00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 0 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old woman presents with coughing up copious sputum with blood streaks, increased...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with coughing up copious sputum with blood streaks, increased breathlessness, and finger clubbing. She has a history of chronic cough. What is the initial investigation?

      Your Answer: Chest x-ray

      Explanation:

      Finger clubbing and past history suggest a chronic pulmonary process going on. A CXR will allow the pathology to be visualised including any infective or cancerous causes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 60-year-old male complained of pain and redness at the metatarsophalangeal joints of...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old male complained of pain and redness at the metatarsophalangeal joints of left big toe. He was on treatment for hypertension. Which of the following antihypertensive drugs is responsible for the above symptom?

      Your Answer: Losartan

      Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Explanation:

      The clinical diagnosis is acute gout. According to the latest research diuretics, β blockers, angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors, and non-losartan angiotensin II receptor blockers are associated with an increased risk of gout, as those drugs increase serum uric acid levels. Calcium channel blockers and losartan are associated with a lower risk. Thiazide diuretics have the highest association with gout.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      261
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A patient who has recently been diagnosed with SLE undergoes serum testing. A...

    Correct

    • A patient who has recently been diagnosed with SLE undergoes serum testing. A rise in which of the following antibodies would indicate severe systemic involvement?

      Your Answer: Anti double-stranded DNA antibodies

      Explanation:

      Anti ds-DNA antibodies are very specific for SLE and their presence most often indicates systemic spread of the disease. These antibodies are present in about 30 percent of the total cases of SLE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      31.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 50-year-old man presented with polyuria and orthostatic hypotension. Which of the following...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man presented with polyuria and orthostatic hypotension. Which of the following medications is the most likely to be associated with this condition?

      Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Explanation:

      Bendroflumethiazide is known to cause photosensitive rash as part of an allergic reaction during which the person might also have wheezing, chest tightness or dyspnoea. The rash typically occurs on the areas of body exposed to the sun, like the back, hands, arms and legs.
      Comparatively, digoxin produces a rash that comprises of nearly the whole body.
      Atenolol may also cause skin rash but that is not photosensitive.
      Clopidogrel might produce an non-photosensitive urticarial rash.
      Ezetimibe causes a severe allergic reaction but only rarely. This rash is also non-photosensitive and is in the form of blisters, associated with itching.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 70-year-old male presents with chest pain. His past medical history includes hypertension...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old male presents with chest pain. His past medical history includes hypertension and angina. He continues to smoke about 20 cigarettes per day despite being advised about lifestyle modifications.
      Blood investigations obtained in the emergency department show:

      Na+: 133 mmol/l
      K+: 3.3 mmol/l
      Urea: 4.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine: 90 μmol/l

      Which among the following is the most likely explanation for the abnormalities seen in the above investigations?

      Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide therapy

      Explanation:

      The blood investigations in this patient reveal hyponatremia as well as hypokalaemia. Among the options provided, Bendroflumethiazide therapy can cause the above presentation with the electrolyte disturbances.
      Note:
      – Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that is associated with hyperkalaemia.
      – Enalapril therapy can cause side effects of dizziness, hypotension, cough, and rarely a rash.
      – Felodipine therapy can cause side effects of dizziness, headache, cough, and palpitations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      81.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 55-year-old male presents with complaints suggestive of erectile dysfunction. He also provides...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male presents with complaints suggestive of erectile dysfunction. He also provides a history of ischaemic heart disease for which he is under treatment. The GP decides to start him on sildenafil citrate. Which of the following medications may contraindicate the use of sildenafil in this patient?

      Your Answer: Nebivolol

      Correct Answer: Nicorandil

      Explanation:

      The use of nitrates and nicorandil concomitantly with sildenafil citrate is contraindicated.

      Sildenafil (Viagra) is a phosphodiesterase type V inhibitor used in the treatment of impotence.

      Contraindications
      – Patients taking nitrates and related drugs such as nicorandil
      – Hypotension
      – Recent stroke or myocardial infarction (NICE recommend waiting 6 months)

      Side-effects:
      Visual disturbances e.g. cyanopsia, non-arthritic anterior ischaemic Neuropathy
      Nasal congestion
      Flushing
      Gastrointestinal side-effects
      Headache

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      80
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old female patient is started on cyclophosphamide for vasculitis associated with Wegener's...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old female patient is started on cyclophosphamide for vasculitis associated with Wegener's granulomatosis. Which of the following adverse effects is most characteristically associated with cyclophosphamide use?

      Your Answer: Ototoxicity

      Correct Answer: Haemorrhagic cystitis

      Explanation:

      Cyclophosphamide is a cytotoxic alkylating agent that acts by causing cross-linking of DNA strands. Its major adverse effects include haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, and transitional cell carcinoma.

      Cardiomyopathy is caused by doxorubicin and ototoxicity is caused by cisplatin. Alopecia and weight gain are associated with a variety of chemotherapeutic agents especially those that treat breast cancers (e.g. paclitaxel).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      436.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 53-year-old diabetic man presents to the emergency with pain in left loin...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old diabetic man presents to the emergency with pain in left loin and haematuria that was sudden in onset. Investigations revealed an 8mm stone in the left lower ureter. Supportive therapy was initiated with nifedipine and steroids. The patients returned to the emergency with vomiting and worsening pain and passage of two stones. Renal function tests are significant for an impending ARF. Which of the following steps would be employed in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Start alpha blocker

      Correct Answer: Percutaneous nephrostomy

      Explanation:

      Nephrolithiasis encompasses the formation of all types of urinary calculi in the kidney, which may deposit along the entire urogenital tract from the renal pelvis to the urethra. Nephrolithiasis manifests as sudden onset colicky flank pain that may radiate to the groin, testes, or labia (renal/ureteric colic) and is usually associated with haematuria.
      Risk factors include low fluid intake, high-sodium, high-purine, and low-potassium diets, which can raise the calcium, uric acid, and oxalate levels in the urine and thereby promote stone formation.
      Diagnostics include noncontrast spiral CT of the abdomen and pelvis or ultrasound to detect the stone, as well as urinalysis to assess for concomitant urinary tract infection and serum BUN/creatinine to evaluate kidney function. Urinary stones are most commonly composed of calcium oxalate. Less common stones are made up of uric acid, struvite (due to infection with urease-producing bacteria), calcium phosphate, or cystine.
      Small uncomplicated stones without concurrent infection or severe dilation of the urinary tract may be managed conservatively with hydration and analgesics to promote spontaneous stone passage. When the spontaneous passage appears unlikely or fails due to the stone’s size or location, first-line urological interventions include shock wave lithotripsy, ureterorenoscopy, and, in case of large kidney stones, percutaneous nephrolithotomy. The most important preventive measure is adequate hydration.
      Collected stones should be sent for chemical analysis because in many cases specific lifestyle guidance, diet changes, and/or initiation of medical treatment (e.g., thiazide diuretics, urine alkalinisation) can prevent future stone formation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      516.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 45-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism, presents with ptosis and muscle...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism, presents with ptosis and muscle weakness. She's noticed that her muscle weakness becomes worse towards the end of the day. Clinical examination reveals fatigable ptosis and proximal limb weakness. Myasthenia gravis is suspected. Which receptor is implicated in the pathophysiology of this condition?

      Your Answer: Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors

      Explanation:

      Myasthenia gravis (MG) is an organ-specific autoimmune disease caused by an antibody-mediated assault on the muscle nicotinic acetylcholine receptor (AChR) at the neuromuscular junction. Binding of antibodies to the AChR leads to loss of functional AChRs and impairs the neuromuscular signal transmission, resulting in muscular weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune System
      29.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A woman presents with several painful ulcers on her vulva. What do you...

    Correct

    • A woman presents with several painful ulcers on her vulva. What do you think has most likely caused this?

      Your Answer: HSV

      Explanation:

      Genital herpes is a sexually transmitted disease (STD). This STD causes herpetic sores, which are painful blisters (fluid-filled bumps) that can break open and ooze fluid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 61-year-old female presents to the A&E with malaise and muscle twitching. Her...

    Correct

    • A 61-year-old female presents to the A&E with malaise and muscle twitching. Her blood pressure is 114/78 mmHg and her pulse is 84/min. Blood exam reveals Calcium = 1.94 mmol/l and Albumin = 38 g/l. Which of the following tests is most useful in establishing her diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Parathyroid hormone

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      36.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 27-year-old woman is admitted on the medical intake. She is 10 weeks...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman is admitted on the medical intake. She is 10 weeks postpartum and has been generally unwell for two weeks with malaise, sweating and anxiety.
      On examination, she is hemodynamically stable and clinically euthyroid.
      TFTs show the following:
      Free T4 33 pmol/L (9-23)
      Free T3 8 nmol/L (3.5-6)
      TSH <0.02 mU/L (0.5-5)

      What is the appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Propranolol 20 mg tds

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely to have Postpartum thyroiditis which goes through 2 phases; hypothyroid and a hyperthyroid phase.
      The hyperthyroid phase of postpartum thyroiditis occurs between 2 and 10 months postpartum. Most commonly, it presents at 3 months. Symptoms more common in women with hyperthyroid postpartum thyroiditis include palpitations, fatigue, heat intolerance, and irritability/nervousness. The frequency of asymptomatic hyperthyroidism is 33%.
      Untreated, the hyperthyroidism resolves spontaneously within 2-3 months. This phase is diagnosed by the combination of a low serum TSH concentration in the presence of thyroid peroxidase antibodies, in women who are TSH receptor antibody-negative. Free T4 levels are typically elevated but may be normal.
      Treatment of hyperthyroidism, when necessary, is based on symptom severity and should be a joint decision of patient and physician. Beta-blockers such as propranolol are given to alleviate palpitations, irritability, and nervousness. The morbidity associated with treatment is the side effects of beta-blockade. The downside of withholding treatment is allowing the woman to remain symptomatic. Antithyroid medicines (thioureas) are not a potential treatment alternative, because the hyperthyroidism is caused by destructive thyroiditis resulting in the release of preformed thyroid hormone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      24.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 54-year-old female has complained of a sudden and severe pain on the...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old female has complained of a sudden and severe pain on the left side of her skull. She is also experiencing pain in and around her jaw. What is the most appropriate next step in her treatment?

      Your Answer: CT

      Correct Answer: ESR

      Explanation:

      A diagnosis of giant cell arteritis or temporal arteritis is likely here as many points favour it. She is over 50 years old, is female, has severe pain in the left half of her skull, and is complaining of pain around the jaw (jaw claudication).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following statements is the most characteristic of primary Raynaud's phenomenon?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is the most characteristic of primary Raynaud's phenomenon?

      Your Answer: Fingers are symmetrically involved during an attack

      Explanation:

      A typical attack may last less than an hour but can also persist for longer. In primary Raynaud’s, attacks are more likely symmetric, episodic, and without evidence of peripheral vascular disease. Patients more commonly have a negative ANA and normal inflammatory markers. There should be no evidence of tissue gangrene, digital pitting, or tissue injury in primary Raynaud’s. In contrast, patients with secondary Raynaud’s will describe attacks that are more frequent, painful, often asymmetric and may lead to digital ulcerations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      113.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 25-year-old lady with a history of ulcerative colitis presents to clinic. She...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old lady with a history of ulcerative colitis presents to clinic. She had extensive colitis 10 years ago, which has improved with medical treatment. Last year she had been diagnosed with primary sclerosing cholangitis. Her last colonoscopy was 6 months ago, which detected no active disease, and random biopsies were normal. She is remaining well and asymptomatic.

      When should colonic screening be performed on this patient?

      Your Answer: Colonoscopy should be performed annually

      Explanation:

      Colonoscopy screening should begin 10 years after the first diagnosis in ulcerative colitis, given the increased risk for colon cancer. Given that she has developed primary sclerosing cholangitis, her risk of colon cancer is even higher. Colonoscopy screening should occur at 3 year intervals in the second decade, 2 year intervals in the third decade, and 1 year intervals by the first decade, making A the correct answer choice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      1717.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 21 year-old male, who is a known alcoholic, presents with a fever,...

    Correct

    • A 21 year-old male, who is a known alcoholic, presents with a fever, haemoptysis, green sputum and an effusion clinically. There is concern that it may be an empyema.
       
      Which test would be most useful to resolve the suspicion?

      Your Answer: Pleural fluid pH

      Explanation:

      If a pleural effusion is present, a diagnostic thoracentesis may be performed and analysed for pH, lactate dehydrogenase, glucose levels, specific gravity, and cell count with differential. Pleural fluid may also be sent for Gram stain, culture, and sensitivity. Acid-fast bacillus testing may also be considered and the fluid may be sent for cytology if cancer is suspected.

      The following findings are suggestive of an empyema or parapneumonic effusion that will likely need a chest tube or pigtail catheter for complete resolution:
      -Grossly purulent pleural fluid
      -pH level less than 7.2
      -WBC count greater than 50,000 cells/µL (or polymorphonuclear leukocyte count of 1,000 IU/dL)
      -Glucose level less than 60 mg/dL
      -Lactate dehydrogenase level greater than 1,000 IU/mL
      -Positive pleural fluid culture

      The most often used golden criteria for empyema are pleural effusion with macroscopic presence of pus, a positive Gram stain or culture of pleural fluid, or a pleural fluid pH under 7.2 with normal peripheral blood ph.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      797.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following is least associated with lead poisoning? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is least associated with lead poisoning?

      Your Answer: Acute glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      Lead poisoning is characterised by abdominal pain, fatigue, constipation, peripheral neuropathy (mainly motor), and blue lines on gum margin in 20% of the adult patients (very rare in children).

      For diagnosis, the level of lead in blood is usually considered with levels greater than 10 mcg/dL being significant. Furthermore, the blood film shows microcytic anaemia and basophilic stippling of red blood cells. Urinary coproporphyrin is increased (urinary porphobilinogen and uroporphyrin levels are normal to slightly increased). Raised serum and urine levels of delta-aminolaevulinic acid may also be seen, making it sometimes difficult to differentiate from acute intermittent porphyria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      118.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 38-year-old female patient is brought into the emergency department with a 5...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old female patient is brought into the emergency department with a 5 day history of altered personality, and visual and auditory hallucinations. On palpation of the abdomen, a mass is felt in the left iliac fossa. Ultrasound of the abdomen suggests a left ovarian tumour. Her basic observations are as follows:


      Oxygen saturation 99% on air
      Heart rate 98 beats/minute
      Respiratory rate 28 breaths/minute
      Temperature 37.9 °C

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rabies

      Correct Answer: Anti-NMDA receptor encephalitis

      Explanation:

      The case presents with an underlying ovarian tumour, associated with psychiatric symptoms; thus, an organic illness must first be ruled out before considering the other conditions listed which often present with psychiatric features without an underlying organic disease. Among the listed conditions Anti-NMDA receptor encephalitis is the only condition that presents with psychiatric features including agitation, hallucinations, delusions and disordered thinking that is associated with tumours 50% of the time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      103.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - There is a measure of dispersion of a set of data from its...

    Correct

    • There is a measure of dispersion of a set of data from its mean. Which of following is the best term which can describe the above?

      Your Answer: Standard deviation (root mean square deviation)

      Explanation:

      Standard deviation is defined as the measure of dispersion of a set of data from its mean. It measures the absolute variability of a distribution; the higher the dispersion or variability, the greater is the standard deviation and greater will be the magnitude of the deviation of the value from their mean.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      86
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A number of tests have been ordered for a 49-year-old male who has...

    Incorrect

    • A number of tests have been ordered for a 49-year-old male who has systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). He was referred to the clinic because he has increased shortness of breath. One test in particular is transfer factor of the lung for carbon monoxide (TLCO), which is elevated. Which respiratory complication of SLE is associated with this finding?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary embolism

      Correct Answer: Alveolar haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Alveolar haemorrhage (AH) is a rare, but serious manifestation of SLE. It may occur early or late in disease evolution. Extrapulmonary disease may be minimal and may be masked in patients who are already receiving immunosuppressants for other symptoms of SLE.

      DLCO or TLCO (diffusing capacity or transfer factor of the lung for carbon monoxide (CO)) is the extent to which oxygen passes from the air sacs of the lungs into the blood.
      Factors that can increase the DLCO include polycythaemia, asthma (can also have normal DLCO) and increased pulmonary blood volume as occurs in exercise. Other factors are left to right intracardiac shunting, mild left heart failure (increased blood volume) and alveolar haemorrhage (increased blood available for which CO does not have to cross a barrier to enter).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      99
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory System (2/3) 67%
Pharmacology (1/3) 33%
Musculoskeletal System (2/2) 100%
Emergency & Critical Care (2/3) 67%
Haematology & Oncology (1/2) 50%
Renal System (0/1) 0%
Immune System (1/1) 100%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Endocrine System & Metabolism (1/1) 100%
Gastrointestinal System (1/1) 100%
Nervous System (0/1) 0%
Evidence Based Medicine (1/1) 100%
Passmed