00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 0 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - In over 70% of the cases, inflammatory bowel disease associates which of the...

    Correct

    • In over 70% of the cases, inflammatory bowel disease associates which of the following?

      Your Answer: Primary sclerosing cholangitis

      Explanation:

      More than 70% of cases with inflammatory bowel disease are associated with primary sclerosing cholangitis. The most common association is that of ulcerative colitis, in which case it progresses independently.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Regarding bupropion (Zyban), which one of the following statements is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding bupropion (Zyban), which one of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It has an antidepressant effect

      Explanation:

      The chief role of bupropion is that it acts as an antidepressant agent, which was used extensively to treat war veterans with post traumatic stress disorders. It is also very effective nicotine replacement therapy. Contraindications include epileptic seizures as it decreases the threshold of epilepsy in these patients to 1:1000.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 55-year-old male with a history of myocardial infarction 4 years ago, was...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male with a history of myocardial infarction 4 years ago, was admitted with a history of fever for the past 2 weeks. On investigation, his echocardiography revealed a small vegetation around the mitral valve. His blood culture was positive for Streptococcus viridans. Which of the following is the most appropriate antibiotic therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV benzylpenicillin

      Explanation:

      According to the American Heart Association (AHA) penicillin-susceptible S viridans, S bovis, and other streptococci (MIC of penicillin of ≤0.1 mcg/mL) should be treated with penicillin G or ceftriaxone or penicillin G + a gentamicin combination or vancomycin (if allergy to penicillin).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following statements is false regarding the bioavailability of a drug?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is false regarding the bioavailability of a drug?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The bioavailability of a drug given orally is often affected by the degree of renal elimination

      Explanation:

      Renal elimination of a drug has no role in altering the bioavailability of a drug.
      The bioavailability of a drug is the proportion of the drug which reaches systemic circulation.
      Mathematically, bioavailability is the AUCoral/AUCiv x 100%, where AUC = area under the concentration-time curve following a single (oral or iv) dose.

      Other options are true:
      By definition, the bioavailability of a drug given intravenously is 100%.
      Drugs given orally that undergo high pre-systemic (first-pass) metabolism in the liver or gut wall have a low bioavailability e.g. lidocaine.
      Bioavailability is also affected by the degree of absorption from the gut and this can change depending on gut motility and administration of other drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 61-year-old female presents to the A&E with malaise and muscle twitching. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old female presents to the A&E with malaise and muscle twitching. Her blood pressure is 114/78 mmHg and her pulse is 84/min. Blood exam reveals Calcium = 1.94 mmol/l and Albumin = 38 g/l. Which of the following tests is most useful in establishing her diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Parathyroid hormone

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 52-year-old shopkeeper presents with pain in her hands. Examination reveals plaques on...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old shopkeeper presents with pain in her hands. Examination reveals plaques on the extensor surfaces of her upper limbs and a telescoping deformity of both index fingers. Nails show pitting and horizontal ridging. The patient is most likely suffering from which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arthritis mutilans

      Explanation:

      Arthritis mutilans is a rare (occurs in only 5% of the patients) and extremely severe form psoriatic arthritis characterized by resorption of bones and the consequent collapse of soft tissue. When this affects the hands, it can cause a phenomenon sometimes referred to as ‘telescoping fingers.’ The associated nail changes are also characteristic of arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 16-year-old patient was admitted with walking difficulties and knee pain. Upon examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old patient was admitted with walking difficulties and knee pain. Upon examination, his leg is externally rotated and is 2 cm shorter. His ability to flex, abduct and medially rotate his leg is limited and when he flexes his hip, external rotation is increased. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Slipped femoral epiphysis

      Explanation:

      The clinical presentation is typical of a slipped femoral epiphysis, which refers to a fracture through the growth plate (physis), resulting in slippage of the overlying end of the femur. It is the most common hip disorder in adolescence. SCFEs usually cause groin pain on the affected side, but sometimes cause knee or thigh pain. The range of motion in the hip is restricted in internal (medial) rotation, abduction, and flexion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 41-year-old gentleman required high doses of intravenous diuretics after his renal transplant...

    Incorrect

    • A 41-year-old gentleman required high doses of intravenous diuretics after his renal transplant for the purposes of fluid management. Soon after administration he developed hearing loss, tinnitus, and vertigo.
       
      Which diuretic is most likely to have caused this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Furosemide

      Explanation:

      Furosemide is a loop diuretic that is known to have significant ototoxicity side-effects although the mechanism is not fully known.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 8-year-old boy who recently migrated from Nigeria was seen in A&E department...

    Incorrect

    • A 8-year-old boy who recently migrated from Nigeria was seen in A&E department with a six-week history of progressive swelling of his jaw, fever, night sweats, and weight loss. His mother reported an episode of sore throat in the past which was treated with antibiotics, but he developed a rash subsequently. Other than that, there was no other significant past medical history. On examination, a painless, nontender 4x3cm mass was found that was fixed and hard. The only other examination finding of note was rubbery symmetrical cervical lymphadenopathy.

      Which of the following translocation would most likely be found on biopsy karyotyping?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: t(8;14)

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 45-year-old man smokes 20 cigarettes/day for the last 28 years. He presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man smokes 20 cigarettes/day for the last 28 years. He presents with a 2-month history of drooping eyelid, hoarseness of voice, and a palpable mass in the right supraclavicular fossa. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pancoast tumour

      Explanation:

      Smoking history and symptoms suggest a Pancoast tumour as the diagnosis. Compression of sympathetic ganglion can cause ptosis, involvement of the supraclavicular lymph node results in a palpable mass in the right supraclavicular fossa, and voice hoarseness related to laryngeal nerve compression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A new study was developed to assess the benefit of omega-3 fish oils...

    Incorrect

    • A new study was developed to assess the benefit of omega-3 fish oils in patients with established ischaemic heart disease. The power of the study is equal to:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 - probability of making a type II error

      Explanation:

      The power of a test is defined as 1 − the probability of Type II error. The Type II error is concluding at no difference (the null is not rejected) when in fact there is a difference, and its probability is named β. Therefore, the power of a study reflects the probability of detecting a difference when this difference exists. It is also very important to medical research that studies are planned with an adequate power so that meaningful conclusions can be issued if no statistical difference has been shown between the treatments compared. More power means less risk for Type II errors and more chances to detect a difference when it exists.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following findings would point towards a diagnosis of neonatal hypothyroidism?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following findings would point towards a diagnosis of neonatal hypothyroidism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mother has hyperthyroidism

      Explanation:

      Transient congenital hypothyroidism can be due to: iodine deficiency or excess, maternal consumption of goitrogens or antithyroid medications during pregnancy, transplacental passage of TSH receptor-blocking antibodies, and neonatal very low birth weight and prematurity

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 60-year-old man presented with severe central chest pain for the last 2...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presented with severe central chest pain for the last 2 hours. He was on insulin for diabetes mellitus and he was dependent on haemodialysis because of end stage renal failure. He had undergone haemodialysis 48 hours prior to this presentation. His ECG showed an acute inferior myocardial infarction. Despite thrombolysis and other appropriate treatment, he continued to have chest pain after 6 hours from the initial presentation. His blood pressure was 88/54 mmHg and he had bibasal crepitations. His investigation results are given below.
      Serum sodium 140 mmol/l (137-144)
      Serum potassium 6.6 mmol/l (3.5-4.9)
      Serum urea 50 mmol/l (2.5-7.5)
      Serum creatinine 940 μmol/l (60-110)
      Haemoglobin 10.2g/dl (13.0-18.0)
      Troponin T >24 g/l (<0.04)
      Left ventricular ejection fraction was 20%

      What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coronary angiography and rescue PCI

      Explanation:

      According to the history the patient has cardiogenic shock and pulmonary oedema. On-going ischaemia is indicated by persisting symptoms. So the most appropriate management is coronary angiography and rescue PCI. There are no indications for blood transfusion at this moment and it will aggravate the pulmonary oedema. Haemodialysis, beta blockers and furosemide cannot be given due to low blood pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 31-year-old homosexual male is complaining of recent weight loss and blurred vision....

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old homosexual male is complaining of recent weight loss and blurred vision. A fundoscope was performed showing retinal haemorrhage. What is the single most appropriate option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

      Explanation:

      CMV is the best answer . Weight loss is mostly caused by HIV, which commonly presents with retinal haemorrhage and retinopathy when associated with CMV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 37-year-old social worker is referred to you with a long history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 37-year-old social worker is referred to you with a long history of diarrhoea and abdominal discomfort. She was diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome 10 years ago and takes mebeverine, peppermint tablets and Gaviscon. She is a vegetarian and rarely drinks or smokes.

      Examination of all systems is normal. Her blood tests show macrocytic anaemia. An upper gastrointestinal endoscopy reveals oesophagitis, hypertrophy of the gastric body and multiple duodenal ulcers.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

      Explanation:

      This case describes Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. It is characterized by refractory peptic ulcer disease, often multiple ulcers. This is typically caused by secretion of gastrin from a gastrinoma, a neuroendocrine tumour. The most common site of ulceration is the duodenum. A symptom of a pancreatic gastrinoma may be steatorrhea from the hypersecretion of gastrin. Serum gastrin levels > 1000 and a pH < 2 are diagnostic of pancreatic gastrinoma. None of the other answer choices are a better answer than this. CT abdomen may potentially show a tumour, but this is not diagnostic for type.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 21-year-old woman presents with painful vesicles in her right ear and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman presents with painful vesicles in her right ear and a fever for some time. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Herpes zoster

      Explanation:

      Herpes zoster oticus is a viral infection of the inner, middle, and external ear. It manifests as severe otalgia with associated cutaneous vesicular eruption, usually of the external canal and pinna. When associated with facial paralysis, the infection is called Ramsay Hunt syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • The Skin
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 72-year-old man presents with chronic back and right hip pain which has...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents with chronic back and right hip pain which has been increasingly affecting him over the past few months. He finds it very difficult to mobilise in the mornings. Clinical examination is unremarkable, apart from a limitation of right hip flexion due to pain. Investigations show: Haemoglobin:        12.1 g/dl (13.5-17.7) White cell count:    8.2 x 109/l (4-11) Platelets:                  200 x 109/l (150-400) C reactive protein: 9 nmol/l (<10) ESR:                         15 mm/hr (<20) Sodium:                   140 mmol/l (135-146) Potassium:              3.9 mmol/l (3.5-5) Creatinine:              92 µmol/l (79-118) ALT:                         12 U/l (5-40) Alkaline phos:        724 U/l (39-117) Calcium:                  2.55 mmol/l (2.20-2.67) Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paget's disease

      Explanation:

      Paget’s disease of bone is a chronic disease of the skeleton. In healthy bone, a process called remodeling removes old pieces of bone and replaces them with new, fresh bone. Paget’s disease causes this process to shift out of balance, resulting in new bone that is abnormally shaped, weak, and brittle. Paget’s disease most often affects older people, occurring in approximately 2 to 3% of the population over the age of 55.

      Many patients with Paget’s disease have no symptoms at all and are unaware they have the disease until X-rays are taken for some other reason. When bone pain and other symptoms are present, they can be related to the disease itself or to complications that arise from the disease — such as arthritis, bone deformity, and fractures. In patients with Paget’s disease, alkaline phosphatase levels are usually quite elevated — a reflection of the high bone turnover rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 29-year-old physiotherapist with a history of bilateral vitreous haemorrhage is referred due...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old physiotherapist with a history of bilateral vitreous haemorrhage is referred due to progressive ataxia. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome

      Explanation:

      Retinal and cerebellar haemangiomas are key features of Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome. Retinal haemangiomas are bilateral in 25% of patients and may lead to vitreous haemorrhage. Von Hippel-Lindau (VHL) syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition predisposing to neoplasia. It is due to an abnormality in the VHL gene located on short arm of chromosome 3.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 60-year-old male presented in OPD with a complaint of inability to walk...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old male presented in OPD with a complaint of inability to walk properly because of his left foot. History reveals he has undergone left knee surgery to for severe arthritis. On examination, dorsiflexion of his left foot was found to be compromised, and sensation over the dorsum of his left foot was impaired. Which of the following conditions is this man most likely suffering from?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Compression of common peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      The branches of the common peroneal nerve innervate the skin of the dorsum of the foot as well as the muscles which help to carry out dorsiflexion of the foot. Compression of the common peroneal nerve cause foot drop as well as the loss in sensation of the skin on the dorsum of the foot.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 79-year-old nursing home resident presents to the clinic with an intensely itchy...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old nursing home resident presents to the clinic with an intensely itchy rash. Examination reveals white linear lesions on the wrists and elbows, and red papules on the penile surface. Which of the following will be the most suitable management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical permethrin

      Explanation:

      Scabies is a parasitic skin infestation caused by Sarcoptes scabiei mite, which is primarily transmitted via direct human-to-human contact. The female scabies mite burrows into the superficial skin layer, causing severe pruritus, particularly at night. Primary lesions commonly include erythematous papules, vesicles, or burrows. Treatment involves topical medical therapy (e.g. permethrin) and decontamination of all clothing and textiles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastrointestinal System (1/1) 100%
Passmed