00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - Which of the following statement is true regarding hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction (HPV)? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statement is true regarding hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction (HPV)?

      Your Answer: Increases ventilation/perfusion mismatch

      Correct Answer: 20 parts per million (ppm) of nitric oxide will reduce hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction

      Explanation:

      Hypoxic Pulmonary vasoconstriction (HPV) reflects the constriction of small pulmonary arteries in response to hypoxic alveoli (.i.e.; PO2 below 80-100mmHg or 11-13kPa).

      These blood vessels become independent of the nerve stimulus, when blood with a high PO2 flows through the lung which contains a low alveolar PO2.

      Thus a low PO2 within the alveoli has been shown to impact on hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction (HPV) more than a low PO2 within the blood.

      HPV results in the blood flow being directed away from poorly ventilated areas of the lung and helps to reduce the ventilation/perfusion mismatch (not increase).

      In animals, volatile anaesthetic agents can diminish HPV, while in adults, the evidence proves less persuading, in spite of the fact that it certainly doesn’t strengthen the effects.

      HPV response will be suppressed by 20 parts per million (ppm) of nitric oxide.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      27.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You're summoned to the emergency room, where a 39-year-old man has been admitted...

    Incorrect

    • You're summoned to the emergency room, where a 39-year-old man has been admitted following a cardiac arrest. He was rescued from a river, but little else is known about him.

      CPR is being performed on the patient, who has been intubated. He's received three DC shocks and is still in VF. A rectal temperature of 29.5°C is taken with a low-reading thermometer.

      Which of the following statements about his resuscitation is correct?

      Your Answer: The resuscitation should be stopped

      Correct Answer: No further DC shocks and no drugs should be given until his core temperature is greater than 30°C

      Explanation:

      The guidelines for the management of cardiac arrest in hypothermic patients published by the UK Resuscitation Council differ slightly from the standard algorithm.

      In a patient with a core temperature of less than 30°C, do the following:

      If you’re on the shockable side of the algorithm (VF/VT), you should give three DC shocks.
      Further shocks are not recommended until the patient has been rewarmed to a temperature of more than 30°C because the rhythm is refractory and unlikely to change.
      There should be no drugs given because they will be ineffective.

      In a patient with a core temperature of 30°C to 35°C, do the following:

      DC shocks are used as usual.
      Because they are metabolised much more slowly, the time between drug doses should be doubled.

      Active rewarming and protection against hyperthermia should be given to the patient.

      Option e is false because there is insufficient information to determine whether resuscitation should be stopped.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The most abundant intracellular ion is? ...

    Incorrect

    • The most abundant intracellular ion is?

      Your Answer: Sodium

      Correct Answer: Phosphate

      Explanation:

      Phosphate is the principal anion of the intracellular fluid, most of which is bound to either lipids or proteins. They dissociate or associate with different compounds, depending on the enzymatic reaction, thus forming a constantly shifting pool.

      Calcium and magnesium are also present intracellularly, however in lesser amounts than phosphate.

      Sodium is the most abundant extracellular cation, and Chloride and is the most abundant extracellular anion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Anaesthetic awareness is most probable in general anaesthesia for which surgical operation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Anaesthetic awareness is most probable in general anaesthesia for which surgical operation?

      Your Answer: Emergency DC cardioversion

      Correct Answer: Emergency surgery for major trauma

      Explanation:

      Awareness during general anaesthesia is a frightening experience, which may result in serious emotional injury and post-traumatic stress disorder.

      The incidence of awareness during general anaesthesia with current anaesthetic agents and techniques has been reported as 0.2-0.4% in nonobstetric and noncardiac surgery, as 0.4% during caesarean section, and as 1.5% in cardiac surgery.

      The incidence during major trauma surgery is higher. Incidence of recall has been reported to be as high as 11-43% in major trauma cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following statements is true about fluid balance? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true about fluid balance?

      Your Answer: In patients with pathological capillary leakage, the oncotic pressure becomes decreasingly important in determining fluid fluxes

      Correct Answer: After intravenous administration of crystalloids, the distribution of these fluids throughout the body depends on its osmotic activity

      Explanation:

      When there is capillary leakage as seen in dependent oedema or ascites, oncotic pressure becomes a problem.

      The intracellular sodium concentration is very sensitive to the extracellular sodium concentrations. When there is an imbalance, osmosis occurs resulting in shifts in water between the two compartments.

      The microvascular endothelium relies upon osmosis and other processes as it is not freely permeable to water.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      100.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A global cerebral blood flow (CBF) of 35 ml/100 g/min (Normal CBF =...

    Incorrect

    • A global cerebral blood flow (CBF) of 35 ml/100 g/min (Normal CBF = 54 ml/100 g/min) can lead to which of the following?

      Your Answer: Irreversible brain damage

      Correct Answer: Poor prognostic EEG

      Explanation:

      CBF is defined as the blood volume that flows per unit mass per unit time in brain tissue and is typically expressed in units of ml blood/100 g tissue/minute. The normal average CBF in adults human is about 50 ml/100 g/min, with lower values in the white matter (,20 ml/100 g/min) and greater values in the gray matter (,80 ml/100 g/min).

      Low CBF levels between 30-40 ml/100 g/min may begin to show poor prognostic EEG. EEG findings consistently associated with a poor outcome are isoelectric EEG, low voltage EEG, and burst suppression (specifically burst suppression with identical bursts), as well as the absence of EEG reactivity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      26.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - In the fetal circulation, the cerebral and coronary circulations are preferentially supplied by...

    Correct

    • In the fetal circulation, the cerebral and coronary circulations are preferentially supplied by oxygen-rich blood over other organs. This is possible because of which phenomenon?

      Your Answer: Well oxygenated blood from the inferior vena cava is preferentially streamed across the patent foramen ovale

      Explanation:

      During fetal development, blood oxygenated by the placenta flows to the foetus through the umbilical vein, bypasses the fetal liver through the ductus venosus, and returns to the fetal heart through the inferior vena cava.

      Blood returning from the inferior vena cava then enters the right atrium and is preferentially shunted to the left atrium through the patent foramen ovale. Blood in the left atrium is then pumped from the left ventricle to the aorta. The oxygenated blood ejected through the ascending aorta is preferentially directed to the fetal coronary and cerebral circulations.

      Deoxygenated blood returns from the superior vena cava to the right atrium and ventricle to be pumped into the pulmonary artery. Fetal pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR), however, is higher than fetal systemic vascular resistance (SVR); this forces deoxygenated blood to mostly bypass the fetal lungs. This poorly oxygenated blood enters the aorta through the patent ductus arteriosus and mixes with the well-oxygenated blood in the descending aorta. The mixed blood in the descending aorta then returns to the placenta for oxygenation through the two umbilical arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      144
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The passage of glucose into the brain is facilitated by which transport method?...

    Incorrect

    • The passage of glucose into the brain is facilitated by which transport method?

      Your Answer: Passive diffusion

      Correct Answer: Facilitated diffusion

      Explanation:

      Glucose transport is a highly regulated process accomplished mostly by facilitated diffusion using carrier proteins to cross cell membranes.

      There are many transporters, but the most important are known as glucose transporters (GLUTs).

      Stresses in various form of acute and chronic forms affect the activity of glucose transporters.
      They are responsive to many types of metabolic stress, including hypoxia, injury, hypoglycaemia, numerous metabolic inhibitors, stress hormones, and other influences such as growth factors.

      Numerous signalling pathways appear to be involved in transporter regulation.

      New evidence suggests that stresses regulating GLUTs are not only acute biological stresses. In addition, chronic low-grade inflammation, and their associated chronic diseases also lead to altered glucose transport. These include obesity, type 2 diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and the growth and spread of many tumours that are affected by altered glucose transporters. Some of these glucose transport effects are compensatory, while others are pathogenic.

      Ultimately, deliberate manipulation of GLUTs could be used as treatment for some of these chronic diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - One of the non-pharmacologic management of COPD is smoking cessation. Given a case...

    Incorrect

    • One of the non-pharmacologic management of COPD is smoking cessation. Given a case of a 60-year old patient with history of smoking for 30 years and a FEV1 of 70%, what would be the most probable five-year course of his FEV1 if he ceases to smoke?

      Your Answer: The FEV1 will remain the same over time

      Correct Answer: The FEV1 will decrease at the same rate as a non-smoker

      Explanation:

      For this patient, his forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) will decrease at the same rate as a non-smoker.

      There is a notable, but slow, decline in FEV1 when an individual reaches the age of 26. An average reduction of 30 mls every year in non-smokers, while a more significant reduction of 50-70 mls is observed in approximately 20% of smokers.

      Considering the age of the patient, individuals who begin smoking cessation by the age of 60 are far less likely to achieve normal FEV1 levels, even in the next five years. It is expected that their FEV1 will be approximately 14% less than their peers of the same age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      68.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - The following is normally higher in concentration extracellularly than intracellularly ...

    Correct

    • The following is normally higher in concentration extracellularly than intracellularly

      Your Answer: Sodium

      Explanation:

      The ions found in higher concentrations intracellularly than outside the cells are:

      ATP
      AMP
      Potassium
      Phosphate, and
      Magnesium Adenosine diphosphate (ADP)

      Sodium is a primarily extracellular ion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      29.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A morbidly obese (BMI=48) patient has the following co-morbidities: type II diabetes mellitus...

    Correct

    • A morbidly obese (BMI=48) patient has the following co-morbidities: type II diabetes mellitus and hypertension. It is recommended for the patient to undergo bariatric surgery.

      If the patient is laid flat for induction of anaesthesia, what physiologic changes of the respiratory system is the most important to consider?

      Your Answer: Functional residual capacity will decrease

      Explanation:

      A decrease in the functional residual capacity (FRC) is the most important physiologic change to consider for such patients.

      FRC is the sum of the expiratory reserve volume and the residual volume. It is the resting volume of the lung, and is an important marker for lung function. During this time, the alveolar pressure is equal to the atmospheric pressure. When morbidly obese individuals lie supine, the FRC decreases by as much as 40% because the abdominal contents push the diaphragm into the thoracic cavity.

      Chest wall compliance is expected to reduce because of fat deposition surrounding adjacent structures.

      Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is expected to increase, and peak expiratory flow is expected to decrease, however the decrease in FRC is more important to consider because of the risk of hypoxia secondary to premature airway closure and ventilation-perfusion mismatch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      45
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - The biochemical assessment of malnutrition can be measured by the amount of plasma...

    Incorrect

    • The biochemical assessment of malnutrition can be measured by the amount of plasma proteins.

      In acute starvation, which of these plasma proteins is the most sensitive indicator?

      Your Answer: Transferrin

      Correct Answer: Retinol binding globulin

      Explanation:

      The half life of Retinol binding protein (RBP) is 10-12 hours and therefore reflects more acute changes in protein metabolism than any of these proteins. Therefore it is not commonly used as a parameter for nutritional assessment.

      The half life of Transthyretin (thyroxine binding pre-albumin) is only one to two days and so levels are less sensitive and this protein is not an albumin precursor. 15 mg/dL represents early malnutrition and a need for nutritional support.

      Albumin levels have been frequently as a marker of nutrition but this is not a very sensitive marker. It’s half life more than 30 days and significant change takes some time to be noticed. Also, synthesis of albumin is decreased with the onset of the stress response after burns. Unrelated to nutritional status, the synthesis of acute phase proteins increases and that of albumin decreases.

      A more accurate indicator of protein stores is transferrin. It’s response to acute changes in protein status is much faster. The half life of serum transferrin is shorter (8-10 days) and there are smaller body stores than albumin. A low serum transferrin level is below 200 mg/dL and below 100 mg/dL is considered severe. Serum transferrin levels can also affect serum transferrin level.

      Fibronectin is used a nutritional marker but levels decrease after seven days of starvation. It is a glycoprotein which plays a role in enhancing the phagocytosis of foreign particles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - The SI unit of energy is the joule. Energy can be kinetic, potential,...

    Incorrect

    • The SI unit of energy is the joule. Energy can be kinetic, potential, electrical or chemical energy.

      Which of these correlates with the most energy?

      Your Answer: An object with a mass of 1500 kg moving at 30 m/s

      Correct Answer: Energy released when 1 kg fat is metabolised to CO2 and water (the energy content of fat is 37 kJ/g)

      Explanation:

      The derived unit of energy, work or amount of heat is joule (J). It is defined as the amount of energy expended if a force of one newton (N) is applied through a distance of one metre (N·m)

      J = 1 kg·m/s2·m = 1 kg·m2/s2 or 1 kg·m2·s-2

      Kinetic energy (KE) = ½ MV2

      An object with a mass of 1500 kg moving at 30 m/s correlates to 675 kJ:

      KE = ½ (1500) × (30)2 = 750 × 900 = 675 kJ

      Total energy released when 1 kg fat is metabolised to CO2 and water is 37 MJ. 1 g fat produces 37 kJ/g, therefore 1 kg fat produces 37,000 × 1000 = 37 MJ.

      Raising the temperature of 1 kg water from 0°C to 100°C correlates to 420 kJ. The amount of energy needed to change the temperature of 1 kg of the substance by 1°C is the specific heat capacity. We have 1 kg water therefore:

      4,200 J × 100 = 420,000 J = 420 kJ

      In order to calculate the energy involved in raising a 100 kg mass to a height of 1 km against gravity, we need to calculate the potential energy (PE) of the mass:

      PE = mass × height attained × acceleration due to gravity
      PE = 100 kg × 1000 m × 10 m/s2 = 1 MJ

      The heat generated when a direct current of 10 amps flows through a heating element for 10 seconds when the potential difference across the element is 1000 volts can be calculated by applying Joule’s law of heating:

      Work done (WD) = V (potential difference) × I (current) × t (time)
      WD = 10 × 10 × 1000 = 100 kJ

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      128.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - The following statement is true with regards to the Nernst equation: ...

    Incorrect

    • The following statement is true with regards to the Nernst equation:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is used to calculate the potential difference across a membrane when the individual ions are in equilibrium

      Explanation:

      The Nernst equation is used to calculate the membrane potential at which the ions are in equilibrium across the cell membrane.

      The normal resting membrane potential is -70 mV (not + 70 mV).

      The equation is:
      E = RT/FZ ln {[X]o
      /[X]i}

      Where:
      E is the equilibrium potential
      R is the universal gas constant
      T is the absolute temperature
      F is the Faraday constant
      Z is the valency of the ion
      [X]o is the extracellular concentration of ion X
      [X]i is the intracellular concentration of ion X.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 20-year old male was involved in an accident and has presented to...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year old male was involved in an accident and has presented to the Emergency Department with a pelvic crush injury.

      The clinical exam according to ATLS protocol revealed the following:

      Airway-patent

      Breathing - respiratory rate 25 breaths per minute. Breath sounds are vesicular and there are no added sounds.

      Circulation - Capillary refill time - 4 seconds. Peripheries are cool. Pulse 125 beats/min. BP - 125/95 mmHg.

      Disability - GSC 15, anxious and in pain.

      Secondary survey reveals no other injuries. The patient is administered high flow oxygen and IV access is established.

      The most appropriate IV fluid regimen in this case will be which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Judicious infusion of Hartmann's solution to maintain a systolic blood pressure greater than 90mmHg

      Explanation:

      These clinical signs suggest that 15-30% of circulating blood volume has been lost.

      Pelvic fractures are associated with significant haemorrhage (>2000 ml) that can be concealed. This may require aggressive fluid resuscitation which is initially with crystalloids and then blood. What is also important is including stabilisation of the fracture(s) and pain relief.

      The Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) classification of haemorrhagic shock is as follows:

      Class I haemorrhage (blood loss up to 15%):
      <750 ml of blood loss
      Minimal tachycardia
      No changes in blood pressure, RR or pulse pressure
      Patients do not normally not require fluid replacement as will be restored in 24 hours, but in trauma, this needs to be correct.

      Class II haemorrhage (15-30% blood volume loss):
      Uncomplicated haemorrhage requiring crystalloid resuscitation
      Represents about 750 – 1500 ml of blood loss
      Tachycardia, tachypnoea and a decrease in pulse pressure (due to a rise in diastolic component due action of catecholamines).
      There are minimal systolic pressure changes.
      There may be associated anxiety, fright or hostility

      Class III haemorrhage (30-40% blood volume loss):
      Complicated haemorrhagic state – crystalloid and probably blood replacement are required
      There are classical signs of inadequate perfusion, marked tachycardia, tachypnoea, significant changes in mental state and measurable fall in systolic pressure.
      Almost always require blood transfusion, but decision based on patient initial response to fluid resuscitation.

      Class IV haemorrhage (> 40% blood volume loss):
      Preterminal event patient will die in minutes
      Marked tachycardia, significant depression in systolic pressure and very narrow pulse pressure (or unobtainable diastolic pressure)
      Mental state is markedly depressed
      Skin cold and pale.
      Needs rapid transfusion and immediate surgical intervention.

      A blood loss of >50% results in loss of consciousness, pulse and blood pressure.

      Fluid resuscitation following trauma is a controversial area.

      This clinical scenario points to a 15-30% blood loss. However, further crystalloid and blood replacement may be required after assessing the clinical situation. There is increasing evidence to suggest that transfusion of large volumes of crystalloid in the hospital setting are likely to be deleterious to the patient and hypotensive resuscitation and judicious blood and blood product resuscitation is a more appropriate option. A ratio of 1 unit of plasma to 1 unit of red blood cells is used to replace fluid volume in adults.

      This patient does not require immediate transfusion of O negative blood and there is time for a formal crossmatch. The argument about colloids versus crystalloids has existed for decades. However, while they have a role in fluid resuscitation, they are not first line.

      There is a risk of anaphylaxis, Hypernatraemia, and acute renal injury with colloidal solutions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 27-year old man loses 1000ml blood after being stabbed on his thigh....

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year old man loses 1000ml blood after being stabbed on his thigh.

      The most impactful physiological response occurring at the start to combat the decline in the intravascular blood volume of this man is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Venoconstriction

      Explanation:

      In contrast to the arterial system, which contains 15% of the circulating blood volume, the body’s veins contain 70% of it.

      In severe haemorrhage, when sympathetic stimulation causes venoconstriction, venous tone is important in maintaining the return of blood to the heart.

      Because the liver receives about 30% of the resting cardiac output, it is a very vascular organ. The hepatic vascular system is dynamic, which means it can store and release blood in large amounts – it acts as a reservoir within the general circulation.

      In a normal situation, the liver contains 10-15% of total blood volume, with the sinusoids accounting for roughly 60% of that. The liver dynamically adjusts its blood volume when blood is lost and can eject enough blood to compensate for a moderate amount of haemorrhage.

      In the portal venous and hepatic arterial systems, sympathetic nerves constrict the presinusoidal resistance vessels. More importantly, sympathetic stimulation lowers the portal system’s capacitance, allowing blood to flow more efficiently to the heart.

      Net transcapillary absorption of interstitial fluid from skeletal muscle into the intravascular space compensates for blood loss effectively during haemorrhage. The decrease in capillary hydrostatic pressure (Pc), caused by reflex adrenergic readjustment of the ratio of pre- to postcapillary resistance, is primarily responsible for fluid absorption. Within a few hours of blood loss, these fluid shifts become significant, further diluting haemoglobin and plasma proteins.

      Albumin synthesis begins to increase after 48 hours.

      The juxtamedullary complex releases renin in response to a drop in mean arterial pressure, which causes an increase in aldosterone level and, eventually, sodium and water resorption. Increased antidiuretic hormone (ADH) levels also contribute to water retention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Intracellular effectors are activated by receptors on the cell surface. These receptors receive...

    Incorrect

    • Intracellular effectors are activated by receptors on the cell surface. These receptors receive signals that are relayed by second messenger systems.

      In the human body, which second messenger is most abundant?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Calcium ions

      Explanation:

      Second messengers relay signals to target molecules in the cytoplasm or nucleus when an agonist interacts with a receptor on the cell surface. They also amplify the strength of the signal. The most ubiquitous and abundant second messenger is calcium and it regulates multiple cellular functions in the body.

      These include:
      Muscle contraction (skeletal, smooth and cardiac)
      Exocytosis (neurotransmitter release at synapses and insulin secretion)
      Apoptosis
      Cell adhesion to the extracellular matrix
      Lymphocyte activation
      Biochemical changes mediated by protein kinase C.

      cAMP is either inhibited or stimulated by G proteins.

      The receptors in the body that stimulate G proteins and increase cAMP include:

      Beta (?1, ?2, and ?3)
      Dopamine (D1 and D5)
      Histamine (H2)
      Glucagon
      Vasopressin (V2).

      The second messenger for the action of nitric oxide (NO) and atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is cGMP.

      The second messengers for angiotensin and thyroid stimulating hormone are inositol triphosphate (IP3) and diacylglycerol (DAG).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following statement is true regarding the paediatric airway? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statement is true regarding the paediatric airway?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The larynx is more anterior than in an adult

      Explanation:

      In the neonatal stage, the tongue is usually large and comes to the normal size at the age of 1 year. The vocal cords lie inverse C4 and as it reaches the grown-up position inverse C5/6 by the age of 4 (not 1 year).

      Due to the immature cricoid cartilage, the larynx lies more anterior in newborn children. That’s why the cricoid ring is the narrowest part of the paediatric respiratory tract, while in the adults the tightest portion of the respiratory route is vocal cords. The epiglottis is generally expansive and slants at a point of 45 degrees to the laryngeal opening.

      The carina is the ridge of the cartilage in the trachea at the level of T2 in newborn (T4 in adults), that separates the openings of right and left main bronchi.

      Neonates have a comparatively low number of alveoli and then this number gradually increases to a most extreme by the age of 8 (not 3 years).

      Neonates are obligatory nose breathers and any hindrance can cause respiratory issues (e.g., choanal atresia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the statements below best describe the total cerebral flow (CBF) in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the statements below best describe the total cerebral flow (CBF) in an adult?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Accounts for 15% of the cardiac output

      Explanation:

      While the brain only weighs 3% of the body weight, 15% of the cardiac output goes towards the brain.

      Between mean arterial pressures (MAP) of 60-130 mmHg, autoregulation of cerebral blood flow (CBF) occurs. Exceeding this, the CBF is maintained at a constant level. This is controlled mainly by the PaCO2 level, and the autonomic nervous system has minimal role.

      Beyond these limits, the CBF is directly proportional to the MAP, not the systolic blood pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The renal glomerulus is able to filter 180 litres of blood per day,...

    Incorrect

    • The renal glomerulus is able to filter 180 litres of blood per day, as determined by the starling forces present in the glomerulus. Ninety-nine percent of which is reabsorbed thereafter.

      Water is reabsorbed in the highest proportion in which segment of the nephron?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Proximal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      Sixty-seven percent of filtered water is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule. The driving force for water reabsorption is a transtubular osmotic gradient established by reabsorption of solutes (e.g., NaCl, Na+-glucose).

      Henle’s loop reabsorbs approximately 25% of filtered NaCl and 15% of filtered water. The thin ascending limb reabsorbs NaCl by a passive mechanism, and is impermeable to water. Reabsorption of water, but not NaCl, in the descending thin limb increases the concentration of NaCl in the tubule fluid entering the ascending thin limb. As the NaCl-rich fluid moves toward the cortex, NaCl diffuses out of the tubule lumen across the ascending thin limb and into the medullary interstitial fluid, down a concentration gradient as directed from the tubule fluid to the interstitium. This mechanism is known as the counter current multiplier.

      The distal tubule and collecting duct reabsorb approximately 8% of filtered NaCl, secrete variable amounts of K+ and H+, and reabsorb a variable amount of water (approximately 8%-17%).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following statement is true or false regarding to the respiratory...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statement is true or false regarding to the respiratory tract?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The sympathetic innervation of the bronchi is derived from T2 - T4

      Explanation:

      The diaphragm has three opening through which different structures pass from the thoracic cavity to the abdominal cavity:

      Inferior vena cava passes at the level of T8.

      Oesophagus, oesophageal vessels and vagi at T10.

      Aorta, thoracic duct and azygous vein through T12.

      Sympathetic trunk and pulmonary branches of vagus nerve form a posterior pulmonary plexus at the root of the lung. Fibres continue posteriorly from superficial cardiac plexus to form Anterior pulmonary plexus. It contains vagi nerves and superficial cardiac plexus. These fibres then follow the blood vessel and bronchi into the lungs.

      The lower border of the pleura is at the level of:

      8th rib in the midclavicular line

      10th rib in the lower level of midaxillary line

      T12 at its termination.

      Both lungs have oblique fissure while right lung has transverse fissure too.

      The trachea expands from the lower edge of the cricoid cartilage (at the level of the 6th cervical vertebra) to the carina.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A patient was brought to the emergency room after passing black tarry stools....

    Incorrect

    • A patient was brought to the emergency room after passing black tarry stools. The initial diagnosis was upper gastrointestinal bleeding. The patient was placed on temporary nil per os (NPO) for the next 24 hours, his weight was 110 kg, and the required volume of intravenous fluid for the him was 3 litres. His electrolytes and other biochemistry studies were normal.

      If you were to choose the intravenous fluid regimen that would closely mimic his basic electrolyte and caloric requirements, which one would be the best answer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3000 mL 0.45% N. saline with 5% dextrose, each bag with 40 mmol of potassium

      Explanation:

      The patient in the case has a fluid volume requirement of 30 mL/kg/day. His basic electrolyte requirement per day is:

      Sodium at 2 mmol/kg/day x 110 = 220 mmol/day
      Potassium at 1 mmol/kg/day x 110 = 110 mmol/day

      His energy requirement per day is:

      35 kcal/kg/day x 110 kg = 3850 kcal/day

      One gram of glucose in fluid can provide approximately 4 kilocalories.

      The following are the electrolyte components of the different intravenous fluids:

      Fluid Na (mmol/L) K (mmol/L)
      0.9% Normal saline (NSS) 154 0
      0.45% NSS + 5% dextrose 77 0
      0.18% NSS + 4% dextrose 30 0
      Hartmann’s 131 5
      5% dextrose 0 0

      1000 mL of 5% dextrose has 50 g of glucose

      Option B is inadequate for his sodium and caloric requirements (30 mmol of Na+ and 560 kcal). It is adequate for his K+ requirement (120 mmol of K+).

      Option C is in excess of his Na+ requirement (462 mmol of Na+). Moreover, it does not provide any K+ replacement.

      Option D is inadequate for his caloric requirement (600 kcal) and K+ requirement (60 mmol of K+). Moreover it does not provide any Na+ replacement.

      Option E is in excess of his Na+ requirement (393 mmol of Na+), and is inadequate for his potassium requirement (15 mmol of K+)

      Option A has adequate amounts for his Na+ (231 mmol of Na+) and K+ (120 mmol of K+) requirements. It is inadequate for his caloric requirement (600 kcal).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A common renal adverse effect of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs is? ...

    Incorrect

    • A common renal adverse effect of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemodynamic renal insufficiency

      Explanation:

      Prostaglandins do not play a major role in regulating RBF in healthy resting individuals. However, during pathophysiological conditions such as haemorrhage and reduced extracellular fluid volume (ECVF), prostaglandins (PGI2, PGE1, and PGE2) are produced locally within the kidneys and serve to increase RBF without changing GFR. Prostaglandins increase RBF by dampening the vasoconstrictor effects of both sympathetic activation and angiotensin II. These effects are important because they prevent severe and potentially harmful vasoconstriction and renal ischemia. Synthesis of prostaglandins is stimulated by ECVF depletion and stress (e.g. surgery, anaesthesia), angiotensin II, and sympathetic nerves.

      Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), such as ibuprofen and naproxen, potently inhibit prostaglandin synthesis. Thus administration of these drugs during renal ischemia and hemorrhagic shock is contraindicated because, by blocking the production of prostaglandins, they decrease RBF and increase renal ischemia. Prostaglandins also play an increasingly important role in maintaining RBF and GFR as individuals age. Accordingly, NSAIDs can significantly reduce RBF and GFR in the elderly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - The single most important prerequisite for accuracy in measuring basal metabolic rate (BMR)...

    Incorrect

    • The single most important prerequisite for accuracy in measuring basal metabolic rate (BMR) using indirect calorimetry is performing the test:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: In a neutral thermal environment

      Explanation:

      The basal metabolic rate (BMR) is the amount of energy required to maintain basic bodily functions in the resting state. The unit is Watt (Joule/second) or calories per unit time.

      Indirect calorimetry measures O2 consumption and CO2 production where gases are collected in a canopy which is the gold standard, Douglas bag, face-mask dilution technique or interfaced with a ventilator.

      The BMR can be calculated using the Weir formula:

      Metabolic rate (kcal per day) = 1.44 (3.94 VO2 + 1.11 VCO2)

      The BMR should be measured while lying down and at rest with the following conditions met:

      It should follow a 12 -hour fast
      No stimulants ingested within a 12-hour period
      It should be done in a neutral thermal environment (between 20°C-25°C)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - The following is true about the extracellular fluid (ECF) in a normal adult...

    Incorrect

    • The following is true about the extracellular fluid (ECF) in a normal adult woman weighing 60 kg.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Has a total volume of about 12 litres

      Explanation:

      Total body water (TBW) is about 50% to 70% in adults depending on how much fat is present. ECF is relatively contracted in an obese person.

      The simple rule is 60-40-20. (60% of weight = total body water, 40% of body weight is ICF and 20% is ECF)

      For this woman, the total body water is 36 litres (0.6 × 60). ECF is 12 litres (1/3 of TBW) and 24 litres (2/3 of TBW) is intracellular fluid .

      Sodium concentration is approximately 135-145 mmol/L in the ECF.

      The ECF is made up of both intravascular and extravascular fluid and plasma proteins is found in both.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - An intravenous infusion is started with a 500 mL bag of 0.18 percent...

    Incorrect

    • An intravenous infusion is started with a 500 mL bag of 0.18 percent N. saline and 4% dextrose.

      Which of the following best describes its make-up?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osmolarity 284 mOsmol/L, sodium 15 mequivalents and glucose 20 g

      Explanation:

      30 mmol Na+ and 30 mmol Cl- are found in 1 litre of 0.18 percent N. saline with 4% dextrose. Percent (percent) refers to the number of grammes of a compound per 100 mL, so a litre of 4 percent dextrose solution contains 40 grammes.

      As a result, a 500 mL bag of 1/5th N. saline and 4% dextrose contains approximately 15 mequivalents of sodium and 20 g of glucose. It is hypotonic due to its osmolarity of 284.

      Because of the risk of hyponatraemia, it is no longer considered the crystalloid of choice for fluid maintenance in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - In a normal healthy adult breathing 100 percent oxygen, which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • In a normal healthy adult breathing 100 percent oxygen, which of the following is the most likely cause of an alveolar-arterial (A-a) oxygen difference of 30 kPa?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atelectasis

      Explanation:

      The ‘ideal’ alveolar PO2 minus arterial PO2 is the alveolar-arterial (A-a) oxygen difference.

      The ‘ideal’ alveolar PO2 is derived from the alveolar air equation and is the PO2 that the lung would have if there was no ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) inequality and it was exchanging gas at the same respiratory exchange ratio as real lung.

      The amount of oxygen in the blood is measured directly in the arteries.

      The A-a oxygen difference (or gradient) is a useful measure of shunt and V/Q mismatch, and it is less than 2 kPa in normal adults breathing air (15 mmHg). Because the shunt component is not corrected, the A-a difference increases when breathing 100 percent oxygen, and it can be up to 15 kPa (115 mmHg).

      An abnormally low or abnormally high V/Q ratio within the lung can cause an increased A-a difference, though the former is more common. Atelectasis, which results in a low V/Q ratio, is the most likely cause of an A-a difference in a healthy adult breathing 100 percent oxygen.

      Hypoventilation may cause an increase in alveolar (and thus arterial) CO2, lowering alveolar PO2 according to the alveolar air equation.

      The alveolar PO2 is also reduced at high altitude.

      Healthy people are unlikely to have a right-to-left shunt or an oxygen transport diffusion defect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which one of the following factor affects the minimal alveolar concentration (MAC)? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following factor affects the minimal alveolar concentration (MAC)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypoxaemia

      Explanation:

      The minimal alveolar concentration (MAC) is the concentration of an inhalation anaesthetic agent in the lung alveoli required to stop a response to the surgical stimulus in 50% of the patient.

      Following factors don’t affect the MAC of the inhaled anaesthetic agents:

      Gender, acidosis, alkalosis, hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, body weight, serum potassium level, and the duration of the anaesthesia.

      MAC increase in children, elevated temperature, high metabolic rate, sympathetic increase and chronic alcoholism.

      MAC decrease in low temperature, low oxygen level, old age, hypotension (<40 mmHg), depressant drugs e.g. opioids and low level of catecholamines; alpha methyl dopa. Carbon dioxide O2 at the pressure > 120mmHg is being used in anesthetic-Hinkman as an additive effect to decrease MAC, however, increase concentration of CO2 activates the sympathetic system resulting the MAC increases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Metabolization of many drugs used in anaesthesia involves the cytochrome P450 (CYP) isoenzymes.

    The...

    Incorrect

    • Metabolization of many drugs used in anaesthesia involves the cytochrome P450 (CYP) isoenzymes.

      The CYP enzyme most likely to be subject to genetic variability and thus cause adverse drug reactions is which of these?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CYP2D6

      Explanation:

      Approximately 25% of phase-1 drug reactions is made responsible by CYP2D6.

      As much as a 1,000-fold difference in the ability to metabolise drugs by CYP2D6 can happen between phenotypes, and this may result in adverse drug reactions (ADRs).

      The metabolism of antiemetics, beta-blockers, codeine, tramadol, oxycodone, hydrocodone, tamoxifen, antidepressants, neuroleptics, and antiarrhythmics is also as a result of CYP2D6.

      Patients who take drugs that are metabolised by CYP2D6 but have poor CYP2D6 metabolism are more likely to have ADRs. People with ultra-rapid CYP2D6 metabolism may have a decreased drug effect due to low plasma concentrations of these drugs.

      All the other CYP enzymes are subject to genetic polymorphism. Variants are less likely to lead to adverse drug reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - An orthopaedic surgery is scheduled for a 68-year-old man. He is normally in...

    Incorrect

    • An orthopaedic surgery is scheduled for a 68-year-old man. He is normally in good shape. His routine biochemistry results are checked and found to be within normal limits.

      Which of the following pairs has the greatest impact on his plasma osmolarity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sodium and potassium cations

      Explanation:

      The number of osmoles (Osm) of solute per litre (L) of solution (Osmol/L) is the unit of measurement for solute concentration. The calculated serum osmolality assumes that the primary solutes in the serum are sodium salts (chloride and bicarbonate), glucose, and urea nitrogen.

      2 (Na + K) + Glucose + Urea (all in mmol/L) = calculated osmolarity

      313 mOsm/L = 2 (144 + 6) + 9.5 + 3.5

      Sodium and potassium ions clearly contribute the most to plasma osmolarity. Glucose and urea, on the other hand, are less so.

      The osmolarity of normal serum is 285-295 mOsm/L. Temperature and pressure affect osmolality, and this calculated variable is less than osmolality for a given solution.

      The number of osmoles (Osm) of solute per kilogramme (Osm/kg) is a measure of osmolality, which is also a measure of solute concentration. Temperature and pressure have no effect on the value. An osmometer is used to measure it in the lab. Osmometers rely on a solution’s colligative properties, such as a decrease in freezing point or a rise in vapour pressure.

      The osmolar gap (OG) is calculated as follows:

      OG = osmolaRity calculated from measured serum osmolaLity

      Excess alcohols, lipids, and proteins in the blood can all contribute to the difference.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Physiology (3/13) 23%
Passmed