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  • Question 1 - What is the linea aspera: ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the linea aspera:

      Your Answer: Is a landmark on the tibia

      Correct Answer: Serves as an attachment for adductors of the thigh

      Explanation:

      The linea aspera is a prominent longitudinal ridge or crest on the middle third of the femur. It has a medial and a lateral lip and a narrow, rough, intermediate line. The vastus medialis arises from the medial lip of the linea aspera and has superior and inferior prolongations. The vastus lateralis takes origin from the lateral lip . The adductor magnus is inserted into the linea aspera. Two muscles are attached between the vastus lateralis and the adductor magnus: the gluteus maximus is inserted above and the short head of the biceps femoris arises below. Four muscles are inserted between the adductor magnus and the vastus medialis: the iliacus and pectineus superiorly, and the adductor brevis and adductor longus inferiorly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The specimen sent to the pathologist for examination was found to be benign....

    Correct

    • The specimen sent to the pathologist for examination was found to be benign. Which one of the following is most likely a benign tumour?

      Your Answer: Warthin’s tumour

      Explanation:

      Warthin’s tumour is also known as papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum. It is a benign cystic tumour of the salivary glands containing abundant lymphocytes and germinal centres. It has a slightly higher incidence in males and most likely occur in older adults aged between 60 to 70 years. This tumour is also associated with smoking. Smokers have an eight-fold greater risk in developing the tumour compared to non-smokers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Different substances have different renal clearance rates. Which of the following substances should...

    Correct

    • Different substances have different renal clearance rates. Which of the following substances should have the lowest renal clearance rate in a healthy patient?

      Your Answer: Glucose

      Explanation:

      Under normal conditions the renal clearance of glucose is zero, since glucose is completely reabsorbed in the renal tubules and not excreted. Glycosuria – the excretion of glucose into the urine- is nearly always caused by elevated blood glucose levels, most commonly due to untreated diabetes mellitus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      50.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Regarding the coagulation cascade, Factor VII: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the coagulation cascade, Factor VII:

      Your Answer: Activates factor X

      Correct Answer: Is a serine protease

      Explanation:

      Factor VII (FVII) is a zymogen for a vitamin K-dependent serine protease essential for the initiation of blood coagulation. It is synthesized primarily in the liver and circulates in plasma. Within the liver, hepatocytes are involved in the synthesis of most blood coagulation factors, such as fibrinogen, prothrombin, factor V, VII, IX, X, XI, XII, as well as protein C and S, and antithrombin, whereas liver sinusoidal endothelial cells produce factor VIII and von Willebrand factor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 76-year-old woman is diagnosed with diabetes mellitus after a urine test revealed...

    Correct

    • A 76-year-old woman is diagnosed with diabetes mellitus after a urine test revealed she has glucosuria. Glucosuria may occur due to inadequate glucose reabsorption at:

      Your Answer: Proximal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      Glucose is reabsorbed almost 100% via sodium–glucose transport proteins (apical) and GLUT (basolateral) in the proximal convoluted tubule. Glycosuria or glucosuria is a condition of osmotic diuresis typical in those suffering from diabetes mellitus. Due to a lack of insulin, plasma glucose levels are above normal. This leads to saturation of receptors in the kidneys and glycosuria usually at plasma glucose levels above 11 mmol/l. Rarely, glycosuria is due to an intrinsic problem with glucose reabsorption within the kidneys (such as Fanconi syndrome), producing a condition termed renal glycosuria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      34.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The accumulation of eosinophils within tissues is mostly regulated by which of the...

    Correct

    • The accumulation of eosinophils within tissues is mostly regulated by which of the following cytokines?

      Your Answer: Interleukin-5

      Explanation:

      IL-5 is produced by TH2 helper cells and by mast cells. They stimulate increased secretion of immunoglobulins and stimulate B cell growth. They are the major regulators in eosinophil activation and control. They are also released from eosinophils and mast cells in asthmatic patients and are associate with a many other allergic conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      22.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 70-year-old male who has smoked since his teens complains of progressive shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old male who has smoked since his teens complains of progressive shortness of breath and a persistent cough. He is diagnosed with COPD. Which of the following abnormalities is most likely to be present in his pulmonary function tests?

      Your Answer: Decreased total lung capacity

      Correct Answer: Increased residual volume

      Explanation:

      Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a type of obstructive lung disease characterized by long-term poor airflow. The main symptoms include shortness of breath and cough with sputum production. The best diagnostic test for evaluating patients with suspected chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is lung function measured with spirometry. Key spirometrical measures may be obtained with a portable office spirometer and should include forced vital capacity (FVC) and the normal forced expiratory volume in the first second of expiration (FEV1). The ratio of FEV1 to forced vital capacity (FEV1/FVC) normally exceeds 0.75. Patients with COPD typically present with obstructive airflow. Complete pulmonary function testing may show increased total lung capacity, functional residual capacity and residual volume. A substantial loss of lung surface area available for effective oxygen exchange causes diminished carbon monoxide diffusion in the lung (DLco) in patients with emphysema. Tobacco smoking is the most common cause of COPD, with factors such as air pollution and genetics playing a smaller role.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      23.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - During cardiac catheterisation in a 20-year old man, the following data is obtained:...

    Correct

    • During cardiac catheterisation in a 20-year old man, the following data is obtained: Pressure (mmHg), O2 saturation (%) Right atrium 7 (N = 5) 90 (N = 75), Right ventricle 35/7 (N = 25/5) 90 (N = 75), Pulmonary artery 35/8 (N = 25/15), 90 (N = 75), Left atrium 7 (N = 9) 95 (N = 95), Left ventricle 110/7 (N = 110/9) 95 (N = 95), Aorta 110/75 (N = 110/75) 95 (N = 95) where N = Normal value. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Atrial septal defect

      Explanation:

      A congenital heart disease, ASD or atrial septal defect leads to a communication between the right and left atria due to a defect in the interatrial septum. This leads to mixing of arterial and venous blood from the right and left side of the heart. The hemodynamic significance of this defect depends on the presence of shunting of blood. Normally, the left side of the heart has higher pressure than the right as the left side has to pump blood throughout the body. A large ASD (> 9 mm) will result in a clinically significant left-to-right shunt, causing volume overload of the right atrium and ventricle, eventually leading to heart failure. Cardiac catheterization would reveal very high oxygen saturation in the right atrium, right ventricle and pulmonary artery. Eventually, the left-to-right shunt will lead to pulmonary hypertension and increased afterload in the right ventricle, along with the increased preload due to the shunted blood. This will either cause right ventricular failure, or raise the pressure in the right side of the heart to equal or more than that in the left. Elevation of right atrial pressure to that of left atrial pressure would thus lead to diminishing or complete cessation of the shunt. If left uncorrected, there will be reversal of the shunt, known as Eisenmenger syndrome, resulting in clinical signs of cyanosis as the oxygen-poor blood form right side of the heart will mix with the blood in left side and reach the peripheral vascular system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following over-the-counter drugs can cause a prolonged bleeding time? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following over-the-counter drugs can cause a prolonged bleeding time?

      Your Answer: Acetylsalicylic acid

      Explanation:

      Acetylsalicylic acid, or aspirin, is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug that is widely used as an analgesic and antipyretic. Aspirin is as a cyclo-oxygenase inhibitor that leads to decreased prostaglandin production. Decreased platelet aggregation is another effect of this drug, achieved by long-lasting use of aspirin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Paracentesis of ascetic fluid in a 45-year old woman revealed the following :...

    Correct

    • Paracentesis of ascetic fluid in a 45-year old woman revealed the following : clear, yellow fluid with protein 2.0 g/dl and a few mesothelial and mononuclear cells seen. No malignant cells seen. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cirrhosis

      Explanation:

      Ascites develops either from:

        • Increased  accumulation
          • Increased capillary permeability
          • Increased venous pressure
          • Decreased protein (oncotic pressure)
        • Decreased clearance
          • Increased lymphatic obstruction

      Cause

      • Transudate (<30g/L protein) (Systemic disease)
        • Liver (Cirrhosis)
        • Cardiac e.g. RHF, CCF, SBE right heart valve disease and constrictive Pericarditis
        • Renal failure
        • Hypoalbuminaemia (nephrosis)
      • Exudate (>30g/L protein) (Local disease)
        • Malignancy
        • Venous obstruction e.g. Budd-Chiari, Schistosomiasis
        • Pancreatitis
        • Lymphatic obstruction
        • Infection (especially TB)

      Cirrhosis is disease of the liver that is characterized by fibrosis leading to disorganization of the hepatic architecture. It shows the development of regenerative nodules surrounded by dense fibrotic tissue. Cirrhosis shows non-specific symptoms initially, which include fatigue, anorexia and weight loss. It can later progress to portal hypertension, ascites and liver failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary
      • Pathology
      26.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (0/1) 0%
Lower Limb (0/1) 0%
Neoplasia (1/1) 100%
Pathology (4/4) 100%
Fluids & Electrolytes (1/1) 100%
Physiology (3/5) 60%
General (0/1) 0%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Inflammation & Immunology (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary (1/1) 100%
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