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  • Question 1 - There is normally an inverse relationship between the hepatic artery and portal venous...

    Correct

    • There is normally an inverse relationship between the hepatic artery and portal venous blood flow. This is maintained by:

      Your Answer: All of the options are correct

      Explanation:

      There is an inverse relationship between the blood flow of the hepatic artery and portal vein. It is maintained by several factors such as chemicals like adenosine, neurohumoral substances, the morphology of the hepatic portal system (especially the ability of hepatic sinusoids to collapse) and myogenic control which causes vasoconstriction or vasodilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - In which cell would you find a Nissl body? ...

    Correct

    • In which cell would you find a Nissl body?

      Your Answer: Bipolar neuron

      Explanation:

      Nissl bodies are the structures of protein synthesis in neurones. They are granular bodies of Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum and ribosomes. Astrocytes, Microglia, Schwann cell, oligodendrocytes are collectively known as glia or supporting cells of the nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The AV Node: ...

    Correct

    • The AV Node:

      Your Answer: It decelerates impulses passing to the ventricles

      Explanation:

      The action potentials in the sinoatrial (SA) and atrioventricular (AV) nodes are largely due to Ca2+, with no contribution by Na+ influx. The depolarization continues to conduct slowly through the atrioventricular (AV) node. The AV node is located in the right posterior portion of the interatrial septum. This is a small, bean-shaped. The atrial conductive system is organized so that the cardiac impulse does not travel from the atria into the ventricles too rapidly; this delay allows the atria to empty before ventricular contraction begins. It is the AV node and its adjacent conductive fibers that delay this transmission into the ventricles. Conduction through the AV Node is represented on the ECG by the PR interval.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - The major factor in controlling coronary artery blood flow is considered to be?...

    Correct

    • The major factor in controlling coronary artery blood flow is considered to be?

      Your Answer: Metabolites of oxygen consumption

      Explanation:

      There is a strong relationship between myocardial blood flow and oxygen consumption. This indicates that products of metabolism may cause vasodilation of the coronary artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following conditions has no effect on cardiac output? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following conditions has no effect on cardiac output?

      Your Answer: Sleep

      Explanation:

      Sleep has no effect on the cardiac output. Anxiety, excitement and pregnancy will increase the cardiac output. Standing from a lying position will decrease the cardiac output transiently.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      2.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following structures, is the area in which the superior cerebral...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following structures, is the area in which the superior cerebral veins drain into?

      Your Answer: Superior petrosal sinus

      Correct Answer: Superior sagittal sinus

      Explanation:

      The superior cerebral veins are predominantly located on the superior aspect of the brain. They are 8 to 12 in number and they drain the lateral, medial and superior aspects of the cerebral hemispheres. These veins drain into the superior sagittal sinus, also known as the superior longitudinal sinus – which is located along the attached margin of the falx cerebri.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Mast cells play a significant part in which of the following? ...

    Correct

    • Mast cells play a significant part in which of the following?

      Your Answer: Allergic disease

      Explanation:

      Mast cells play a central role in the response to allergen challenges. The activation of mast cells results in both an early and a delayed phase of inflammation. Mast cells have been implicated in both physiologic and pathogenic processes. Mast cells are important in defence against some bacteria and viruses and contribute to defence against parasites. They are key effector cells in both innate and acquired immunity and are capable of inducing and amplifying both types of responses. Specifically, mast cells are capable of detecting microbial products through surface pattern recognition receptors, and they are involved in the recruitment of other leukocytes, containment of bacterial infections, and tissue repair.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Pathology
      1.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The main efferent input of the posterior pituitary gland comes from: ...

    Incorrect

    • The main efferent input of the posterior pituitary gland comes from:

      Your Answer: Sympathetic and parasympathetic stimulation via the brainstem

      Correct Answer: Paracrine hormones secreted from the hypothalamus via axons.

      Explanation:

      The posterior pituitary or neurohypophysis consists of a collection of axonal projections emerging from the hypothalamus. It releases hormones directly from these axonal endings into circulation; these hormones are oxytocin and vasopressin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Physiology
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is the protective hexametric sequence at the ends of chromosomes called? ...

    Correct

    • What is the protective hexametric sequence at the ends of chromosomes called?

      Your Answer: Telomere

      Explanation:

      Telomeres are non coding DNA plus proteins that are found at the end of the linear chromosomes. They maintain the integrity of the chromosomes and prevent their shortening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Physiology
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Where are the cell bodies of preganglionic neurons located? ...

    Correct

    • Where are the cell bodies of preganglionic neurons located?

      Your Answer: Lateral column

      Explanation:

      The cell bodies of the preganglionic neurons are located in the lateral grey column of the spinal cord and in the motor nuclei of the 3rd, 7th, 9th and 10th cranial nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following cells secrete glucagon? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following cells secrete glucagon?

      Your Answer: A cells

      Explanation:

      Glucagon counteracts hypoglycaemia and opposes insulin by promoting gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis. It also decreases fatty acid synthesis in the liver and adipose tissue, and promotes lipolysis. It is secreted by the pancreatic islet α-cells. Its production is regulated by the insulin produced in β-cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Physiology
      2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Ventricular depolarization plus ventricular repolarization is shown by the _____ interval ...

    Correct

    • Ventricular depolarization plus ventricular repolarization is shown by the _____ interval

      Your Answer: QT

      Explanation:

      The QT interval represents ventricular depolarization as well as ventricular repolarization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Polymerase Chain Reaction. All true except: ...

    Correct

    • Polymerase Chain Reaction. All true except:

      Your Answer: There is a linear rise of DNA copies during amplification.

      Explanation:

      All are true except option E. There is an exponential rise in amplification of DNA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Physiology
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - In the presence of oxygen , lactate that was produced under anaerobic conditions...

    Correct

    • In the presence of oxygen , lactate that was produced under anaerobic conditions is converted to:

      Your Answer: Pyruvate

      Explanation:

      Lactate can be used in two ways:Oxidation back to pyruvate by well-oxygenated muscle cells, heart cells, and brain cells. Pyruvate is then directly used to fuel the Krebs cycle orConversion to glucose via gluconeogenesis in the liver and release back into circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Physiology
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What is the function of secondary messengers? ...

    Correct

    • What is the function of secondary messengers?

      Your Answer: Communication from extracellular to intracellular signalling pathways

      Explanation:

      First messengers may not physically cross the phospholipid bilayer to initiate changes within the cell directly. This functional limitation necessitates the cell to devise signal transduction mechanisms to transduce first messenger into second messengers, so that the extracellular signal may be propagated intracellularly. Second messengers are intracellular signalling molecules released by the cell to trigger physiological changes such as proliferation, differentiation, migration, survival, and apoptosis. Secondary messengers are therefore one of the initiating components of intracellular signal transduction cascades.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Physiology
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - An 11-year-old boy was brought to the emergency room due to fever and...

    Correct

    • An 11-year-old boy was brought to the emergency room due to fever and pain in the ears. Upon physical examination, it was observed that the mastoid area is erythematous and there is a presence of a boggy, tender mass. A diagnosis of acute mastoiditis was made. Which of the following parts of the temporal bone is most likely involved?

      Your Answer: Petrous part

      Explanation:

      Mastoiditis is the inflammation of a portion of the temporal bone referred to as the mastoid air cells. The mastoid air cells are epithelium lined bone septations that are continuous with the middle ear cavity. The temporal bone is composed of four parts: the mastoid process, the petrous pyramid, the squamous, and tympanic portions. The mastoid process and the petrous pyramid are the portions of particular interest because of the prevalence of suppurations within these parts of the temporal bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Select one true statement about haemoglobin synthesis… ...

    Correct

    • Select one true statement about haemoglobin synthesis…

      Your Answer: Occurs in the cytosol of developing red cells.

      Explanation:

      Haemoglobin (Hb) is synthesized in a complex series of steps. The haem part is synthesized in a series of steps in the mitochondria and the cytosol of immature red blood cells, while the globin protein parts are synthesized by ribosomes in the cytosol. Production of Hb continues in the cell throughout its early development from the proerythroblast to the reticulocyte in the bone marrow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Physiology
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - The interventricular septum is supplied anteriorly by the? ...

    Correct

    • The interventricular septum is supplied anteriorly by the?

      Your Answer: Left anterior descending artery

      Explanation:

      The anterior interventricular artery or left anterior descending artery supplies the anterior 2/3rds of the interventricular septum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - How many unpaired branches leave the abdominal aorta to supply the abdominal viscera?...

    Correct

    • How many unpaired branches leave the abdominal aorta to supply the abdominal viscera?

      Your Answer: Three

      Explanation:

      The abdominal arteries are divided into 3 branches;- 3 main unpaired trunks (celiac trunk, superior mesenteric, inferior mesenteric arteries)- 6 paired branches- unpaired median sacral artery.We can group the abdominal aorta as follows;-Ventral which includes: Coeliac trunk, superior mesenteric and inferior mesenteric arteries-Lateral: Inferior phrenic, middle suprarenal, renal and gonadal arteries-Dorsal: Lumbar and median sacral arteries-Terminal : Right and left common iliac arteriesThe celiac trunk (L1) takes blood the foregut and its found posterior to the stomach. The unpaired superior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the mid-gut. The paired renal arteries form the inferior suprarenal arteries. The renal arteries arise around L1/L2 and takes blood to either side of the kidneys. The median sacral artery supplies blood to the lumbar vertebrae the L4 and L5.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The hyperpolarization phase of pacemaker cells is dominated by ____ current. ...

    Correct

    • The hyperpolarization phase of pacemaker cells is dominated by ____ current.

      Your Answer: K+

      Explanation:

      The hyperpolarization phase is a continuation of the repolarization phase but the membrane potential dips below the resting membrane potential. This results due to the fact that the K+ channels take a longer time to close than the Na+ channels. Hence efflux of the K+ will result in hyperpolarization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which area in the GIT lacks Basic Electrical Rhythm ...

    Correct

    • Which area in the GIT lacks Basic Electrical Rhythm

      Your Answer: Oesophagus

      Explanation:

      The basal or basic electrical rhythm acts to coordinate peristalsis and are initiated in the interstitial cells of Cajal, specialized pacemaker cells located in the wall of the stomach. Thus below the oesophagus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which law describes the rate of diffusion in a solution? ...

    Correct

    • Which law describes the rate of diffusion in a solution?

      Your Answer: Fick’s law

      Explanation:

      Fick’s law describes the rate of diffusion in a solution. Fick’s law states that: Jx = -D A (ΔC / Δx) Where: Jx = The amount of substance transferred per unit time D = Diffusion coefficient of that particular substance A = Surface area over which diffusion occurs ΔC = Concentration difference across the membrane Δx = Distance over which diffusion occurs The negative sign reflects movement down the concentration gradient

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Physiology
      2.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - During thymectomy the surgeon accidentally nicks a vein that lies just posterior to...

    Correct

    • During thymectomy the surgeon accidentally nicks a vein that lies just posterior to the thymus. Which of the following vessels is likely to be injured?

      Your Answer: Left brachiocephalic vein

      Explanation:

      The thymus is located superficially in the anterior mediastinum. The left brachiocephalic vein courses through the mediastinum to join the right brachiocephalic vein and form the superior vena cava on the right side of the thorax. The left brachiocephalic vein, being superficial, courses just deep to the thymus so that it may be susceptible to compression by an adjacent tumour. The left pulmonary vein, left bronchial vein and right pulmonary artery are deep, and enter and exit the lung at its root, thus are not near the thymus. The right superior intercostal vein drains the 2nd to the 4th intercostal spaces and drains into the arch of the azygos vein. It is not, therefore, closely related with the thymus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Vasodilatation in skeletal muscle can be caused by: ...

    Correct

    • Vasodilatation in skeletal muscle can be caused by:

      Your Answer: Sympathetic cholinergic nerves

      Explanation:

      In skeletal muscles some fibers that cause vasodilation run with the nerves of the sympathetic system but are cholinergic in nature. These nerves are not active during rest but become active during exercise and stress.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which one of the following is a cause of a soft second heart...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following is a cause of a soft second heart sound?

      Your Answer: Aortic stenosis

      Explanation:

      Second heart sound (S2) forms the dub of lub-dub and is composed of components A2 and P2. •    loud: hypertension•    soft: AS•    fixed split: physiological split (normally occurs during inhalation), right bundle branch block, pulmonary stenosis, and atrial septal defect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - In which organelle is the intrinsic apoptotic pathway initiated? ...

    Correct

    • In which organelle is the intrinsic apoptotic pathway initiated?

      Your Answer: Mitochondria

      Explanation:

      Apoptosis is a programmed form of cell death involving the degradation of cellular constituents by a group of cysteine proteases called caspases. The caspases can be activated through either the intrinsic (mitochondrial mediated) or extrinsic (death receptor mediated) apoptotic pathways. The intrinsic apoptotic pathway is characterized by permeabilization of the mitochondria and release of cytochrome c into the cytoplasm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Physiology
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - The isoforms of nitric oxide synthase which are found in the nervous system...

    Correct

    • The isoforms of nitric oxide synthase which are found in the nervous system (NOS1) and endothelial cells (NOS3) are activated by agents that increase which of the following intracellular electrolytes?

      Your Answer: Ca

      Explanation:

      Synthesis of nitric oxide is stimulated by activation of the NMDA receptors by certain agents. This leads to opening of the Calcium channels and an influx of calcium into the cell. This will activate the nitric oxide synthase. Nitric oxide is produced on demand.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - At which vertebral level does the spinal cord normally end in adults? ...

    Correct

    • At which vertebral level does the spinal cord normally end in adults?

      Your Answer: L1/L2

      Explanation:

      The spinal cord starts at the foramen magnum, where it is continuous with the medulla oblongata, which is the most caudal portion of the brainstem. It then extends inferiorly through the vertebral canal. In adults, it usually ends at the level of the first or second lumbar vertebra.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      1.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 35 year old opera singer undergoes a thyroidectomy and post-operatively, he develops...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old opera singer undergoes a thyroidectomy and post-operatively, he develops stridor and is unable to speak. What is the best explanation for this symptom?

      Your Answer: Bilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve injury

      Explanation:

      This patient has aphonia due to bilateral damage to the recurrent laryngeal nerve. Bilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN) injury is rare for benign thyroid lesions (0.2%). After extubation-stridor, respiratory distress, aphonia occurs due to the closure of the glottic aperture necessitating immediate intervention and emergency intubation or tracheostomy. Intra-operative identification and preservation of the RLN minimizes the risk of injury. The recurrent laryngeal nerves control all intrinsic muscles of the larynx except for the cricothyroid muscle. These muscles act to open, close, and adjust the tension of the vocal cords, and include the posterior cricoarytenoid muscles, the only muscle to open the vocal cords. The nerves supply muscles on the same side of the body, with the exception of the interarytenoid muscle, which is innervated from both sides.The nerves also carry sensory information from the mucous membranes of the larynx below the lower surface of the vocal fold, as well as sensory, secretory and motor fibres to the cervical segments of the oesophagus and the trachea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Head & Neck
      • Pathology
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - The brainstem contains which of the following structures? ...

    Correct

    • The brainstem contains which of the following structures?

      Your Answer: The midbrain, pons and medulla

      Explanation:

      Brain stem is the base of the brain that connects the brain to the spinal cord. It consists of the mid brain, pons and medulla oblongata.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      2.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastrointestinal (2/2) 100%
Physiology (22/23) 96%
Neurology (3/3) 100%
Cardiovascular (9/9) 100%
Anatomy (4/5) 80%
Head & Neck (4/5) 80%
Immunology (1/1) 100%
Pathology (2/2) 100%
Endocrinology (1/2) 50%
Genetics (2/2) 100%
Cell Biology (4/4) 100%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Thorax (1/1) 100%
Passmed