • Following a physical assault, a 28-year-old man is admitted to the emergency room. A golf club has struck him in the head.

      There is a large haematoma on the scalp, as well as a bleeding wound. In response to painful stimuli, he opens his eyes and makes deliberate movements. Because of inappropriate responses, a history is impossible to construct, but words can be discerned.

      Which of the options below best describes his current Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: E2V3M5=10

      Explanation:

      The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) has been used in outcome models as a measure of physiological derangement and as a tool for assessing head trauma.

      Eye opening (E):

      4 Spontaneously
      3 Responds to voice
      2 Responds to painful stimulus
      1 No response.

      Best verbal response (V):

      5 Orientated, converses normally
      4 Confused, disoriented conversation, but able to answer basic questions
      3 Inappropriate responses, words discernible
      2 Incomprehensible speech
      1 Makes no sounds.

      Best motor response (M):

      6 Obeys commands for movement
      5 Purposeful movement to painful stimulus
      4 Withdraws from pain
      3 Abnormal (spastic) flexor response to painful stimuli, decorticate posture
      2 Extensor response to painful stimuli, decerebrate posture
      1 No response.

      In this case, GCS = 2+3+5 = 10.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 26 - What part of the male urethra is completely surrounded by Bucks fascia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What part of the male urethra is completely surrounded by Bucks fascia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spongiosa part

      Explanation:

      Bucks fascia refers to the layer of loose connective tissue, nerves and blood vessels that encapsulates the penile erectile bodies, the corpa cavernosa and the anterior part of the urethra, including the entirety of the spongiose part of the urethra.

      It runs with the external spermatic fascia and the penile suspensory ligament.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 27 - Which of the following statements is the most correct about ketamine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is the most correct about ketamine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The S (+) isomer is more potent that the R (-) isomer

      Explanation:

      Ketamine, a phencyclidine derivative, is an antagonist at the NMDA receptor. It causes depression of the CNS that is dose dependent and induces a dissociative anaesthetic state with profound analgesia and amnesia.

      Ketamine has a chiral centre usually presented as a racemic mixture with two optical isomers, S (+) and R (-) forms. These isomers are in equal proportions. The S (+) isomer is about three times more potent than the R (-) form. The S (+) form is less likely to cause emergence delirium and hallucinations.

      Ketamine is extensively metabolised by hepatic microsomal cytochrome P450 enzymes producing norketamine as its main metabolite. Norketamine has a one third to one fifth as potency as its parent compound.
      It increases the CMRO2, cerebral blood flow and potentially increase intracranial pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 28 - A chain smoker is interested in knowing how many years of his life...

    Incorrect

    • A chain smoker is interested in knowing how many years of his life would be lessened by smoking. You tell him explicitly that precise determination is impossible but you can tell him the proportion of people who died due to smoking. Which of the following epidemiological term is apt in this regard?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Attributable risk - the rate in the exposed group minus the rate in the unexposed group

      Explanation:

      Attributable proportion is the proportion of disease that is caused due to exposure. It refers to the proportion of disease that would be eradicated from a particular population if the disease rate was diminished to match that of the unexposed group.

      Risk ratio (relative risk) compares the probability of an event in an exposed (experimental) group to that of an event in the unexposed (control) group. Thus two are not the same.

      The attributable risk is the rate of a disease in an exposed group to that of a group that has not been exposed to it i.e. how many deaths did the exposure cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 29 - A 40 year old female is planned for an critical appendicectomy. A rapid...

    Incorrect

    • A 40 year old female is planned for an critical appendicectomy. A rapid sequence induction is organised. The patient has had a preoperative respiratory tract evaluation and there are no adverse features. The patient is optimally positioned and preoxygenated. The anaesthetic assistant applies 10 N of cricoid pressure. Induction of anaesthesia is then carried out with 250 mg thiopentone and 100 mg suxamethonium with 30 N of cricoid pressure. Initial laryngoscopy reveals a grade 4 view. Three attempts are made at placing a size 7 mm ID tracheal tube two with a standard laryngoscope and one with a McCoy blade and bougie and one further attempt is made using a videolaryngoscope. At this point the suxamethonium is begins to "wear off". Oxygen saturation is 95%. Which one of the following options is the next most appropriate plan of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Maintain oxygenation and anaesthesia and declare a failed intubation

      Explanation:

      Always call for help early. This patient is at risk of gastro-oesophageal reflux, which is why a rapid sequence induction has been chosen. The patient is not pregnant, and the surgery is not urgent.

      Plan A is to perform a rapid sequence induction under optimal conditions and secure the airway with a tracheal tube.

      No more than three attempts with a direct laryngoscope (plus one attempt with a videolaryngoscope) should be made to intubate the trachea. Keep in mind that suxamethonium is wearing off. Ensuring adequate neuromuscular blockade at this stage is crucial; this might include administering a non-depolarizing relaxant if oxygenation can be maintained with bag-mask ventilation. Given the non-immediate nature of the surgery, there should be a low threshold to abandon intubation attempts and resort to Plan B.

      An alternative strategy can then be planned.

      The most important initial step is to declare a “failed intubation.” This will prevent further intubation attempts and alert your assistant that Plan A has failed. Maintaining oxygenation and anesthesia is also critical before implementing Plan B.

      Do not administer another dose of suxamethonium. Insert a supraglottic airway if oxygenation fails and adequate ventilation cannot be maintained.

      Plan D follows the declaration of a CICO (Cannot Intubate, Cannot Oxygenate) situation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 30 - All of the statements describing the blood brain barrier are false EXCEPT:...

    Incorrect

    • All of the statements describing the blood brain barrier are false EXCEPT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inflammation alters its permeability

      Explanation:

      The blood brain barrier (BBB) consists of the ultrafiltration barrier in the choroid plexus and the barrier around cerebral capillaries. The barrier is made by endothelial cells which line the interior of all blood vessels. In the capillaries that form the blood–brain barrier, endothelial cells are wedged extremely close to each other, forming so-called tight junctions.

      Outside of the BBB lies the hypothalamus, third and fourth ventricles and the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ).

      Water, oxygen and carbon dioxide cross the BBB freely but glucose is controlled. The ability of chemicals to cross the barrier is proportional to their lipid solubility, not their water solubility. It’s ability to cross is inversely proportional to their molecular size and charge.

      In neonates, the BBB is less effective than in adults. This is why there is increased passage of opioids and bile salts (kernicterus) into the neonatal brain.

      In meningitis, the effectiveness and permeability of the BBB is affected, and as a result, this effect helps the passage of antibiotics which would otherwise not normally be able to cross.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pharmacology (4/4) 100%
Physiology And Biochemistry (2/2) 100%
Physiology (1/2) 50%
Statistical Methods (2/2) 100%
Anatomy (2/3) 67%
Clinical Measurement (0/1) 0%
Pathophysiology (2/3) 67%
Basic Physics (0/1) 0%
Passmed