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  • Question 1 - An experiment is carried out to observe engulfment and phagocytosis of microbes. Strep...

    Correct

    • An experiment is carried out to observe engulfment and phagocytosis of microbes. Strep pneumoniae are added to a solution of leukocytes with a substance added to enhance the process of phagocytosis. What is this substance?

      Your Answer: Complement C3b

      Explanation:

      C3b is cleaved from C3 complement with the help of the enzyme C3- convertase. It binds to the cell surface of the offending substance and opsonizes it. This makes it easy for the phagocytes to detect and eliminate them.

      IgM does not act as an opsonin but igG does.

      Selectins aid leukocytes to bind to the endothelial surfaces.

      C5a is a chemo-attractant and histamine a vasodilator.

      NADPH oxidises offending substance after phagocytosis within the macrophage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      23.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following accumulates within a cell due to the aging process?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following accumulates within a cell due to the aging process?

      Your Answer: Hemosiderin

      Correct Answer: Lipofuscin

      Explanation:

      Lipofuscin , also known as lipochrome, is a wear and tear pigment or an aging pigment. It represents free radical injury or lipid peroxidation. On microscopic examination is appears as a yellowish brown pigment around the nucleus (perinuclear pigment). It is often seen in cells which are undergoing regressive changes, commonly in the liver and heart of old patients or patients with cancer, cachexia or severe malnutrition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Pathology
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following diseases affects young adults, causing pain in any bone...

    Correct

    • Which of the following diseases affects young adults, causing pain in any bone -particularly long bones- which worsens at night, and is typically relieved by common analgesics, such as aspirin?

      Your Answer: Osteoid osteoma

      Explanation:

      Osteoid osteoma, which tends to affect young adults, can occur in any bone but is most common in long bones. It can cause pain (usually worse at night) that is typically relieved by mild analgesics, such as non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. X-ray findings include a small radiolucent zone surrounded by a larger sclerotic zone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Myoglobin is released as a result of rhabdomyolysis from damaged skeletal muscles. What...

    Incorrect

    • Myoglobin is released as a result of rhabdomyolysis from damaged skeletal muscles. What function do they perform in the muscle?

      Your Answer: Acts as a cytochrome

      Correct Answer: Acts like haemoglobin and binds with O2

      Explanation:

      Myoglobin is a pigmented globular protein made up of 153 amino acids with a prosthetic group containing haem around which the apoprotein folds. It is the primary oxygen carrying protein of the muscles. The binding of oxygen to myoglobin is unaffected by the oxygen pressure as it has an instant tendency to bind given its hyperbolic oxygen curve. It releases oxygen at very low pO2 levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      25.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - An 18 -year-old female is diagnosed with folliculitis in the left axilla. What...

    Correct

    • An 18 -year-old female is diagnosed with folliculitis in the left axilla. What is the most likely organism that could cause this condition?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Folliculitis is the inflammation of the hair follicles. It is usually caused by Staphylococcus infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The neurotransmitters adrenaline, noradrenaline and dopamine are derived from which amino acid? ...

    Correct

    • The neurotransmitters adrenaline, noradrenaline and dopamine are derived from which amino acid?

      Your Answer: Tyrosine

      Explanation:

      Tyrosine is the precursor to adrenaline, noradrenaline and dopamine. Tyrosine hydroxylase converts tyrosine to DOPA, which is in turn converted to dopamine, then to noradrenaline and finally adrenaline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Where do the cells belonging to the mononuclear phagocyte system originate? ...

    Correct

    • Where do the cells belonging to the mononuclear phagocyte system originate?

      Your Answer: Bone marrow

      Explanation:

      The macrophage originates from a committed bone marrow stem cell. It is called the pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell. This differentiates into a monoblast and then into a promonocyte and finally matures into a monocyte. When called upon they leave the bone marrow and enter into the circulation. Upon entering the tissue they transform into macrophages. Tissue macrophages include: Kupffer cells (liver), alveolar macrophages (lung), osteoclasts (bone), Langerhans cells (skin), microglial cells (central nervous system), and possibly the dendritic immunocytes of the dermis, spleen and lymph nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The absence of which of the following components characterizes the grey platelet syndrome...

    Correct

    • The absence of which of the following components characterizes the grey platelet syndrome (GPS)?

      Your Answer: Alpha granules

      Explanation:

      Grey platelet syndrome (GPS) is a rare inherited bleeding disorder associated with an almost total absence of α-granules and their contents. The syndrome is characterised by thrombocytopenia, enlarged platelets that have a grey appearance, myelofibrosis, and splenomegaly. Alpha granules store proteins and growth factors that promote platelet adhesiveness and wound healing. Patients with GPS develop symptoms and signs such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding, and nose bleeds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A drug abuser developed an infection which spread from the dorsum of the...

    Incorrect

    • A drug abuser developed an infection which spread from the dorsum of the hand to the medial side of the arm along the course of the large cutaneous vein. Which vein is involved?

      Your Answer: Brachial

      Correct Answer: Basilic

      Explanation:

      The basilic vein is one of two veins found in the forearm, the other is the cephalic vein. These veins originate from the deep venous arch of the hand. The cephalic vein ascends along the lateral side of the forearm, and the basilic vein runs up the medial side of the forearm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      31.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - In what form are fats primarily transported in the body? ...

    Incorrect

    • In what form are fats primarily transported in the body?

      Your Answer: Triglycerides

      Correct Answer: Free fatty acids

      Explanation:

      Fat is mainly transported in the body as free fatty acids. Once out of the adipose cell, the free fatty acids get ionized and combine with albumin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A surgeon performing a thymectomy to remove a malignant thymoma is careful to...

    Correct

    • A surgeon performing a thymectomy to remove a malignant thymoma is careful to avoid damaging an important nerve lying around the arch of the aorta. Which nerve is the surgeon trying to preserve?

      Your Answer: Left Vagus

      Explanation:

      The left vagus nerve lies on the lateral surface of the aortic arch. The left recurrent laryngeal nerve arises from the vagus and loops around the arch of the aorta. This nerve is at risk of injury during surgery.

      The right and left phrenic nerves, being lateral to the vagus, do not loop around the arch of the aorta.

      The sympathetic trunks, both right and left, are located in the posterior chest; not near the aortic arch.

      The right vagus: not involved with the aortic arch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      25.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - During a normal respiratory exhalation, what is the recoil alveolar pressure? ...

    Incorrect

    • During a normal respiratory exhalation, what is the recoil alveolar pressure?

      Your Answer: –10 cmH2O

      Correct Answer: +10 cmH2O

      Explanation:

      To determine compliance of the respiratory system, changes in transmural pressures (in and out) immediately across the lung or chest cage (or both) are measured simultaneously with changes in lung or thoracic cavity volume. Changes in lung or thoracic cage volume are determined using a spirometer with transmural pressures measured by pressure transducers. For the lung alone, transmural pressure is calculated as the difference between alveolar (pA; inside) and intrapleural (ppl; outside) pressure. To calculate chest cage compliance, transmural pressure is ppl (inside) minus atmospheric pressure (pB; outside). For the combined lung–chest cage, transmural pressure or transpulmonary pressure is computed as pA – pB. pA pressure is determined by having the subject deeply inhale a measured volume of air from a spirometer. Under physiological conditions the transpulmonary or recoil pressure is always positive; intrapleural pressure is always negative and relatively large, while alveolar pressure moves from slightly negative to slightly positive as a person breathes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following structures is affected or damaged when the 'anterior drawer...

    Correct

    • Which of the following structures is affected or damaged when the 'anterior drawer test' is positive?

      Your Answer: Anterior cruciate ligament

      Explanation:

      The anterior drawer test is an important orthopaedic test that is used to test weakness of the anterior cruciate ligament. The test is done by having the patient sit in a supine position with his/her knees flexed at 90 degrees. An examiner stabilises the patients feet and softly pulls or pushes on the proximal tibia. The test is positive if there is translational movement of the tibia in relation to the femur, indicating a weakened anterior cruciate ligament. The anterior cruciate ligament prevents the tibia from sliding out in front of the femur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - The otic ganglion receives its preganglionic sympathetic fibres from which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • The otic ganglion receives its preganglionic sympathetic fibres from which of the following nerves?

      Your Answer: Chorda tympani nerve

      Correct Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The otic ganglion is a small (2–3 mm), oval shaped, flattened parasympathetic ganglion of a reddish-grey colour, located immediately below the foramen ovale in the infratemporal fossa and on the medial surface of the mandibular nerve. The preganglionic parasympathetic fibres originate in the inferior salivatory nucleus of the glossopharyngeal nerve. They leave the glossopharyngeal nerve by its tympanic branch and then pass via the tympanic plexus and the lesser petrosal nerve to the otic ganglion. Here, the fibres synapse, and the postganglionic fibres pass by communicating branches to the auriculotemporal nerve, which conveys them to the parotid gland. They produce vasodilator and secretomotor effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following mediators of inflammation requires arachidonic acid for synthesis? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following mediators of inflammation requires arachidonic acid for synthesis?

      Your Answer: Prostaglandins

      Explanation:

      Arachidonic acid is normally present in the phospholipids that make up the cell membrane and is cleaved by phospholipase A2 from the phospholipid. Arachidonic acid is a precursor for the production of eicosanoids which include: 1) prostaglandins, prostacyclins and thromboxane, 2) leukotrienes and 3) anandamides. The production of these products along with their action on the body is called the arachidonic acid cascade.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which one of the following is a derivative of the midgut? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following is a derivative of the midgut?

      Your Answer: Caecum

      Explanation:

      The primary intestinal loop is formed from the midgut which gives rise to the distal half of the duodenum, the jejunum, ascending colon, proximal two thirds of the transverse colon and the ileum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Embryology
      29.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which muscles are attached to the tibial tuberosity? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which muscles are attached to the tibial tuberosity?

      Your Answer: Pectineus

      Correct Answer: Vastus intermedius

      Explanation:

      The tuberosity of the tibia is the site of attachment to the ligamentum patella (the tendon of the quadriceps femoris muscle which include four heads: rectus femoris, vastus medialis, intermedius and lateralis).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      40.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 90-year-old man is prescribed spironolactone after his family notices his legs are...

    Correct

    • A 90-year-old man is prescribed spironolactone after his family notices his legs are swollen. What class of drugs does spironolactone belong to?

      Your Answer: Potassium-sparing diuretics

      Explanation:

      Spironolactone is a renal competitive aldosterone antagonist in a class of drugs called ‘potassium-sparing diuretics’, that is primarily used to treat fluid build-up due to heart failure, liver scarring, or kidney disease. It is also used in the treatment of high blood pressure, low blood potassium, early-onset puberty, and acne and excessive hair growth in women. Spironolactone inhibits the effect of aldosterone by competing for intracellular aldosterone receptors in the distal tubule cells. This increases the secretion of water and sodium, while decreasing the excretion of potassium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What percentage of cardiac output is delivered to the skin? ...

    Correct

    • What percentage of cardiac output is delivered to the skin?

      Your Answer: 2%

      Explanation:

      Making up 4-5% of total body weight, the skin receives approximately 2% of cardiac output.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A chest X-ray in a healthy, non-smoker, asymptomatic 48-year-old woman reveals a 2cm...

    Incorrect

    • A chest X-ray in a healthy, non-smoker, asymptomatic 48-year-old woman reveals a 2cm left lower lobe well-defined round opacity. Which of the following conditions is most probably responsible for this finding?

      Your Answer: Bronchial carcinoid

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary hamartoma

      Explanation:

      An asymptomatic healthy patient with no history of smoking and a lesion of small size most probably has a benign lung lesion. Hamartomas are one of the most common benign tumours of the lung that accounts for approximately 6% of all solitary pulmonary nodules. Pulmonary hamartomas are usually asymptomatic and therefore are found incidentally when performing an imaging test for other reasons.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Respiratory
      14.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Inflammation & Immunology (3/3) 100%
Pathology (7/9) 78%
Cell Injury & Wound Healing (0/1) 0%
Orthopaedics (1/1) 100%
General (0/1) 0%
Physiology (2/5) 40%
Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Endocrine (1/1) 100%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Anatomy (3/6) 50%
Upper Limb (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Thorax (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (0/2) 0%
Lower Limb (1/2) 50%
Head & Neck (0/1) 0%
Embryology (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Passmed