00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - An 18-year-old woman in her 30th week of pregnancy is brought to the...

    Correct

    • An 18-year-old woman in her 30th week of pregnancy is brought to the hospital in altered sensorium. She is taking slow, shallow breaths and her breath has a fruity smell. An arterial blood gas (ABG) shows the presence of ketones. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)

      Explanation:

      This a case of gestational diabetes presenting with DKA. It is a serious case that requires immediate intervention. Pregnant diabetics tend to develop DKA on a lower serum glucose level than non-pregnant diabetics. The shortness of breath is a trial to wash the excess CO2 to compensate for the metabolic acidosis seen in the ABG. The fruity smell is acetone excreted through the lungs. The main treatment of this case is proper fluid management and insulin infusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      42.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 39-year-old female presented in the OPD with amenorrhea. On investigations, it was...

    Correct

    • A 39-year-old female presented in the OPD with amenorrhea. On investigations, it was revealed that she had high levels of FSH and LSH, normal levels of prolactin and low levels of oestradiol hormone. Which of the following conditions is most likely?

      Your Answer: Premature ovarian failure

      Explanation:

      Premature ovarian failure presents before the age of 40 in females with a triad of symptoms: amenorrhea, hypergonadism and low oestradiol. This triad is present in the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      50.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 55-year-old man known with Addison's disease presented with complaints of recurrent attacks...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man known with Addison's disease presented with complaints of recurrent attacks of postural hypotension. What kind of electrolyte imbalance would be seen in his biochemical profile investigations?

      Your Answer: Low Na+, High K+

      Explanation:

      Patients suffering from Addison’s disease have low aldosterone. Aldosterone increases Na+ absorption and excretion of K+. So in these patients there would be decreased Na+ and increased K+ levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      90.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 74-year-old woman is admitted with headaches, polyuria and polydipsia of recent onset....

    Incorrect

    • A 74-year-old woman is admitted with headaches, polyuria and polydipsia of recent onset. She has a history of mastectomy for breast cancer. A CT head scan shows multiple cerebral metastases.

      Her admission biochemistry results are as follows:
      Sodium 153 mmol/l
      Potassium 4.0 mmol/l
      Urea 5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 110 micromol/l
      Glucose 5 mmol/l.
      Over the next 24 hours, she has a urinary volume of 4.4 litres and further tests reveal plasma osmolality 320 mOsm/kg and urinary osmolality: 254 mOsm/kg.

      Which one of the following treatments should be used?

      Your Answer: Water restriction

      Correct Answer: Desmopressin (DDAVP)

      Explanation:

      Diabetes insipidus (DI) is defined as the passage of large volumes (>3 L/24 hr) of dilute urine (< 300 mOsm/kg). It has the following 2 major forms:
      – Central (neurogenic, pituitary, or neurohypophyseal) DI, characterized by decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH; also referred to as arginine vasopressin [AVP])
      – Nephrogenic DI, characterized by decreased ability to concentrate urine because of resistance to ADH action in the kidney
      This patient has the central type from metastases.
      In patients with central DI, desmopressin is the drug of choice. It is a synthetic analogue of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). It is available in subcutaneous, IV, intranasal, and oral preparations. Generally, it can be administered 2-3 times per day. Patients may require hospitalization to establish fluid needs. Frequent electrolyte monitoring is recommended during the initial phase of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      145
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 69-year-old diabetic female presents for a regular outpatient visit. Her BMI is...

    Correct

    • A 69-year-old diabetic female presents for a regular outpatient visit. Her BMI is calculated to be 33. Lab results: GFR=29, Urea=13, Creatinine=390 mmol/L. Which of the following drugs should ideally be used by this patient?

      Your Answer: Insulin

      Explanation:

      The management of patients with diabetes and nephropathy necessitates attention to several aspects of care. Importantly, glycaemic control should be optimized for the patient, attaining the necessary control to reduce complications but done in a safe, monitored manner. Screening for development of nephropathy should be performed on a regular basis to identify microalbuminuria or reductions in GFR and if identified, the diabetes regimen should be tailored accordingly. Prevention and treatment of diabetic nephropathy and other complications necessitates a multifactorial approach. From the options provided insulin is the most suitable as sulfonylureas and biguanides are contraindicated in renal failure. Glitazones are known to cause many side effects including fluid retention and oedema. Hence, insulin will be the best option in this scenario.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      30.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 60-year-old patient diagnosed with Type-2 diabetes mellitus is not responding to dietary...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old patient diagnosed with Type-2 diabetes mellitus is not responding to dietary modifications and weight reduction. He needs to be started on an oral hypoglycemic agent. Which among the following statements regarding oral hypoglycaemic agents is true?

      Your Answer: Acarbose inhibits ?-glucosidase

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      139.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 66-year-old woman comes to you with a tender lump near the anal...

    Correct

    • A 66-year-old woman comes to you with a tender lump near the anal opening and a fever. She has history of T1DM for the last 20 years. What treatment should she get?

      Your Answer: I&D + antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Surgical incision and drainage is the most common treatment for anal abscesses. About 50% of patients with an anal abscess will develop a complication called a fistula. Diabetes is a risk factor for an anal abscess.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      40.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Using DEXA, which of the following bone mineral density values indicates osteopenia in...

    Incorrect

    • Using DEXA, which of the following bone mineral density values indicates osteopenia in the measured site?

      Your Answer: A T score of -1.8

      Correct Answer: A T score of -2.6

      Explanation:

      Osteopenia is an early sign of bone weakening that is less severe than osteoporosis.
      The numerical result of the bone density test is quantified as a T score. The lower the T score, the lower the bone density. T scores greater than -1.0 are considered normal and indicate healthy bone. T scores between -1.0 and -2.5 indicate osteopenia. T scores lower than -2.5 indicate osteoporosis.
      DEXA also provides the patient’s Z-score, which reflects a value compared with that of person matched for age and sex.
      Z-score values of -2.0 SD or lower are defined as below the expected range for age and those above -2.0 SD as within the expected range for age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      102.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 27-year-old woman is admitted on the medical intake. She is 10 weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman is admitted on the medical intake. She is 10 weeks postpartum and has been generally unwell for two weeks with malaise, sweating and anxiety.
      On examination, she is hemodynamically stable and clinically euthyroid.
      TFTs show the following:
      Free T4 33 pmol/L (9-23)
      Free T3 8 nmol/L (3.5-6)
      TSH <0.02 mU/L (0.5-5)

      What is the appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Propylthiouracil 50 mg/tds

      Correct Answer: Propranolol 20 mg tds

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely to have Postpartum thyroiditis which goes through 2 phases; hypothyroid and a hyperthyroid phase.
      The hyperthyroid phase of postpartum thyroiditis occurs between 2 and 10 months postpartum. Most commonly, it presents at 3 months. Symptoms more common in women with hyperthyroid postpartum thyroiditis include palpitations, fatigue, heat intolerance, and irritability/nervousness. The frequency of asymptomatic hyperthyroidism is 33%.
      Untreated, the hyperthyroidism resolves spontaneously within 2-3 months. This phase is diagnosed by the combination of a low serum TSH concentration in the presence of thyroid peroxidase antibodies, in women who are TSH receptor antibody-negative. Free T4 levels are typically elevated but may be normal.
      Treatment of hyperthyroidism, when necessary, is based on symptom severity and should be a joint decision of patient and physician. Beta-blockers such as propranolol are given to alleviate palpitations, irritability, and nervousness. The morbidity associated with treatment is the side effects of beta-blockade. The downside of withholding treatment is allowing the woman to remain symptomatic. Antithyroid medicines (thioureas) are not a potential treatment alternative, because the hyperthyroidism is caused by destructive thyroiditis resulting in the release of preformed thyroid hormone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      91.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 40-year-old man presents with recurrent headaches, 2-3 times a day, associated with...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man presents with recurrent headaches, 2-3 times a day, associated with sweating and palpitations.
      His blood pressure during the attacks is around 220/120 mmHg.
      Given the likely diagnosis, what is the next appropriate investigation?

      Your Answer: 24 hour urinary collection of metanephrines

      Explanation:

      Classically, pheochromocytoma manifests with the following 4 characteristics:
      – Headaches
      – Palpitations
      – Sweating
      – Severe hypertension

      The Endocrine Society, the American Association for Clinical Chemistry, and the European Society of Endocrinology have released clinical practice guidelines for the diagnosis and management of pheochromocytoma.
      Biochemical testing via measurement of plasma free metanephrines or urinary fractionated metanephrines should be performed in patients suspected of having pheochromocytoma.

      Catecholamines produced by pheochromocytomas are metabolized within chromaffin cells. Norepinephrine is metabolized to normetanephrine and epinephrine is metabolized to metanephrine. Because this process occurs within the tumour, independently of catecholamine release, pheochromocytomas are best diagnosed by measurement of these metabolites rather than by measurement of the parent catecholamines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      69.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following is most consistent with small cell lung cancer? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is most consistent with small cell lung cancer?

      Your Answer: Cushing's syndrome is characterized by buffalo hump, striae and central obesity

      Correct Answer: hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy is rarely seen

      Explanation:

      The clinical manifestations of Small cell lung cancer (SCLC) can result from local tumour growth, intrathoracic spread, distant spread, and/or paraneoplastic syndromes.
      Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy (HPO) is a rare paraneoplastic syndrome that is frequently associated with lung cancer; however, the incidence of clinically apparent HPO is not well known.
      SIADH is present in 15% of cases and most commonly seen.
      Although hypercalcaemia is frequently associated with malignancy, it is very rare in small cell lung cancer despite the high incidence of lytic bone metastases.
      Ectopic Cushing’s syndrome in SCLC does not usually exhibit the classic signs of Cushing’s syndrome and Cushing’s syndrome could also appear during effective chemotherapy.
      Chemotherapy is the treatment of choice in SCLC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      57.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 35-year-old female presented with purple stretch marks on her abdomen, easy bruising...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old female presented with purple stretch marks on her abdomen, easy bruising and weight gain. A low dose Dexamethasone suppression test did not show any but a high dose Dexamethasone suppression test showed suppression of cortisol levels. Which of the following is the most likely cause for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Pituitary Adenoma

      Explanation:

      Clinical features are due to excess cortisol. High-dose dexamethasone suppression test shows suppression in patients with Cushing’s disease. Cushing syndrome includes all causes of glucocorticoid excess, whereas Cushing’s disease is reserved only for pituitary-dependent Cushing’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      167.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 21-year-old singer, who had thyroid surgery a few months before, now complains...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old singer, who had thyroid surgery a few months before, now complains of not being able to raise the pitch of her voice, and suspects it was because of the surgery. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve injury

      Correct Answer: External laryngeal nerve injury

      Explanation:

      The external laryngeal nerve may be injured or traumatized following thyroid surgery due to its close proximity, which may result in hoarseness or loss of voice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      56.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 50-year-old man is referred with impotence. He has a history of angina,...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man is referred with impotence. He has a history of angina, hypertension and type 2 diabetes.
      Which one of the following drugs that he takes is a contraindication to him being able to receive sildenafil?

      Your Answer: Isosorbide mononitrate

      Explanation:

      Sildenafil administration to patients who are using organic nitrates, either regularly and/or intermittently, in any form is contraindicated.
      Organic nitrates and nitric oxide (NO) donors exert their therapeutic effects on blood pressure and vascular smooth muscle by the same mechanism as endogenous NO via increasing cGMP concentrations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      24.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 30-year-old woman presents with amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea. She has normal visual fields....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents with amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea. She has normal visual fields. You are concerned that she may have a prolactinoma.
      Investigations were done and the results are as shown below:

      Hb 12.5 g/dl
      WCC 4.9 x109/l
      PLT 199 x109/l
      Na+ 140 mmol/l
      K+ 4.9 mmol/l
      Creatinine 90 ىmol/l
      Prolactin 1150 mU/l

      MRI shows a 7 mm pituitary microadenoma.

      Which of the following hormones would you expect to be lower than normal?

      Your Answer: Thyroxine

      Correct Answer: LH

      Explanation:

      Prolactinomas, benign lesions that produce the hormone prolactin, are the most common hormone-secreting pituitary tumours.
      Based on its size, a prolactinoma can be classified as a microprolactinoma (< 10 mm diameter) or a macroprolactinoma (>10 mm diameter). If the prolactinoma is large enough to compress the surrounding normal hormone-secreting pituitary cells, it may result in deficiencies of one or more hormones (e.g., thyroid-stimulating hormone [TSH], growth hormone [GH], adrenocorticotropic hormone). However, the patient has microadenoma so it is unlikely to cause compression manifestations.
      Hyperprolactinemia inhibits GnRH secretion from the medial basal hypothalamus and LH release from the pituitary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      152.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 60-year-old male was diagnosed as diabetic (DM type 2). He has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old male was diagnosed as diabetic (DM type 2). He has a BMI=32. Lifestyle modification and exercise have failed to control his blood glucose levels. His labs were: urea=3.5mmol/l, creatinine=90 mmol/l, HbA1c=7.5g/dl. What will be the next management step?

      Your Answer: Sulfonylurea

      Correct Answer: Biguanide

      Explanation:

      For type 2 diabetics, biguanides are the treatment of choice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      42.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following is correct regarding post-menopausal hormone replacement therapy (HRT) according...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is correct regarding post-menopausal hormone replacement therapy (HRT) according to randomised clinical studies ?

      Your Answer: Increases plasma triglycerides

      Explanation:

      Oestrogen therapy reduces plasma levels of LDL cholesterol and increases levels of HDL cholesterol. It can improve endothelial vascular function, however, it also has adverse physiological effects, including increasing the plasma levels of triglycerides (small dense LDL particles). Therefore, although HRT may have direct beneficial effects on cardiovascular outcomes, these effects may be reduced or balanced by the adverse physiological effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      25.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Raloxifene is used in the treatment of osteoporosis, which of the following best...

    Correct

    • Raloxifene is used in the treatment of osteoporosis, which of the following best describes it?

      Your Answer: A selective oestrogen receptor modulator

      Explanation:

      Raloxifene is a selective oestrogen-receptor modulator (SERM) that has been approved for use in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women.
      A SERM interacts with oestrogen receptors, functioning as an agonist in some tissues and an antagonist in other tissues. Because of their unique pharmacologic properties, these agents can achieve the desired effects of oestrogen without the possible stimulatory effects on the breasts or uterus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      50
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 70-year-old smoker was recently diagnosed with small cell lung cancer. Which of...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old smoker was recently diagnosed with small cell lung cancer. Which of the following electrolyte combinations confirms the diagnosis of SIADH?

      Your Answer: Low serum Na, low serum osmolarity, high urine osmolarity

      Explanation:

      Due to the high amount of ADH in their blood, patient is voiding a low volume of urine with high osmolarity and as a result low levels of electrolytes will be present in the serum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      25.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 45-year-old man presents with tiredness and central weight gain.
    He underwent pituitary surgery...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents with tiredness and central weight gain.
      He underwent pituitary surgery for a non-functional pituitary tumour two years ago. Although he recovered from his pituitary surgery well, he has been found to have complete anterior hypopituitarism. Accordingly he is receiving stable replacement therapy with testosterone monthly injections, thyroxine and hydrocortisone.
      On examination, there are no specific abnormalities, his vision is 6/9 in both eyes and he has no visual field defects.
      From his notes, you see that he has gained 8 kg in weight over the last six months and his BMI is 31. His blood pressure is 122/72 mmHg.
      Thyroid function tests and testosterone concentrations have been normal. A postoperative MRI scan report shows that the pituitary tumour has been adequately cleared with no residual tissue.

      Which of the following is the most likely cause of his current symptoms?

      Your Answer: Depression

      Correct Answer: Growth hormone deficiency

      Explanation:

      The somatotroph cells of the anterior pituitary gland produce growth hormone (GH).
      GH deficiency in adults usually manifests as reduced physical performance and impaired psychological well-being. It results in alterations in the physiology of different systems of the body, manifesting as altered lipid metabolism, increased subcutaneous and visceral fat, decreased muscle mass, decreased bone density, low exercise performance, and reduced quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      164.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrine System & Metabolism (12/20) 60%
Passmed