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  • Question 1 - An 80-year-old woman is admitted with a right lower lobe pneumonia. There is...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman is admitted with a right lower lobe pneumonia. There is consolidation and a moderate sized pleural effusion on the same side. An ultrasound guided pleural fluid aspiration is performed. The appearance of the fluid is clear and is sent off for culture. Whilst awaiting the culture results, which one of the following is the most important factor when determining whether a chest tube should be placed?

      Your Answer: pH of the pleural fluid

      Explanation:

      In adult practice, biochemical analysis of pleural fluid plays an important part in the management of pleural effusions. Protein levels or Light’s criteria differentiate exudates from transudates, while infection is indicated by pleural acidosis associated with raised LDH and low glucose levels. In terms of treatment, the pH may even guide the need for tube drainage, suggested by pH <7.2 in an infected effusion, although the absolute protein values are of no value in determining the likelihood of spontaneous resolution or chest drain requirements. pH is therefore the most important factor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      83.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 40-year-old male is awaiting a liver biopsy. Which of the following is...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old male is awaiting a liver biopsy. Which of the following is the most important investigation that has to be performed prior to the procedure?

      Your Answer: Coagulation profile

      Explanation:

      As the liver is highly vascular, there is a high risk of bleeding during and after the procedure. Patients may have existing liver diseases, which affect the production of clotting factors. So a coagulation profile is necessary to detect any abnormality and correct them prior to the liver biopsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary System
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - From the list of options, choose the least useful therapy in preventing oesophageal...

    Incorrect

    • From the list of options, choose the least useful therapy in preventing oesophageal variceal bleeding in portal hypertension.

      Your Answer: Nadolol

      Correct Answer: Variceal sclerotherapy

      Explanation:

      Selective beta blockade and nitrates help to reduce portal pressure and therefore reduce the risk of bleeding (as does banding). Moreover, sclerotherapy, despite its use, has not actually been shown to reduce the risk of bleedings as primary prevention – however, it may reduce the risk of rebleeding after an index bleed. The mortality of variceal bleedings is known to be 50% at each episode.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      34.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 40-year-old female is suffering from chronic cough. Which of the following additional...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old female is suffering from chronic cough. Which of the following additional symptoms will strongly indicate that she has asthma?

      Your Answer: Symptoms in response to exercise

      Explanation:

      An attack of asthma is characterized by severe dyspnoea accompanied by wheezing. During an attack, the person experiences breathing difficulty during inspiration and expiration, but might feel completely well between attacks. An attack can be triggered by factors like cold, dry air, tobacco smoke, pollen, pet dander, as well as stressful situations like exercise. Dizziness, voice disturbances, and coryzal illness are not features of asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      68.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 65-year-old female complains of pain and stiffness in her shoulders. She also...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old female complains of pain and stiffness in her shoulders. She also finds it difficult to get out of her chair. From the list of symptoms below, choose the one most likely to support the diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica.

      Your Answer: Muscle tenderness

      Correct Answer: Low grade fever

      Explanation:

      Polymyalgia rheumatica is an inflammatory disease which usually causes stiffness and pain in the shoulder – this can also occur in the pelvic girdle muscles. Its onset can either be subacute or acute and is associated with a systemic inflammatory response. This, therefore, causes symptoms such as fever, weight loss, anorexia, and malaise. Polymyalgia rheumatica is unpredictable in its course and it is known that 30 per cent of patients also present with giant cell arteritis. The cause of this disease is unknown but studies have shown it have infectious origins. Diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica can be difficult and other inflammatory diseases have to be excluded first. Patients with this disease are usually over 60 years of age (it is very rarely seen in those under 50). Muscle weakness does not present, although this can be hard to assess when the patient is in pain. Low-grade fever and weight loss are typical of this disease due to chronic inflammation. As such, weight gain is very rare and peripheral joints are usually not affected (they can be affected but it is very rare). Also, muscle tenderness is not a specific symptom of the disease – it is therefore not a classical finding of polymyalgia rheumatica. Although patients usually complain of stiffness and pain, the muscles are usually not significantly tender – this is usually more associated with fibromyalgia or myositis. When investigated, a normochromic/normocytic anaemia; a raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate often over 50 mm/hr., and raised C reactive protein are usually revealed. Symptoms of giant cell arteritis should also be sought, such as headaches, visual disturbances, TIAs (transient ischemic attacks), jaw claudication, and thickened temporal arteries. The patient response to a moderate dose of steroids is useful when confirming a diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica. The maximum dose of prednisolone should not exceed 20mg once a day. After treatment, patients should show a 70 per cent improvement in symptoms within a month (between 3-4 weeks). Inflammatory markers should also fall back to their normal levels. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatories are of little use and are associated with morbidity. There is also little evidence for the use of steroidal-sparing agents.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatric Medicine
      27.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - While investigating a patient with hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC), blood tests reveal a raised...

    Correct

    • While investigating a patient with hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC), blood tests reveal a raised level of serum ferritin. What would be the most probable cause for HCC in this patient?

      Your Answer: Haemochromatosis

      Explanation:

      Haemochromatosis is the excessive accumulation of iron in the body mainly involving the liver, pancreas, testes, skin etc. Serum ferritin is high indicating iron overload. Haemochromatosis is a known cause for chronic liver cell disease, cirrhosis and HCC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      44.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 21-year-old man presents with a three day history of general malaise and...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old man presents with a three day history of general malaise and low-grade temperature. Yesterday he developed extensive painful ulceration of his mouth and gums. On examination his temperature is 37.4ºC, pulse 84 / min and there is submandibular lymphadenopathy. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Epstein Barr virus

      Correct Answer: Herpes simplex virus infection

      Explanation:

      This man has gingivostomatitis, a characteristic feature of primary herpes simplex virus infection. Herpetic gingivostomatitis is often the initial presentation during the first (primary) herpes simplex infection. It is of greater severity than herpes labialis (cold sores) which is often the subsequent presentations. Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis is the most common viral infection of the mouth.
      Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis (PHGS) is caused predominantly by HSV-1 and affects mainly children. Prodromal symptoms, such as fever, anorexia, irritability, malaise and headache, may occur in advance of disease. Sub-mandibular lymphadenitis, halitosis and refusal to drink are usual concomitant findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      140.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Sensorineural deafness is strongly associated with which one of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • Sensorineural deafness is strongly associated with which one of the following?

      Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus

      Correct Answer: Rubella

      Explanation:

      Primary rubella infection during pregnancy, particularly during the first trimester, can affect several organs and cause birth defects that are responsible for congenital rubella syndrome (CRS). The most common defects of CRS are hearing impairment (unilateral or bilateral sensorineural), eye defects (e.g., cataracts, congenital glaucoma, or pigmentary retinopathy), and cardiac defects (e.g., patent ductus arteriosus or peripheral pulmonic stenosis). Congenital hearing loss is the most common sequela, occurring in approximately 60% of cases, especially when infection occurs in the 4th month of pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      28.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A kidney, ureter, and bladder (KUB) ultrasound for a hypertensive man with a...

    Incorrect

    • A kidney, ureter, and bladder (KUB) ultrasound for a hypertensive man with a BP of 160/90 mmHg and proteinuria++ revealed a decrease in size of the kidneys with smooth borders and normal pelvicalyceal system. What is the cause of hypertension in the patient?

      Your Answer: Essential HTN

      Correct Answer: Chronic glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      Causes of hypertension in bilateral renal artery stenosis are as follows: 90% probable cause is atherosclerosis with manifestations of CAD, TIA or stroke. The other less common cause is fibromuscular dysplasia that includes carotid and vertebral artery with manifestations of headache, TIA, and stroke.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      42.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 34-year-old patient arrives at the clinic with cervical lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. Which...

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old patient arrives at the clinic with cervical lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Lymphomas are a type of cancer that arises from lymphocytes. There are two main types of lymphoma:
      1. Hodgkin lymphomas, which are characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, and
      2. Non-Hodgkin lymphomas (NHLs), which comprise all other types of lymphoma. NHLs are further classified according to the cell type, i.e., B cells, T cells, and natural killer (NK) cells, and tumour grade.
      Low-grade tumours originate from mature cells that have a slow growth rate and an indolent clinical course. The most common low-grade B-cell lymphoma is follicular lymphoma, while the most common low-grade T-cell lymphomas are the cutaneous T-cell lymphomas such as mycosis fungoides. High-grade tumours, on the other hand, have a rapid growth rate and an aggressive clinical course. Certain subtypes of NHL are more common in children and young adults, such as Burkitt lymphoma.
      There is a variety of treatment options, depending on the type of lymphoma. Generally, treatment involves a combination of chemotherapy and radiation therapy. Limited disease low-grade tumours and high-grade NHL are treated with a curative approach. Advanced, low-grade tumours are treated with a palliative approach in symptomatic patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 61-year-old man presented with a TIA and loss of consciousness for 30...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old man presented with a TIA and loss of consciousness for 30 min. His CT brain scan is normal and his ECG shows atrial fibrillation. Which risk assessment score is best used in this case?

      Your Answer: ABCD2

      Correct Answer: CHADS2

      Explanation:

      CHADS2 score provides a comprehensive prediction of thromboembolic events in avalvular AF patients:
      C Congestive heart failure – 1
      H Hypertension: blood pressure consistently above 140/90 mmHg (or treated hypertension on medication) – 1
      A Age >75 years – 1
      D Diabetes mellitus – 1
      S2 Prior Stroke or TIA or Thromboembolism – 2

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      28.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which one of the following statements regarding minimal change glomerulonephritis is incorrect? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding minimal change glomerulonephritis is incorrect?

      Your Answer: Hypertension is found in approximately 25% of patients

      Explanation:

      Hypertension and haematuria are not common presentations in minimal change glomerulonephritis, all other statements are correct.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      35.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 26-year-old graduate student with a history of migraines presents for examination. His...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old graduate student with a history of migraines presents for examination. His headaches are now occurring about once a week. He describes unilateral, throbbing headaches that may last over 24 hours. Neurological examination is unremarkable. Other than a history of asthma, he is fit and well. What is the most suitable therapy to reduce the frequency of migraine attacks?

      Your Answer: Topiramate

      Explanation:

      It should be noted that as a general rule 5-HT receptor agonists are used in the acute treatment of migraine whilst 5-HT receptor antagonists are used in prophylaxis. NICE produced guidelines in 2012 on the management of headache, including migraines. Prophylaxis should be given if patients are experiencing 2 or more attacks per month. Modern treatment is effective in about 60% of patients. NICE advises either topiramate or propranolol ‘according to the person’s preference, comorbidities and risk of adverse events’. Propranolol should be used in preference to topiramate in women of child bearing age as it may be teratogenic and it can reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      359.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 23-year-old female visited the OPD with a complaint of postcoital bleeding as...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old female visited the OPD with a complaint of postcoital bleeding as well as excessive vaginal discharge. Her past medical history is positive for oral contraceptive pills. Which of the following investigations would you recommend in this case?

      Your Answer: Speculum with or without cervical smear

      Explanation:

      A speculum test is necessary in order to visualize the cervix to rule out cervical ectropion that may be responsible for the post-coital bleeding. A smear is not necessary if the cervix is adequately visualized, however, it can rule out infection as well.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Women's Health
      32.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A study is developed to assess a new mandibular advancement device designed to...

    Incorrect

    • A study is developed to assess a new mandibular advancement device designed to reduce snoring. A 10 point scale was used to assess the severity of snoring before and after applying of the device by the respective partner. The number of the people involved in the study was 50. What test would you apply in this particular study?

      Your Answer: Pearson's product-moment coefficient

      Correct Answer: Wilcoxon signed-rank test

      Explanation:

      Steps required in performing the Wilcoxon signed rank test:

      1 State the null hypothesis and, in particular, the hypothesized value for comparison
      2 Rank all observations in increasing order of magnitude, ignoring their sign. Ignore any observations that are equal to the hypothesized value. If two observations have the same magnitude, regardless of sign, then they are given an average ranking
      3 Allocate a sign (+ or -) to each observation according to whether it is greater or less than the hypothesized value (as in the sign test)
      4 Calculate:
      R+ = sum of all positive ranks
      R- = sum of all negative ranks
      R = smaller of R+ and R-
      5 Calculate an appropriate P value What makes this test the most appropriate for this study is that the data is non-parametric, paired and comes from the same population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      280.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - You are reviewing a 70-year-old gentleman who has been suffering from multiple myeloma...

    Correct

    • You are reviewing a 70-year-old gentleman who has been suffering from multiple myeloma for the past 3 years. He presents with lethargy, muscle aches and pain in his lower back.
       
      Arterial blood sampling reveals a metabolic acidosis. Serum potassium is 3.1 mmol/l (3.5-4.9), and urine pH is 5.1 (> 5.3).
       
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Renal tubular acidosis-type II

      Explanation:

      This case is most likely RTA type II, due to decreased proximal bicarbonate reabsorption, which leads to metabolic acidosis, hypokalaemia, hyperchloremia, and <6 urine pH .

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      63.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 35-year-old male was brought to you in a confused state. Although not...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old male was brought to you in a confused state. Although not your patient, you can make out that the man has a history of schizophrenia, and has recently had his medications altered. Clinically, you find evidence of a lower respiratory tract infection, and blood investigations indicate a neutropenic picture.
      What is the most likely drug causing the neutropenia?

      Your Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Clozapine can cause neutropenia or agranulocytosis.

      Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic used in the treatment of schizophrenia, and in patients who are intolerant to, or unresponsive to other antipsychotics.

      It is a weak D2-receptor and D1-receptor blocking activity, with noradrenolytic, anticholinergic, and antihistaminic properties.

      Many antipsychotic drugs can occasionally cause bone marrow depression, but agranulocytosis is particularly associated with clozapine.

      Other side effects include:
      Hypotension, tachycardia
      Fever, sedation, seizures (with high doses)
      Appetite increase
      Constipation
      Heartburn
      Weight gain
      Extrapyramidal symptoms
      Agranulocytosis
      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      89.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - The drug of choice for delirium tremens will be? ...

    Incorrect

    • The drug of choice for delirium tremens will be?

      Your Answer: IV Lorazepam

      Correct Answer: IV Chlordiazepoxide

      Explanation:

      The drugs of choice for delirium tremens are benzodiazepines such as chlordiazepoxide, diazepam or lorazepam. Chlordiazepoxide is a long acting drug and is the preferred drug, before the other benzodiazepines. Barbiturates are the 2nd drugs of choice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 24-year-old gentleman presents with visual loss in his right eye, and this...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old gentleman presents with visual loss in his right eye, and this is diagnosed as optic neuritis.
      Which one of the following statements would be seen in an afferent pupillary defect?

      Your Answer: Accommodation response is unaffected

      Explanation:

      Afferent pupillary defect is simply a delayed pupillary response to light. Accommodation is otherwise unaffected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      84.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A case-control study is being designed to look at the relationship between eczema...

    Incorrect

    • A case-control study is being designed to look at the relationship between eczema and a new vaccine for yellow fever. What is the usual outcome measure in a case-control study?

      Your Answer: Relative risk

      Correct Answer: Odds ratio

      Explanation:

      A case-control study (also known as case-referent study) is a type of observational study in which two existing groups differing in outcome are identified and compared on the basis of some supposed causal attribute. Case-control studies are often used to identify factors that may contribute to a medical condition by comparing subjects who have that condition/disease (the cases) with patients who do not have the condition/disease but are otherwise similar (the controls).
      An odds ratio (OR) is a statistic that quantifies the strength of the association between two events, A and B. The odds ratio is defined as the ratio of the odds of A in the presence of B and the odds of A in the absence of B or vice versa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      23.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory System (2/2) 100%
Hepatobiliary System (1/1) 100%
Gastrointestinal System (1/3) 33%
Geriatric Medicine (0/1) 0%
Infectious Diseases (0/2) 0%
Haematology & Oncology (1/1) 100%
Nervous System (2/4) 50%
Renal System (2/2) 100%
Women's Health (1/1) 100%
Evidence Based Medicine (0/2) 0%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Passmed