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  • Question 1 - A 40-year-old heavy smoker presents with a serum sodium level of 113 mmol/l....

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old heavy smoker presents with a serum sodium level of 113 mmol/l. A diagnosis of SIADH is confirmed.
      What is the most appropriate initial management for his fluid balance?

      Your Answer: Fluid restriction

      Explanation:

      European guidelines for the treatment of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuresis include the following recommendations for the management of moderate or profound hyponatremia:
      – Restrict fluid intake as first-line treatment.
      – Second-line treatments include increasing solute intake with 0.25-0.50 g/kg per day or a combination of low-dose loop diuretics and oral sodium chloride.
      – Use of lithium, demeclocycline, or vasopressin receptor antagonists is not recommended.
      Recommendations on the treatment of SIADH from an American Expert Panel included the following:
      – If chronic, limit the rate of correction.
      – Fluid restriction should generally be first-line therapy.
      – Consider pharmacologic therapies if serum Na + is not corrected after 24-48 hr of fluid restriction or if the patient has a low urinary electrolyte free water excretion.
      – Patients being treated with vaptans should not be on a fluid restriction initially.
      – Water, 5% dextrose or desmopressin can be used to slow the rate of correction if the water diuresis is profound.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 50-year-old woman was investigated following an osteoporotic hip fracture. The following results...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman was investigated following an osteoporotic hip fracture. The following results are obtained:
      TSH < 0.05 mu/l
      Free T4 29 pmol/l

      Which of the following autoantibodies is most likely to be present?

      Your Answer: TSH receptor stimulating autoantibodies

      Explanation:

      The patient has hyperthyroidism and its most common cause is Grave’s Disease.
      Grave’s Disease is an autoimmune disease due to circulating autoantibodies known as TSH receptor stimulating autoantibodies or Thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins (TSIs) that bind to and activate thyrotropin receptors, causing the thyroid gland to grow and the thyroid follicles to increase the synthesis of thyroid hormone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      51.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following is most consistent with small cell lung cancer? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is most consistent with small cell lung cancer?

      Your Answer: hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy is rarely seen

      Explanation:

      The clinical manifestations of Small cell lung cancer (SCLC) can result from local tumour growth, intrathoracic spread, distant spread, and/or paraneoplastic syndromes.
      Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy (HPO) is a rare paraneoplastic syndrome that is frequently associated with lung cancer; however, the incidence of clinically apparent HPO is not well known.
      SIADH is present in 15% of cases and most commonly seen.
      Although hypercalcaemia is frequently associated with malignancy, it is very rare in small cell lung cancer despite the high incidence of lytic bone metastases.
      Ectopic Cushing’s syndrome in SCLC does not usually exhibit the classic signs of Cushing’s syndrome and Cushing’s syndrome could also appear during effective chemotherapy.
      Chemotherapy is the treatment of choice in SCLC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 28-year-old female presented with complaints of weight gain, thinning of scalp hair,...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female presented with complaints of weight gain, thinning of scalp hair, dryness and coldness of the skin, constipation and fatigue. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      The symptoms this female presented with in the OPD are major symptoms of hypothyroidism due to insufficient thyroid hormone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      23.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 45-year-old obese patient arrives at the clinic for a regular health check...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old obese patient arrives at the clinic for a regular health check up. His labs are as follows: Fasting blood sugar: 6 mmol/l, Oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT): 10 mmol/L. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Impaired glucose tolerance

      Explanation:

      Impaired glucose tolerance means that blood glucose is raised beyond normal levels, but not high enough to warrant a diabetes diagnosis. With impaired glucose tolerance you face a much greater risk of developing diabetes and cardiovascular disease. Impaired glucose tolerance is defined as 2-hour glucose levels of 140 to 199 mg per dL (7.8 to 11.0 mmol) on the 75-g oral glucose tolerance test, and impaired fasting glucose is defined as glucose levels of 100 to 125 mg per dL (5.6 to 6.9 mmol per L) in fasting patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      32.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - In a patient with Hashimoto's thyroiditis, which of the following is most specific...

    Correct

    • In a patient with Hashimoto's thyroiditis, which of the following is most specific to the disease?

      Your Answer: Anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies

      Explanation:

      Hashimoto thyroiditis is part of the spectrum of autoimmune thyroid diseases (AITDs) and is characterized by the destruction of thyroid cells by various cell- and antibody mediated immune processes. It usually presents with hypothyroidism, insidious in onset, with signs and symptoms slowly progressing over months to years.

      The diagnosis of Hashimoto thyroiditis relies on the demonstration of circulating antibodies to thyroid antigens (mainly thyroperoxidase and thyroglobulin) and reduced echogenicity on thyroid sonogram in a patient with proper clinical features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 30-year-old previously well female presented with yellowish discolouration of her sclera. Investigations...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old previously well female presented with yellowish discolouration of her sclera. Investigations revealed low haemoglobin, a retic count of 8% and the occasional spherocyte on blood film. Which of the following is the most appropriate single investigation?

      Your Answer: Direct coombs test

      Explanation:

      A low haemoglobin and a high retic count is suggestive of a haemolytic anaemia. Occasional spherocytes can be seen on blood film during haemolysis and it is not a specific finding. Direct Coombs test will help to identify autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, where there are antibodies attached to RBCs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A man was admitted with galactorrhoea. History reveals that the patient has been...

    Correct

    • A man was admitted with galactorrhoea. History reveals that the patient has been having problems with getting and maintaining an erection. He also admits he's noticed a decrease in the quantity of his facial hair. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hyper prolactinaemia

      Explanation:

      Increased levels of prolactin in men can lead to erectile dysfunction, reduced facial and body hair and on rare occasion gynecomastia with galactorrhoea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A young woman is concerned that she has put on weight since she...

    Incorrect

    • A young woman is concerned that she has put on weight since she was a medical student, as she now no longer finds time to exercise. She decides to try various weight loss tablets temporarily.
      After 2 months, she is successfully losing weight but also has trouble with increased stool frequency, difficulty in climbing stairs and getting up out of chairs. However, she has no problems walking on the flat.
      She also has difficulty in sleeping at the moment but puts that down to the increased frequency of headaches for the past 2 months.

      Which one of the following is the most likely cause of her weakness?

      Your Answer: She is abusing laxatives

      Correct Answer: She is abusing thyroxine tablets

      Explanation:

      Exogenous thyroid hormone use has been associated with episodes of thyroid storm as well as thyrotoxic periodic paralysis.
      It presents with marked proximal muscle weakness in both upper and lower limbs, hypokalaemia and signs of hyperthyroidism.
      Hyperthyroidism generally presents with tachycardia, hypertension, hyperthermia, and cardiac arrhythmias

      Laxatives and diuretics can result in electrolyte abnormalities.
      Medical complications associated with laxatives include chronic diarrhoea which disrupts the normal stool electrolyte concentrations that then leads to serum electrolyte shifts; acutely, hypokalaemia is most typically seen. The large intestine suffers nerve damage from the chronic laxative use that renders it unable to function properly. The normal peristalsis and conduction are affected; the disorder is thought to be secondary to a degeneration of Auerbach’s Plexi. However, it does not cause muscle weakness.

      Insulin tends to cause weight gain, not weight loss.
      Metformin does not cause muscle weakness but can cause headaches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      87.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 40-year-old woman presents to the ED with palpitations and shortness of breath.

    Recent...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman presents to the ED with palpitations and shortness of breath.

      Recent thyroid function tests on the hospital computer reveal thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) of <0.05 mU/l and a markedly elevated T4. You arrange blood gas testing.

      Which of the following findings would be most consistent with Grave's disease?

      Your Answer: Decreased pa(CO2)

      Explanation:

      Hyperthyroid patients show significantly lower resting arterial CO2 tension, tidal volume and significantly higher mean inspiratory flow and pa(O2) than healthy patients. This may of course lead to misdiagnosis of patients with hyperthyroidism as having hyperventilation syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      167.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 15-year-old girl presents with vomiting and her investigations show:

    Sodium 115 mmol/L (137-144)
    Potassium...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old girl presents with vomiting and her investigations show:

      Sodium 115 mmol/L (137-144)
      Potassium 3.0 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      Urea 2.1 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      Urine sodium 2 mmol/L
      Urine osmolality 750 mosmol/kg (350-1000)

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bulimia nervosa

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely to have Bulimia nervosa. A young girl with a low body mass contributes to the low urea. Hypokalaemia and hyponatraemia are due to vomiting. Her urine sodium is also low.
      – In Addison’s diseases, there are low levels of sodium and high levels of potassium in the blood. In acute adrenal crisis: The most consistent finding is elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine. Urinary and sweat sodium also may be elevated.
      – In Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone Secretion (SIADH) there is hyponatremia with corresponding hypo-osmolality, continued renal excretion of sodium, urine less than maximally dilute and absence of clinical evidence of volume depletion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      140.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 70-year-old smoker was recently diagnosed with small cell lung cancer. Which of...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old smoker was recently diagnosed with small cell lung cancer. Which of the following electrolyte combinations confirms the diagnosis of SIADH?

      Your Answer: High serum Na, low serum osmolarity, high urine osmolarity

      Correct Answer: Low serum Na, low serum osmolarity, high urine osmolarity

      Explanation:

      Due to the high amount of ADH in their blood, patient is voiding a low volume of urine with high osmolarity and as a result low levels of electrolytes will be present in the serum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following allows for a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following allows for a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus?

      Your Answer: Asymptomatic patient with fasting glucose 7.9 mmol/L on one occasion

      Correct Answer: Symptomatic patient with random glucose 12.0 mmol/L on one occasion

      Explanation:

      Criteria for the diagnosis of diabetes

      1. A1C >6.5%. The test should be performed in a laboratory using a method that is certified and standardized.*
      OR
      2. Fasting glucose >126 mg/dl (7.0 mmol/l). Fasting is defined as no caloric intake for at least 8 h.*
      OR
      3. 2-h plasma glucose >200 mg/dl (11.1 mmol/l) during an OGTT. The test should be performed as described by the World Health Organization, using a glucose load containing the equivalent of 75 g anhydrous glucose dissolved in water.*
      OR
      4. In a patient with classic symptoms of hyperglycaemia or hyperglycaemic crisis, a random plasma glucose >200 mg/dl (11.1 mmol/l).
      *In the absence of unequivocal hyperglycaemia, criteria 1-3 should be confirmed by repeat testing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      79.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 26-year-old woman presents for her first cervical smear. What is the most...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman presents for her first cervical smear. What is the most important aetiological factor causing cervical cancer?

      Your Answer: Human papilloma virus 16 & 18

      Explanation:

      It has been determined that HPV infection is the most powerful epidemic factor. This virus is needed, but not sufficient for the development of cervical cancer.
      The WHO’s International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) classified HPV infection as carcinogenic to humans (HPV types 16 and 18), probably carcinogenic (HPV types 31 and 33) and possibly carcinogenic (other HPV types except 6 and 11).
      Tobacco smoking, the use of contraceptives, and the number of births are factors that showed no statistically significant deviations in the studied population compared to other countries in the region, as well as European countries. They have an equal statistical significance in all age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      48.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 35-year-old man is referred to the clinic by his GP. He complains...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man is referred to the clinic by his GP. He complains of lethargy and tiredness. He has recently been discharged from the hospital after being admitted to the intensive care unit following a motorbike accident.
      His thyroid function testing is :
      TSH 0.3 IU/l (0.5-4.5)
      Free T4 8 pmol/l (9-25)
      Free T3 3.1 pmol/l (3.4-7.2)

      Which of the following is most likely to be the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sick euthyroid syndrome

      Explanation:

      Euthyroid sick syndrome (also known as nonthyroidal illness syndrome) can be described as abnormal findings on thyroid function tests that occurs in the setting of a nonthyroidal illness (NTI), without pre-existing hypothalamic-pituitary and thyroid gland dysfunction. After recovery from an NTI, these thyroid function test result abnormalities should be completely reversible.
      Multiple alterations in serum thyroid function test findings have been recognized in patients with a wide variety of NTIs without evidence of pre-existing thyroid or hypothalamic-pituitary disease. The most prominent alterations are low serum triiodothyronine (T3) and elevated reverse T3 (rT3), leading to the general term low T3 syndrome. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), thyroxine (T4), free T4 (FT4), and free T4 index (FTI) also are affected in variable degrees based on the severity and duration of the NTI. As the severity of the NTI increases, both serum T3 and T4 levels drop, but they gradually normalize as the patient recovers.
      Reverse T3 is used to differentiate between this condition and secondary thyroid failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      115.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 16-year-old boy is being treated with ADH for diabetes insipidus. His blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy is being treated with ADH for diabetes insipidus. His blood results show:
      fasting plasma glucose level: 6 mmol/l (3- 6)
      sodium 148 mmol/l (137-144)
      potassium 4.5 mmol/l (3.5-4.9)
      calcium 2.8 mmol/l (2.2-2.6).

      However, he still complains of polyuria, polydipsia and nocturia.
      What could be the most probable cause?

      Your Answer: Hypercalcaemia

      Correct Answer: Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

      Explanation:

      Diabetes insipidus (DI) is defined as the passage of large volumes (>3 L/24 hr) of dilute urine (< 300 mOsm/kg). It has the following 2 major forms:
      Central (neurogenic, pituitary, or neurohypophyseal) DI, characterized by decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH; also referred to as arginine vasopressin [AVP])
      Nephrogenic DI, characterized by decreased ability to concentrate urine because of resistance to ADH action in the kidney.
      The boy most probably has nephrogenic diabetes insidious (DI) not central DI so he is not responding to the ADH treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      102.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 17-year-old Jewish girl presents with primary amenorrhoea. On examination, she looks a...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old Jewish girl presents with primary amenorrhoea. On examination, she looks a little hirsute and has evidence of facial acne. She is within her predicted adult height and has normal breast and external genitalia development, however, there is excess hair over her lower abdomen and around her nipple area.

      Investigations were as follows:
      Hb 13.1 g/dl
      WCC 8.6 x109/l
      PLT 201 x109/l
      Na+ 139 mmol/l
      K+ 4.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 110 µmol/l
      17-OH progesterone 1.4 times the upper limit of normal
      Pelvic ultrasound: bilateral ovaries and uterus visualised.

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Non-classical congenital adrenal hyperplasia

      Explanation:

      Mild deficiencies of 21-hydroxylase or 3-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase activity may present in adolescence or adulthood with oligomenorrhea, hirsutism, and/or infertility. This is termed nonclassical adrenal hyperplasia.
      Late-onset or nonclassical congenital adrenal hyperplasia (NCAH) due to 21-hydroxylase deficiency is one of the most common autosomal recessive disorders. Reported prevalence ranges from 1 in 30 to 1 in 1000. Affected individuals typically present due to signs and symptoms of androgen excess.
      Treatment needs to be directed toward the symptoms. Goals of treatment include normal linear growth velocity, a normal rate of skeletal maturation, ‘on-time’ puberty, regular menstrual cycles, prevention of or limited progression of hirsutism and acne, and fertility. Treatment needs to be individualized and should not be initiated merely to decrease abnormally elevated hormone concentrations.
      Normal Ultrasound rules out Turner’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      162.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - An 18-year-old woman in her 30th week of pregnancy is brought to the...

    Correct

    • An 18-year-old woman in her 30th week of pregnancy is brought to the hospital in altered sensorium. She is taking slow, shallow breaths and her breath has a fruity smell. An arterial blood gas (ABG) shows the presence of ketones. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)

      Explanation:

      This a case of gestational diabetes presenting with DKA. It is a serious case that requires immediate intervention. Pregnant diabetics tend to develop DKA on a lower serum glucose level than non-pregnant diabetics. The shortness of breath is a trial to wash the excess CO2 to compensate for the metabolic acidosis seen in the ABG. The fruity smell is acetone excreted through the lungs. The main treatment of this case is proper fluid management and insulin infusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      24.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 55-year-old man with a three-year history of type 2 diabetes comes to...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man with a three-year history of type 2 diabetes comes to the clinic for review. He is currently managed with metformin 1 g BD and feels that his home blood glucose monitoring has deteriorated over the past few months. There is a history of hypertension and dyslipidemia for which he takes Ramipril 10 mg daily and atorvastatin 20 mg.
      On examination, his BP is 155/82 mmHg, his pulse is 71 and regular. His chest is clear. His BMI is 32.

      Investigations show:
      Haemoglobin 12.9 g/dl (13.5 - 17.7)
      White cell count 5.0 x109/l (4 - 11)
      Platelets 180 x109/l (150 - 400)
      Sodium 140 mmol/l (135 - 146)
      Potassium 5.0 mmol/l (3.5 - 5)
      Creatinine 123 mmol/l (79 - 118)
      HbA1c 8.0% (<7.0)

      He would like to start sitagliptin.
      Which of the following adverse effects would you warn him about?

      Your Answer: Pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      Sitagliptin-induced pancreatitis can occur at any time after the initiation of therapy, even after several years. Patients taking sitagliptin who present with signs and symptoms of mild or severe pancreatitis should immediately discontinue sitagliptin and use an alternate medication regimen for control of type 2 diabetes.
      In response to pancreatitis reported in post-marketing surveillance through the Adverse Event Reporting System (AERS), the FDA has issued revised prescribing information for sitagliptin stating that cases of acute pancreatitis have been reported with use, to monitor closely for signs and symptoms of pancreatitis, and to use sitagliptin with caution in patients with a history of pancreatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      112.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 45-year-old man with diabetes comes to the clinic for his annual review....

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man with diabetes comes to the clinic for his annual review.
      He has had diabetes for eight years and he is also being treated for hypertension. He is on the following medications: metformin 500 mg tds, gliclazide 80 mg daily, atorvastatin 10 mg/d, Ramipril 10 mg/d and Bendroflumethiazide 2.5 mg/d.
      He is noted to be obese (130kg). Physical examination is otherwise unremarkable.

      Investigations reveal:
      HbA1c 8.1% (3.8-6.4)
      Fasting glucose 9 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)
      24 hr Urine free cortisol 354 mmol/d (<250)
      9am Plasma ACTH 4 ng/dL (10-50)
      CT abdomen 3 cm right adrenal mass

      Which of the following is most likely to be the adrenal mass?

      Your Answer: Cortisol secreting adenoma

      Explanation:

      The patient has Cushing syndrome suggested by the elevated 24hr urine free cortisol. Hence, the mass is most probably a cortisol secreting adenoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      92
      Seconds

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Endocrine System & Metabolism (16/20) 80%
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