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  • Question 1 - Dicloxacillin is an antibiotic; the subclass that dicloxacillin belongs to is: ...

    Correct

    • Dicloxacillin is an antibiotic; the subclass that dicloxacillin belongs to is:

      Your Answer: Penicillin

      Explanation:

      Dicloxacillin is a narrow-spectrum beta-lactam antibiotic. It is used to treat infections caused by susceptible Gram-positive bacteria and most effective against beta-lactamase-producing organisms such as Staphylococcus aureus. To decrease the development of resistance, dicloxacillin is recommended to treat infections that are suspected or proven to be caused by beta-lactamase-producing bacteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is the percentage of bone calcium that is freely exchangeable with the...

    Correct

    • What is the percentage of bone calcium that is freely exchangeable with the extracellular fluid that is available for buffering changes in the calcium ion balance?

      Your Answer: 1%

      Explanation:

      Around 1% of calcium in the body is available for buffering changes in calcium ion balance. These are mainly derived from the bone that are freely exchangeable with extracellular fluid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 40-year old gentleman, who is a known with ulcerative colitis, complains of...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year old gentleman, who is a known with ulcerative colitis, complains of recent-onset of itching and fatigue. On examination, his serum alkaline phosphatase level was found to be high. Barium radiography of the biliary tract showed a 'beaded' appearance. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gallstone ileus

      Correct Answer: Sclerosing cholangitis

      Explanation:

      Primary sclerosing cholangitis is characterised by patchy inflammation, fibrosis and strictures in intra- and extra-hepatic bile ducts. It is a chronic cholestatic condition with 80% patients having associated inflammatory bowel disease (likely to be ulcerative colitis). Symptoms include pruritus and fatigue. ERCP (endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography) or MRCP (magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography) are diagnostic. Disease can lead to complete obliteration of ducts, which can result in liver failure. Cholangiocarcinoma is also a recognised complication..

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary
      • Pathology
      46.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of these nerves controls adduction of hand? ...

    Correct

    • Which of these nerves controls adduction of hand?

      Your Answer: Ulnar nerve

      Explanation:

      The adductors of the fingers are the palmer interossei. They are supplied by the ulnar nerve, which is a branch of the medical cord of the brachial plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - An electronic manufacturing engineer had abdominal distension and underwent a CT scan of...

    Incorrect

    • An electronic manufacturing engineer had abdominal distension and underwent a CT scan of the abdomen. Thereafter he was diagnosed with hepatic angiosarcoma. Exposure to what agent is responsible for the development of this neoplasm?

      Your Answer: Aflatoxin

      Correct Answer: Arsenic

      Explanation:

      Hepatic angiosarcomas are associated with particular carcinogens which includes: arsenic , thorotrast, and polyvinyl chloride. With exposure to this three agents, there is a very long latent period of many years between exposure and the development of tumours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 20 year lady is brought to the A&E following a road accident....

    Correct

    • A 20 year lady is brought to the A&E following a road accident. She is hypotensive and a CT scan of the abdomen reveals a shattered spleen. An emergency splenectomy is performed where the splenic artery is ligated right at its origin. Which of the following arteries will have a diminished blood flow owing to ligation of the splenic artery at its origin?

      Your Answer: Left gastroepiploic

      Explanation:

      Ligation of the splenic artery right at its point of origin should cut off blood flow in its branches. The following are the branches of the splenic artery: pancreatic branches, short gastric branches and left gastroepiploic arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      32.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 34-year old gentleman presented with acute pancreatitis to the emergency department. On...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year old gentleman presented with acute pancreatitis to the emergency department. On enquiry, there was found to be a history of recurrent pancreatitis, eruptive xanthomas and raised plasma triglyceride levels associated with chylomicrons. Which of the following will be found deficient in this patient?

      Your Answer: HMG-CoA reductase

      Correct Answer: Lipoprotein lipase

      Explanation:

      The clinical features mentioned here suggest the diagnosis of hypertriglyceridemia due to lipoprotein lipase (LPL) deficiency. LPL aids in hydrolysing the lipids in lipoproteins into free fatty acids and glycerol. Apo-CII acts as a co-factor. Deficiency of this enzyme leads to hypertriglyceridemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A specialist registrar was performing the bi-lateral surgical removal of the adrenal glands....

    Correct

    • A specialist registrar was performing the bi-lateral surgical removal of the adrenal glands. He first removed the left adrenal gland before moving on to the right one. However, the registrar noticed that the removal of the right adrenal gland would be a challenge because of an overlying structure. What was this structure that overlies the right suprarenal glad?

      Your Answer: Inferior vena cava

      Explanation:

      The adrenal glands or the suprarenal glands are small glands that are found on top of each of the kidneys. They are retroperitoneal glands. The right adrenal gland is found on top of the right kidney and is closely associated with the inferior vena cava as it directly drains into this large vein. In the case where the right adrenal gland is to be surgically removed, the inferior vena cava might prove a problem to manoeuvre as it overlies the right suprarenal gland. The other blood vessels such as the aorta, right renal, superior mesenteric, splenic artery and the hepatic vein as well as the right crus are not closely associated with either of the suprarenal glands.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - During a surgical operation, whilst dissecting the mediastinal lymph nodes for a bronchogenic...

    Incorrect

    • During a surgical operation, whilst dissecting the mediastinal lymph nodes for a bronchogenic carcinoma of the right upper lobe bronchus, a patient's right sympathetic trunk is accidentally severed above the level of spinal nerve T1. Which function would be left intact in the affected region?

      Your Answer: Sweat production

      Correct Answer: Voluntary muscle activity

      Explanation:

      The sympathetic nervous system regulates vascular tone, dilation of pupils, arrector pili muscles, sweat production and visceral reflexes. Neurones that supply the voluntary muscles originate from the ventral horn of the spinal cord. If these nerves were thus damaged, these functions would be impaired. The sympathetic nervous system is not responsible for voluntary muscle activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      42.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - All the following statements are FALSE regarding the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal...

    Correct

    • All the following statements are FALSE regarding the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve, except:

      Your Answer: The ophthalmic nerve is the smallest branch of the trigeminal nerve

      Explanation:

      The ophthalmic nerve is the smallest of the three trigeminal divisions. The cutaneous branches of the ophthalmic nerve supply the conjunctiva, the skin over the forehead, the upper eyelid, and much of the external surface of the nose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      10
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pathology (2/4) 50%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Fluids & Electrolytes (1/1) 100%
Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary (0/1) 0%
Anatomy (4/5) 80%
Upper Limb (1/1) 100%
Neoplasia (0/1) 0%
Abdomen (2/2) 100%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Physiology (0/1) 0%
Thorax (0/1) 0%
Head & Neck (1/1) 100%
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