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  • Question 1 - A current flows through a simple electric circuit.

    Which of the following electrical component...

    Incorrect

    • A current flows through a simple electric circuit.

      Which of the following electrical component configurations has the greatest potential difference?

      Your Answer: One resistor of 5 ohm with a passing current of 10 ampere

      Correct Answer: Two 5 ohm resistors in series with a passing current of 10 ampere

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      35
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A sevoflurane vaporiser with a 2 percent setting and a 200 kPa ambient...

    Incorrect

    • A sevoflurane vaporiser with a 2 percent setting and a 200 kPa ambient pressure is used.

      At this pressure, which of the following options best represents vaporiser output?

      Your Answer: The output is 2% because the saturated vapour pressure of sevoflurane is unaffected by ambient pressure

      Correct Answer: The output is 1% because the saturated pressure of sevoflurane is unaffected by ambient pressure

      Explanation:

      Ambient pressure has no effect on a volatile agent’s saturated vapour pressure (SVP). At a temperature of 20°C, the SVP of sevoflurane is approximately 21 kPa, or 21% of atmospheric pressure (100 kPa).

      The SVP of sevoflurane remains the same when the ambient pressure is doubled to 200 kPa, but the output of the vaporiser is halved, now 21 percent of 200 kPa, equalling 10.5 percent. The vaporiser’s output has increased to 1%, but the partial pressure output has remained unchanged. The splitting ratio will not change because it is determined by temperature changes.

      Calculations can be made as follows:

      Vaporizer output % (ambient pressure) = % volatile (calibrated) x 100 kPa calibrated pressure/ambient pressure
      2% = 2% (dialled) × 100/100
      2% of 100 = 2 kPa

      Altitude, pressure 50 kPa
      4% = 2% (dialled) × 100/50
      4% of 50 = 2 kPa

      High pressure at 200 kPa
      1% = 2% (dialled) × 100/200
      1% of 200 = 2 kPa

      Sevoflurane has a boiling point of 58°C and, unlike desflurane (which has a boiling point of 22.8°C), does not need to be heated and pressurised with a Tec 6 vaporiser.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      27.6
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  • Question 3 - When the volume of gas is measured, its value should be supported by...

    Correct

    • When the volume of gas is measured, its value should be supported by a suitable abbreviation. From the following options, what does the STPD stand for?

      Your Answer: Standard Temperature and Pressure, Dry

      Explanation:

      Gas is composed of large numbers of molecules moving in random directions, separated by distances. They undergo perfectly elastic collisions with each other and the walls of a container and transfer kinetic energy in form of heat. These assumptions bring the characteristics of gases within the range and reasonable approximation to a real gas, particularly how any change in temperature and pressure affect the behaviour of gas. According to different theories and laws proposed, mathematical equations are derived to calculate the volume of gas, also different abbreviations are being used according to given conditions. The abbreviations used are ATP, BTPS, and STPD.
      ATP stands for ambient temperature and barometric pressure, it is used to describe the conditions under which volume of gas is measured.
      BTPS stands for body temperature and pressure saturated with water vapor. These are conditions under which volume of gas exist and all results of lung volume determination should be quoted at BTPS.
      STPD stands for standard temperature and pressure, dry (0C and 760 mm Hg). These are the conditions that are used to describe quantities of individual gases exchanged in the lungs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      24.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Many of the processes we deal with in anaesthesia entail a relationship between...

    Incorrect

    • Many of the processes we deal with in anaesthesia entail a relationship between two or more variables.

      Which of the following relationships is a linear relationship?

      Your Answer: The relationship between the pressure of a fixed mass of gas and its volume at a fixed temperature

      Correct Answer: The relationship between the junction potential and temperature in a thermocouple

      Explanation:

      Two bonded wires of dissimilar metals, iron/constantan or copper/constantan, make up a thermocouple (constantan is an alloy of copper and nickel). At the tip, a thermojunction voltage is generated that is proportional to temperature (Seebeck effect).

      All of the other connections are non-linear.

      For a single compartment model, the relationship between a decrease in plasma concentration of an intravenous bolus of a drug and time is a washout exponential.

      A sine wave is the relationship between current and degrees or time from a mains power source.

      A sigmoid curve represents the relationship between efficacy and log-dose of a pure agonist on mu receptors.

      The pressure of a fixed mass of gas and its volume (Boyle’s law) at a fixed temperature are inversely proportional, resulting in a hyperbolic curve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      32.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - The Control of Substances Hazardous to Health (COSHH) regulations recommend air supply rates...

    Incorrect

    • The Control of Substances Hazardous to Health (COSHH) regulations recommend air supply rates to specific environments. Which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: Operating theatres receive a volume of 0.15 m3 of air per second

      Correct Answer: Preparation rooms receive a volume of 0.1 m3 of air per second

      Explanation:

      Control of Substances Hazardous to Health (COSHH) was established by government under the Health and Safety at Work act in 1989. Their employers work on identification and management of those substances that are dangerous to health. The implications for anaesthetists include gas scavenging, equipment contamination and environmental safety. Adequate ventilation is required in areas where anaesthetic gases are present. The minimum air supply that is legally required in each specific area is: Operating theatres: 0.65 m3/second. Anaesthetic rooms: 0.15 m3/s. Preparation rooms: 0.1 m3/s. Recovery rooms need 15 air changes per hour

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      23.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which statement is correct concerning breathing systems? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is correct concerning breathing systems?

      Your Answer: The Mapleson A system is suitable for use in patients up to 20 Kg

      Correct Answer: The reservoir bag can limit the pressure in the breathing system to about 40 cm of water

      Explanation:

      Mapleson classified breathing systems into A, B, C, D and E. Jackson-Rees subsequently modified the Mapleson E by adding a double-ended bag to the end of the reservoir tubing, creating the Mapleson F. A Mapleson E or T-piece does not have a reservoir bag.

      A Mapleson A system is a very efficient system for use during spontaneous ventilation. However, it is not suitable for use with patients less than 25 kg, due to the increased dead space at the distal / patient end. This system can be modified into a Lack system or coaxial Mapleson A, where the fresh gas flows through an outer tube (30 mm) and exhaled gases flow through the inner tube (14 mm).

      The adjustable pressure limiting valve (APL) or expiratory valve allows exhaled gas and excess fresh gas to leave the breathing system. It is a one-way, adjustable spring-loaded valve, and gases escape when the pressure in the system exceeds the valve opening pressure. During spontaneous ventilation a pressure of less than 1 cm of water (0.1 kPa) is needed when the valve is in the open position (not 2 cm of H2O).

      The reservoir bag is highly compliant and when over inflated, the rubber bag can limit the pressure in the system to about 40 cm of H2O.

      This is due to the law of Laplace, which states that the pressure will fall as the radius of the bag increases:

      Pressure = 2 x tension/radius.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      32.4
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  • Question 7 - Regarding the emergency oxygen flush, which is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the emergency oxygen flush, which is true?

      Your Answer: Is unlikely to cause barotrauma

      Correct Answer: May lead to awareness if used inappropriately

      Explanation:

      When the emergency oxygen flush is pressed, 100% oxygen is supplied from the common gas outlet. This gas bypasses BOTH flowmeters and vaporisers. The flow of oxygen is usually 45 l/min at a PRESSURE OF 400 kPa.

      There is an increased risk of pulmonary barotrauma when the emergency flush is pressed, especially when anaesthetising paediatric patients.

      The inappropriate use of the flush causes dilution of anaesthetic gases and this increases the possibility of anaesthetic awareness .

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      23.4
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  • Question 8 - A transport ventilator is powered by an air/oxygen mix using a full oxygen...

    Incorrect

    • A transport ventilator is powered by an air/oxygen mix using a full oxygen cylinder (class CD) with an internal capacity of 2 litres, and pressure of 23,000 kPa, with a gas flow of 4 litres/minute.
      The ventilator also has a control resulting in an additional gas consumption of 1 litre/minute.

      How long will it take for the cylinder to empty?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 92 minutes

      Explanation:

      The Drager Oxylog® 1000 is a pneumatically powered, time-dependent, volume-titrated emergency ventilator with a pressure limit. It is compatible with CD cylinder oxygen. The CD cylinder is a strong and lightweight cylinder usually composed of aluminium or Kevlar. The internal cylinder volume is 2 litres, and the pressure of a full cylinder is 230 bar. The volume of the full cylinder is determined by applying Boyle’s law: P1 × V1 = P2 × V2

      Where:
      P1= pressure of a full cylinder (230 bar)
      V1= volume of oxygen at that pressure (2 litres)
      P2= final pressure (1 bar), and
      V2= volume of oxygen in the full cylinder.

      Substituting values into the equation:

      230 × 2 = 1 x V2
      V2 = 460 litres. The flow of fresh gas is 4 litres/minute + 1 litre/minute required by the control, making a total of 5 litres/minute. The amount of time it takes for the cylinder to empty would be the total volume of oxygen in the full cylinder divided by the amount of oxygen expelled per minute: 460/5 = 92, meaning it would take 92 minutes for the cylinder to empty.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      0
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  • Question 9 - You are preparing to anaesthetize a 27-year-old woman for an acute diagnostic laparoscopy...

    Incorrect

    • You are preparing to anaesthetize a 27-year-old woman for an acute diagnostic laparoscopy to rule out appendicitis.

      She has no medical history and does not take any medications on a regular basis. You're going to do a quick sequence induction.

      Which method of preoxygenation is the most effective and efficient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mapleson A circuit with a fresh gas flow of 100 ml/kg

      Explanation:

      Professor Mapleson classified non-rebreathing circuits based on the position of the APL valve, which controls fresh gas flow.

      The Mapleson A (Magill) circuit is most effective in spontaneous breathing, requiring only 70-100 ml/kg (the patient’s minute volume) of fresh gas flow. The patient inhales fresh gas from the reservoir bag and tubing during inspiration. During expiration, the patient adds dead space gas (gas that hasn’t been exchanged) to the tubing and reservoir bag in addition to the fresh gas flow. At the patient’s end, alveolar gas is vented through the APL valve. During the expiratory pause, the fresh gas flow causes more gas to be released.

      The Mapleson A is inefficient during controlled ventilation. Venting occurs during inspiration rather than during the expiratory phase, as it does during spontaneous ventilation. As a result, unless a high fresh gas flow of >20 L/minute is used, alveolar gas is rebreathed.

      During spontaneous ventilation, the Mapleson D circuit is inefficient.

      The oxygen concentration in a Hudson mask is insufficient to allow for adequate pre-oxygenation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      0
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  • Question 10 - Which of the following statements is true about oxygen face masks? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true about oxygen face masks?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The oxygen concentration delivered by high air flow oxygen enrichment devices is not dependent on the respiratory pattern of the patient

      Explanation:

      The normal peak inspiratory flow in healthy individuals is 20-30 L/min during each normal tidal ventilation. This is expected to increase with greater respiratory rate and deeper inspiration.

      Face masks are used to facilitate the delivery of oxygen from a breathing system to a patient. Face masks can be divided into two types: fixed performance or variable performance devices.

      In fixed performance devices (also known as high air flow oxygen enrichment or HAFOE), fixed inspired oxygen concentration is delivered to the patent, independent and greater than that of the patient’s peak inspiratory flow rate (PIFR). No random entrainment is expected to occur at the time of PIFR, hence, the oxygen concentration in HAFOE devices is not dependent on the patient’s respiratory pattern.

      Moreover, in HAFOE masks, the concentration of oxygen at a given oxygen flow rate is determined by the size of the constriction; a device with a greater entrainment aperture delivers a lower oxygen concentration. Therefore, a 40% Venturi device will have lesser entrainment aperture when compared to a 31% Venturi. Venturi masks allow relatively fixed concentrations of supplemental oxygen to be inspired e.g. 24%, 28%, 31%, 35%, 40% and 60% oxygen. These are colour coded and marked with the recommended oxygen flow rate.

      Variable performance devices deliver variable inspired oxygen concentration to the patient, and is dependent on the PIFR. The PIFR can often exceed the flow rate at which oxygen or an oxygen/air mixture is supplied by the device, depending on a patient’s inspiratory effort. In addition, these masks allow expired air to be released through the holes in the sides of the mask. Thus, with increased respiratory rate, rebreathing of alveolar gas from inside the mask may occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      0
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  • Question 11 - From the following statements, which is true of humidification? ...

    Incorrect

    • From the following statements, which is true of humidification?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasonic humidifier can achieve greater than 100% relative humidity

      Explanation:

      Increasing temperature increases the amount of water vapour contained in air; for example, at 20°C, air contains about 17 g/m3, and at 37°C, air contains about 44 g/m3. The wet and dry bulb hygrometer, like the hair hygrometer, measures relative humidity.

      Under normal operating conditions, Heat and moisture exchangers (HMEs) allows relative humidity of up to 70% to be achieved. Mucus can impair their performance, and they should not be used for longer than 24 hours.

      Hot water bath humidifiers might cause scalding, condensed water in the tubing can interfere with gas flow, and there is a danger of infection.

      The ultrasonic humidifier operates at roughly 2 MHz and may attain relative humidity levels much above 100%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 12 - Regarding the Manley MP3 ventilator, which statement is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the Manley MP3 ventilator, which statement is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is a minute volume divider

      Explanation:

      It’s a minute volume divider – True
      The Manley MP3 ventilator is classed as a minute volume divider. The entire fresh gas flow or minute volume is delivered to the patient, having been divided into readily set tidal volumes.

      Can efficiently ventilate patients with poor pulmonary compliance – False
      Ventilating patients with poor pulmonary compliance is not easily achieved, which makes it an unsuitable ventilator for a modern ICU.

      Can generate tidal volume up to 1500ml – False
      It can generate tidal volumes up to 1000 ml (not 1500 ml), and the inflation pressure can be adjusted by sliding a weight along a rail.

      Functions like a Mapleson A system during spontaneous ventilation – False
      The ventilator functions like a Mapleson D breathing system (not Mapleson A) during spontaneous ventilation.

      Has three sets of bellows – False
      The fresh gas flow drives the ventilator which allows rapid detection of gas supply failure. It has two sets of bellows (not three) and three unidirectional valves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A laser is a device that stimulates atoms or molecules to emit light...

    Incorrect

    • A laser is a device that stimulates atoms or molecules to emit light at particular wavelengths and amplifies that light, typically producing a very narrow beam of radiation. This can be of visible, infrared, or ultraviolet wavelengths. They have been widely utilized in theatre environment.

      Which of the following safety measures is most likely to reduce chances of eye injury to the theatre personnel?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wearing laser protective goggles

      Explanation:

      Eye damage is the most common potential hazard associated with laser energy. Everyone in the laser treatment room has the risk of eye exposure when working with a Class 3b or Class 4 healthcare laser system, and damage to various structures in the eye depending on wavelength of the laser if they are unprotected.

      Red and near-infrared light (400-1400 nm) has very high penetration power. The light causes painless burns on the retina after it is absorbed by melanin in the pigment epithelium just behind the photoreceptors.

      Infrared radiation (IR), or infrared light (>1060 nm), is a type of radiant energy that’s invisible to human eyes and hence won’t elicit the protective blink.

      Ultraviolet light (<400 nm) is also a form of electromagnetic radiation which is can penetrate the cornea and be absorbed by the iris or the pupil and cause burn injuries or cataract occur due to irreversible photochemical retinal damage. Safety eyewear is the best method of providing eye protection and are designed to absorb light specific to the laser being used. Laser protective eyewear (LPE) includes glasses or goggles of proper optical density (OD). The lenses should not be glass or plastic. The LPE should withstand direct and diffuse scattered laser beams. The laser protection supervisor (LPS) or LSO is an individual who is responsible for any clinical area in which lasers are used. They are expected to have a certain level of equipment and determine what control measures are appropriate, for each individual system, but their presence does not guarantee the chances of having an eye injury. Class 1 lasers are generally safe under every conceivable condition and is not likely to cause any eye damage. Class 3b or Class 4 medical laser systems are utilized in healthcare which have their own safety precautions. Polarized spectacles can make your eyes more comfortable by eliminated glare, however, they will not be able to offer any protection against wavelengths at which laser act.
      Using short bursts to reduce energy is also not correct as it would still be harmful to eye.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      0
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  • Question 14 - A strain gauge operates on which of the following principles? ...

    Incorrect

    • A strain gauge operates on which of the following principles?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Varying resistance of a wire when stretched

      Explanation:

      The principle by which a strain gauge works is that when a wire is stretched, it becomes longer and thinner, and as a result, its resistance increases.

      A strain gauge, which is used in pressure transducers, acts as a resistor. When the pressure in a pressure transducer changes, the diaphragm moves, changing the tension in the resistance wire and thus changing the resistance.

      Changes in current flow through the resistor are amplified and displayed as a pressure change measure.

      A Wheatstone bridge, on the other hand, is frequently used to measure or monitor these changes in resistance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 15 - From the following electromagnetic waves, which one has the shortest wavelength? ...

    Incorrect

    • From the following electromagnetic waves, which one has the shortest wavelength?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: X rays

      Explanation:

      Electromagnetic waves are categorized according to their frequency or equivalently according to their wavelength. Visible light makes up a small part of the full electromagnetic spectrum.

      Electromagnetic waves with shorter wavelengths and higher frequencies include ultraviolet light, X-rays, and gamma rays. Electromagnetic waves with longer wavelengths and lower frequencies include infrared light, microwaves, and radio and televisions waves.

      Different electromagnetic waves according to their wavelength from shorter to longer are X-rays, ultraviolet radiations, visible light, infrared radiation, radio waves. X-ray among electromagnetic waves has the shortest wavelength and higher frequency with wavelengths ranging from 10*-8 to 10* -12 and corresponding frequencies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 16 - Which of the following is true about the pulse oximeter? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true about the pulse oximeter?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is accurate to within +/- 2% in the range of 70% to 100% saturation

      Explanation:

      The pulse oximeter provides a continuous non-invasive measurement of the arterial oxygen saturation. The light emitting diodes (LEDs) produce beams of red and infrared light at 660 nm and 940 nm respectively (not 640 and 960 nm), which travel through a finger (toe, ear lobe or nose) and are then detected by a sensitive photodetector.

      The light absorbed by non-pulsatile tissues is constant (DC), and the non-constant absorption (AC) is the result of arterial blood pulsation. The DC and AC components at 660 and 940 nm are then analysed by the microprocessor and the result is related to the arterial saturation.

      An isosbestic point is a point at which two substances absorb a wavelength of light to the same degree. In pulse oximetry the different absorption profiles of oxyhaemoglobin and deoxyhaemoglobin are used to quantify the haemoglobin saturation (in %). Isosbestic points occur at 590 and 805 nm (not 490 and 805 nm), where the light absorbed is independent of the degree of saturation, and are used as reference points.

      The pulse oximeter is accurate to within +/- 2% in the range of 70% to 100% saturation, and below 70% the readings are extrapolated. Pulse oximeters average their readings every 10 to 20 seconds and thus they cannot detect acute desaturation events. Consequently, they are often referred to as ‘lag’ monitors, due to the time delay in identifying the desaturation episode.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 17 - Regarding a paramagnetic oxygen analyser, the following statements are TRUE: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding a paramagnetic oxygen analyser, the following statements are TRUE:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Utilises null deflection

      Explanation:

      The electrons in the outer shell of an oxygen molecule are unpaired, thus it has paramagnetic properties and is attracted into a magnetic field.

      It utilizes null deflection -True
      Null deflection is a crucial principle in paramagnetic analysers (reflected beam of light on two photocells) which gives very accurate results (typically 0.1%).

      It can be used to measure the concentration of diamagnetic gases – False
      Since most other gases are weakly diamagnetic they are repelled by a magnetic field (nitric oxide is also paramagnetic).

      Can measure gases dissolved in the blood – False
      For accurate analysis the sample gas must be dried before passing into the analysis cell, for example, by passage through silica gel. Therefore, they are unsuitable to measure gases dissolved in blood.

      Does not require calibration – False
      As with most measurement instruments paramagnetic analysers must be calibrated before use.

      E) The readings are unaffected by water vapour – False
      Water vapour affects the readings hence for accurate analysis the sample gas must be dried before passing into the analysis cell, for example, by passage through silica gel. That is why they are unsuitable to measure dissolved blood gases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 18 - Which one of the following statement is true regarding United Kingdom gas cylinders?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statement is true regarding United Kingdom gas cylinders?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tensile tests are performed on sections of one cylinder in every hundred

      Explanation:

      Medical gas cylinders are made up of molybdenum steel but not cast iron. They are checked and assessed at a regular interval.

      At least one cylinder in each hundred are tested for tensile, pressure, smash, twist and straightening.

      Nitrous Oxide cylinders contain a mixture of liquid and vapour at a pressure of approx. 4500 kPa or 45 Bar. Carbon dioxide cylinder contain gas at the pressure of 5000kPa.

      The filling ratio is the ratio of mass of liquified gas in the cylinder to the mass of water required to fill the cylinder at the temperature of 15ºC. In the united kingdom, filling ratio of liquid nitrous oxide is 0.75. The cylinders are usually attached to the anaesthetic machine. As nitrous oxide is an N-methyl-d-aspartate receptor antagonist that may reduce the incidence of chronic post-surgical pain.

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      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 19 - Regarding laminar gas flow, which of the following options has the most influence...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding laminar gas flow, which of the following options has the most influence on laminar flow?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diameter of tube

      Explanation:

      Laminar flow can be defined as the motion of a fluid where every particle in the fluid follows the same path of its previous particles. The following are properties of laminar flow of gas or fluids:

      1. Smooth unobstructed flow of gas through a tube of relatively uniform diameter
      2. Few directional changes
      3. Slow, steady flow through straight smooth, rigid, large calibre, cylindrical tube
      4. Outer layer flow slower than the centre due to friction, results in discrete cylindrical layers, or streamlines
      5. Double flow by doubling pressure as long as the flow pattern remains laminar

      Poiseuille’s Law relates the factors that determine laminar flow. It indicates the degree of resistance to fluid flow through a tube. The resistance to fluid flow through a tube is directly related to the length, flow and viscosity; and inversely related to the radius of the tube to the fourth power. This means that, when the radius is doubled, there is increase in flow by a factor of 16.

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      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 20 - Regarding the classification of breathing systems, which of the following is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the classification of breathing systems, which of the following is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The Conway classification describes a functional classification based on whether a CO2 absorber is required

      Explanation:

      Breathing system is an assembly of components which connects patient’s airway to anaesthesia machine through which controlled composition of gas mixture is dispensed. It delivers gas to the patient, removes expired gas and controls the temperature and humidity of the inspired mixture. It allows spontaneous, controlled, or assisted respiration. It may also provide ports for gas sampling, airway pressure, flow and volume monitoring.

      Breathing systems have been classified by Conway and Mapleson.
      Conway suggested a functional classification:
      – Circuits requiring a CO2 absorber
      – Circuits not requiring a CO2 absorber

      William Mapleson designated varying arrangements of breathing system components (masks, breathing tubes, fresh gas flow inlets, adjustable pressure-limiting valves, and reservoir bags) as Mapleson A-E circuits.
      Mapleson A: Arranged as FGF inlet, reservoir bag, APL valve, mask.
      In this circuit, because the reservoir bag is between the FGF inlet valve and the APL valve, expired gas from the patient may re-enter the system and fill the reservoir bag during controlled ventilation. This is the most efficient system for spontaneous breathing as the FGF must only be equal to a patient’s minute ventilation to prevent rebreathing.

      Mapleson B: Arranged as reservoir bag, FGF inlet, APL valve, mask.
      In this circuit, the FGF inlet is closer to the APL valve, which helps prevent the rebreathing concern in the Mapleson A circuit as above during controlled ventilation.

      Mapleson C: Arranged as reservoir bag, FGF inlet, APL valve, mask.
      In this circuit, the arrangement is the same as the Mapleson B circuit. However, this circuit is shorter as it does not contain elongated corrugated tubing. This circuit also has the FGF inlet close to the APL valve to aid in preventing rebreathing.

      Mapleson D: Arranged as reservoir bag, APL valve, FGF inlet, and mask.
      In this circuit, the arrangement interchanges the FGF inlet and APL valve of the Mapleson A circuit. This system prevents rebreathing by directing FGF towards the APL valve rather than towards the patient during exhalation.

      Mapleson E: Arranged as corrugated tubing, FGF inlet, and mask.
      In this circuit, there is no reservoir bag and no APL valve. Given the inability to alter the pressure of the circuit, this is ideal for spontaneously ventilating neonates or paediatric patients where low-pressure ventilation is desired. The system prevents rebreathing, similar to the Mapleson D circuit.

      Jackson Rees later modified the Mapleson E by adding an open ended bag, which has since become known as the Mapleson F.
      Mapleson F: Arranged as APL valve directly connected to reservoir bag, corrugated tubing, FGF inlet, and mask.
      The system prevents rebreathing similarly to Mapleson D by directing FGF towards the APL valve.

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      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 21 - Health workers are at increased risks of anaesthetic exposure. Therefore, The Control of...

    Incorrect

    • Health workers are at increased risks of anaesthetic exposure. Therefore, The Control of Substances Hazardous to Health (COSHH) regulations require measures implemented to assess and control the risks related to this exposure.

      Among the following control measures, which one is most likely to limit potentially harmful exposure to anaesthetic agents within an operating theatre?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Total intravenous anaesthesia (TIVA)

      Explanation:

      Exposure to anaesthetic hazards is one among the occupational exposures in manipulating toxic agents or inhaling toxic gases during anaesthetic practices.

      Toxic gases mainly nitrous oxide, is one of the most gaseous anaesthetic agents that constitutes an important source of pollution. One of the safe and effective technics used in anaesthesia and reducing the amount of pollution is the Total Intravenous Anaesthesia (TIVA) which consists of using opioids in analgesia and propofol for the induction and the maintenance of anaesthesia. It refers to the administration intravenously of an anaesthetic, sedative, and/or tranquilizer. A less polluting but not the best way to get rid of the toxic aesthetic agents is the scavenger system that collects and expels the gas outside the medical environment. Yet, this technique still represents a hazard for the environment and still increase the risk of exposure for the health workers and clinical staff.

      Fume cupboards are also not recommended to use because of their high pollution potency, mainly of the air resulting in a great harm for medical workers.

      Supraglottic airways as well as the Air Changes per Hour technics could be harmful for both patients and health workers, increasing the risks of transmitted diseases, namely nosocomial infections.

      Therefore, the Total Intravenous Anaesthesia technique (TIVA) is most likely to be safe and recommended to use.

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      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 22 - Which statement is correct about the Mapleson anaesthetic breathing circuits? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is correct about the Mapleson anaesthetic breathing circuits?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mapleson A is most efficient for spontaneous ventilation

      Explanation:

      Mapleson breathing system (or circuit) analysed five different arrangements of components of the breathing system:
      Mapleson A – It is the most efficient for spontaneous respiration. The flow of fresh gas required is 70-85 ml/kg/min, i.e., approximately 5-6 lit./min fresh gas flow for an average adult.
      Mapleson B and C – inefficient for both SV and PPV; requires gas flow of two to three times minute volume (100 ml/kg/min). Not commonly used but category C may be used for emergency resuscitation.
      Mapleson D – efficient for PPV at gas flow equivalent to patient’s minute volume; the Bain’s circuit is a coaxial version of the Mapleson D
      Mapleson E and F – for paediatric use; requires gas flow at two to three times the patient’s minute volume. The Mapleson F consists of an open-ended reservoir bag (Jackson-Rees modification).

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  • Question 23 - All of the following statements about pH electrode are incorrect except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements about pH electrode are incorrect except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A semi-permeable membrane reduces protein contamination

      Explanation:

      Pulse oximeters combine the principles of oximetry and plethysmography to noninvasively measure oxygen saturation in arterial blood. A sensor containing two or three light emitting diodes and a photodiode is placed across a perfused body part, commonly a finger, to be transilluminated. Oximetry depends on oxyhaemoglobin and deoxyhaemoglobin, and their ability to absorb the beams of light produced by the light emitting diodes: red light at 660 nm and infrared light at 960 nm.

      The isosbestic point is the point wherein two different substances absorb light to the same extent. For oxyhaemoglobin and deoxyhaemoglobin, the points are at 590 nm and 805 nm. These are considered reference points where light absorption is independent of the degree of saturation.

      Non-constant absorption of light is often due to the presence of an arterial pulsation, whilst constant absorption of light is seen in non-pulsatile tissues.

      Most pulse oximeters are inaccurate at low SpO2, but is accurate at +/- 2% within the range of 70% to 100% SpO2. All pulse oximeters demonstrate a delay in between changes in SaO2 and SpO2, and display average readings every 10 to 20 seconds, hence they are unable to detect acute desaturation episodes.

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  • Question 24 - A measuring system's response to change is complex, yet it can be mathematically modelled.

    Which of the following terms best characterises a pressure transducer's responsiveness to blood pressure changes?

    ...

    Incorrect

    • A measuring system's response to change is complex, yet it can be mathematically modelled.

      Which of the following terms best characterises a pressure transducer's responsiveness to blood pressure changes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dynamic second-order response

      Explanation:

      The static-response defines how a measuring system behaves while it is in equilibrium (i.e. when the measured values are not changing). If the value being measured changes over time, the reaction of a measuring system will change as well which would be a dynamic response.
      The dynamic response of a measuring system can be subdivided into zero-order, first-order and second-order responses:

      Zero-order:
      Consider a thermometer that has been left in a room for a week. The thermometer will display the current ambient temperature when you enter the room.

      First-order:
      Consider the use of a mercury thermometer to check a patient’s temperature. It is comprised of a mercury column that expands as it warms up. The scale’s initial temperature is room temperature, but when it’s placed under the patient’s tongue, the temperature readings rise until they reach body temperature.

      Second-order
      Consider putting weights on a mechanical weighing scale. The weight as reported on the measuring dial, will wobble around the correct value at first until reaching equilibrium. An example of this is in clinical practice is the direct measurement of arterial pressure with a transducer. The value of the input fluctuates around a central point.

      Drift is the progressive deterioration of a measurement system’s precision. With time, the measurement deviates from the genuine, calibrated value. The graph between this measurement and the real value should, ideally, be linear (e.g. on the y-axis the measured end-tidal CO2 against true value of the end-tidal CO2). Drift is split into three types: zero-offset, gradient, and zonal drift.

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  • Question 25 - With respect to the peripheral nerve stimulators, which one is used to perform...

    Incorrect

    • With respect to the peripheral nerve stimulators, which one is used to perform nerve blocking?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      The nerve stimulators deliver a stimulus lasting for 1-2 milliseconds (not second) to perform nerve blockage.

      There are just 2 leads (not 3); one for the skin and other for the needle.

      Prior to the administration of the local anaesthesia, a current of 0.25 – 0.5 mA (not 1-2mA) at the frequency of 1-2 Hz is preferred.

      If the needle tip is close to the nerve, muscular contraction could be possible at the lowest possible current.

      Insulated needles have improved the block success rate, as the current is only conducting through needle tip.

      Stimulus to the femoral nerve which is placed in the mid lingual line causes withdrawer of the quadriceps and knee extension, that’s the dancing patella ( not plantar flexion).

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  • Question 26 - A 74-year-old with a VVI pacemaker is undergoing a hip replacement.

    Which of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 74-year-old with a VVI pacemaker is undergoing a hip replacement.

      Which of the following is most likely to predispose him to an electrical hazard?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Use of cutting unipolar diathermy

      Explanation:

      A single chamber pacemaker was implanted in the patient. In VVI mode, a pacemaker paces and senses the ventricle while being inhibited by a perceived ventricular event. The most likely electrical hazard from diathermy is electromagnetic interference (EMI).

      EMI has the potential to cause the following: Inhibition of pacing
      Asynchronous pacing
      Reset to backup mode
      Myocardial burns, and
      Trigger VF.

      Diathermy entails the implementation of high-frequency electrical currents to produce heat and either make incisions or induce coagulation. Monopolar cautery involves disposable cautery pencils and electrosurgical diathermy units. In typical monopolar cautery, an electrical plate is placed on the patient’s skin and acts as an electrode, while the current passes between the instrument and the plate. Monopolar diathermy can therefore interfere with implanted metal devices and pacemaker function.

      Bipolar diathermy, where the current passes between the forceps tips and not through the patient and is less likely to generate EMI.

      Whilst the presence of a CVP line may in theory predispose the patient to microshock, the use of prerequisite CF electrical equipment makes this very unlikely. The presence of a CVP line and pacemaker does not therefore unduly increase the risk of an electrical hazard.

      Isolating transformers are used to protect secondary circuits and individuals from electrical shocks. There is no step-up or step-down voltage (i.e. there is a ratio of 1 to 1 between the primary and secondary windings).

      A ground (or earth) wire is normally connected to the metal case of an operating table to protect patients from accidental electrocution. In the event that a fault allows a live wire to make contact with the metal table (broken cable, loose connection etc.) it becomes live. The earth will provide an immediate path for current to safely flow through and so the table remains safe to touch. Being a low resistance path, the earth lets a large current flow through it when the fault occurs ensuring that the fuse or RCD will quickly blow. Without an operating table earth, the patient is not at more risk of an electrical hazard because of the pacemaker.

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  • Question 27 - A 53-year old female with a diagnosis of anaplastic thyroid carcinoma is admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year old female with a diagnosis of anaplastic thyroid carcinoma is admitted in the surgery department for an elective total thyroidectomy with radical neck dissection. The operation is expected to last for 10 hours.

      Which of the following is the most suitable humidifier to use in an anaesthetic circuit for this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heat and moisture exchanger (HME)

      Explanation:

      Adequate humidification is vital to maintain homeostasis of the airway. Heat and moisture exchangers conserve some of the exhaled water, heat and return them to inspired gases. Many heat and moisture exchangers also perform bacterial/viral filtration and prevent inhalation of small particles. Heat and moisture exchangers are also called condenser humidifier, artificial nose, etc. Most of them are disposable devices with exchanging medium enclosed in a plastic housing. For adult and paediatric age group different dead space types are available. Heat and moisture exchangers are helpful during anaesthesia and ventilatory breathing system. To reduce the damage of the upper respiratory tract through cooling and dehydration inspiratory air can be heated and humidified, thus preventing the serious complications. Moreover, they are the most appropriate humidification devices used for routine anaesthesia.

      Gases can be bubbled through water to increase humidity. Passing gas through water at room temperature causes the gas to cool due to latent heat of vaporisation. The water bath can be heated. This improves the efficiency of the device and also reduces the incidence of bacterial colonisation.

      Nebulisers use a venturi system which employs the Bernoulli effect. A gas at high flow passes through a constriction causing the gas to accelerate, reducing its potential energy allowing other gases or liquids to be entrained. This can include medications or in the case of humidification, water vapour. The size of the water droplet produced by nebulisation determines where in the airway it is deposited. Standard nebulisers produced droplets of 4 microns in diameter and these are deposited in the upper airway and trachea. Efficacy can be improved by passing the droplets over an anvil which further reduces particle size. The most efficient form of nebuliser is the ultrasonic nebuliser. Here a transducer immersed in water and vibrated at a frequency of 3MHz produces1-2micron droplets. These particles easily reach the bronchioles and provide excellent humidification.

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  • Question 28 - Concerning the physical principles of temperature measurement by a thermocouple, which of the...

    Incorrect

    • Concerning the physical principles of temperature measurement by a thermocouple, which of the following best describes it?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The bimetallic strip has a junction potential proportional to temperature

      Explanation:

      A thermocouple, or a thermal junction, is temperature measuring device consisting of a pair of dissimilar metal (bimetallic) wires or strips joined together. Typically, copper and constantan (an alloy of 55% copper and 45% nickel) are used. When there is contact between these metals, a small voltage is generated in the order of millivolts. The magnitude of the thermojunction electromotive force (emf) is proportional to applied temperature (the Seebeck effect). This physical principle is applied in the measurement of temperature. The electromotive force at the measuring junction is proportional to temperature.

      Two wires with different coefficients of expansion, joined together, can be used as a switch for thermostatic control.

      Semiconductors are NOT used in thermocouple. The resistance of the measuring junction of a thermocouple is irrelevant.

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  • Question 29 - A 240 volt alternating current (AC) socket from a wall is used to...

    Incorrect

    • A 240 volt alternating current (AC) socket from a wall is used to charge a direct current (DC) cardiac defibrillator.

      Name the electrical component that converts AC to DC.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rectifier

      Explanation:

      There are two types of defibrillators
      AC defibrillator
      DC defibrillator

      AC defibrillator,
      consists of a step-up transformer with primary and secondary winding and two switches. Since secondary coil consists of more turns of wire than the primary coil, it induces larger voltage. A voltage value ranging between 250V to 750V is applied for AC external defibrillator. And used to enable the charging of a capacitor.

      DC defibrillator,
      consists of auto transformer T1 that acts as primary of the high voltage transformer T2. Is an iron core that transfers energy between 2 circuits by electromagnetic induction. Transformers are used to isolate circuits, change impedance and alter voltage output. transformers do not convert AC to DC.

      Diode rectifier composed of 4 diodes made of semiconductor material allows current to flow only in one direction. Alternating current (AC) passing through these diodes produces direct current (DC). Capacitor stores the charge in the form of an electrostatic field.

      Capacitor is used to convert the rectified AC voltage to produce DC voltage but capacitors do not directly convert AC to DC.

      Inductor induces a counter electromotive force(emf) that reduces the capacitor discharge value.

      In step-down transformer primary coils has more turns of wire than secondary coil, so induced voltage is smaller in the secondary coil.

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  • Question 30 - Among the following, which statement is true regarding electrical safety in an operation...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following, which statement is true regarding electrical safety in an operation theatre?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The higher the frequency of the current the less risk to the patient

      Explanation:

      The operating theatre is an unusual place with several applications of electrical equipment to the human body. This can lead to potential dangers associated with it that need to be prevented. Electrical safety in the operation theatre is the understanding of how these potential dangers can occur and how they can be prevented.

      Electricity can cause morbidity or mortality by one of the following ways:
      (i) electrocution
      (ii) burns
      (iii) ignition of a flammable material, causing a fire or explosion.

      Electrocution is dependant on factors like duration of contact with electric current, the current pathway and the frequency and size of current.

      Option A: The higher the frequency, the less effects of electrocution on the body.

      Option B & D: Equipment can be classified in classes and types.
      The class designation describes the method used for protection against electrocution. Class I is basic protection, class II is double insulation and class III is safety extra low voltage.
      The type designation describes the degree of protection based on the maximum permissible leakage currents under normal and fault conditions.
      Type B:
      can be class I, II or III but the maximum leakage current must not exceed 100 µA. It is therefore not suitable for direct connection to the heart.
      Type BF
      Similar to type B, but uses an isolated (or floating) circuit.
      Type CF
      Only type CF protect against microshock as they allow leakage currents of 0.05 mA per electrode for class I and 0.01 mA for class II. Microshock is a small leakage current that can cause harm because of direct connection to the heart via transvenous lines or wires, bypassing the impedance of the skin, leading to ventricular fibrillation. Microshock current of 100 ?A is sufficient to cause VF.

      Option C: A 75mA electrocution can cause ventricular fibrillation. Use the following as a general guide to understand the effect of current size on the body.
      1 mA – tingling pain
      5 mA – pain
      15 mA – tonic muscular contraction
      50 mA – respiratory muscle paralysis
      75 mA – ventricular fibrillation.

      Option E: Wet skin reduces the resistance to current flow and therefore increases the effects of electrocution.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anaesthesia Related Apparatus (1/7) 14%
Passmed