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  • Question 1 - A 6 year old girl presents with a history of palpitations and light...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old girl presents with a history of palpitations and light headedness. Her heart rate is 200 beats per minute so you try with vagal manoeuvres and repeated boluses of adenosine up to a maximum dose of 500mcg/kg. What would you do next?

      Your Answer: Synchronous DC shock 2J/kg

      Correct Answer: Synchronous DC shock 1J/kg

      Explanation:

      According to APLS, your next step should be one of the following: synchronous DC shock, amiodarone, or cardiology advice for alternative antiarrhythmics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 15-day old baby was brought to the emergency department with constipation for...

    Correct

    • A 15-day old baby was brought to the emergency department with constipation for 4 days. On examination, the abdomen of the baby was found to be distended and tender all over. No bowel sounds were heard. A sigmoid colon biopsy was carried out, which showed absent ganglion cells. What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hirschsprung’s disease

      Explanation:

      Hirschsprung’s disease is characterized by congenital absence of the autonomic plexus (Meissner’s and Auerbach’s plexus) in the intestinal wall. Usually limited to the distal colon, it can occasionally involve the entire colon or even the small bowel. There is abnormal or absent peristalsis in the affected segment, resulting in continuous spasm of smooth muscle and partial/complete obstruction. This causes accumulation of intestinal contents and dilatation of proximal segment. Skip lesions are highly uncommon. This disease is seen early in life with 15% patients presenting in first month, 60% by 1 year of age and 85% by the age of 4 years. Symptoms include severe and complete constipation, abdominal distension and vomiting. Patients with involvement of ultra-short segments might have mild constipation with intervening diarrhoea. In older children, symptoms include failure to thrive, anorexia, and lack of an urge to defecate. On examination, an empty rectum is revealed with stool palpable high up in the colon. If not diagnosed in time, it can lead to Hirschsprung’s enterocolitis (toxic megacolon), which can be fulminant and lead to death. Diagnosis involves a barium enema or a rectal suction biopsy. Barium enema shows a transition in diameter between the dilated, normal colon proximal to the narrowed, affected distal segment. It is to be noted that barium enema should be done without prior preparation, which can dilate the abnormal segment, leading to a false-negative result. A 24-hour post-evacuation film can be obtained in the neonatal period – if the colon is still filled with barium, there is a high likelihood of Hirschsprung’s disease. Full-thickness rectal biopsy is diagnostic by showing the absence of ganglion cells. Acetylcholinesterase staining can be done to highlight the enlarged nerve trunks. Abnormal innervation can also be demonstrated by rectal manometry.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 13-month-old boy presents to the hospital with a rash and breathing difficulties...

    Correct

    • A 13-month-old boy presents to the hospital with a rash and breathing difficulties following routine vaccination. On examination, it was noted that he was developing swelling around the mouth and neck.What is the most appropriate next step to manage this child?

      Your Answer: IM adrenaline 150 mcg (0.15ml of 1 in 1,000)

      Explanation:

      The IM dose of adrenaline for anaphylaxis in:< 6 months: 150 micrograms (0.15ml 1 in 1,000)6 months - 6 years: 150 micrograms (0.15ml 1 in 1,000)6 - 12 years: 300 micrograms (0.3ml 1 in 1,000)Adult and child > 12 years: 500 micrograms (0.5ml 1 in 1,000)Anaphylaxis:Anaphylaxis is an acute, rapidly progressing, potentially life-threatening IgE mediated Type I hypersensitivity reaction.It involves the release of mediators from mast cells, basophils and inflammatory cells. It is characterised by oedematous swelling of the airway mucosa giving rise to dyspnoea and respiratory distress. The most common cause of anaphylaxis in children is a food allergy.Risk factors for death in patients with anaphylaxis include asthma, age 11+, peanut allergy, and delay in adrenaline administration.Management of anaphylaxis includes:- ABCD- Remove the allergen- IM adrenaline or Nebulised adrenaline- IV Hydrocortisone – pro re nata IV fluid support. – Followed by observation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 16-year-old girl has ingested a pesticide in a suicide attempt. She presented...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl has ingested a pesticide in a suicide attempt. She presented with bronchoconstriction, excessive salivation, and diarrhoea. On examination, a drop in heart rate and blood pressure was noted.What is the mechanism by which the substance causes these effects?

      Your Answer: Reduction in the re-uptake of acetylcholine into neurones

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of acetylcholine metabolism

      Explanation:

      The symptoms of excessive salivation and diarrhoea, along with hypotension, bradycardia, and bronchoconstriction, indicates excess parasympathetic nervous system activity. The patient is showing features of acetylcholine toxicity. Pesticides typically contain organophosphates that are potent inhibitors of acetylcholinesterase. This enzyme is responsible for the metabolism of acetylcholine. Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter used in the neuromuscular junction, as well as at select points in the autonomic nervous system. The autonomic acetylcholine receptors can be nicotinic (more sensitive to nicotine) or muscarinic (more sensitive to muscarine). The most relevant receptors in this scenario are the muscarinic receptors as the majority are located in the parasympathetic nervous system smooth muscle, exocrine glands, and cardiac conduction system.Other options:- Accordingly, to cause the symptoms described, there must be an abundance of acetylcholine which stimulates the muscarinic receptors to enhance the parasympathetic effects. Therefore the reduction in the formation of acetylcholine option must be incorrect as this would produce the opposite effect. – Noradrenaline is the primary neurotransmitter in the sympathetic nervous system, and both answer options relating to noradrenaline would increase the neurotransmitter and potentiate the sympathetic nervous system effects, making them incorrect.Features can predict the accumulation of acetylcholine (mnemonic = SLUD):- Salivation- Lacrimation- Urination- Defecation/diarrhoeaCardiovascular symptoms include hypotension and bradycardia. The patient can show associated small pupils and muscle fasciculationManagement:- Atropine- The role of pralidoxime is still unclear – meta-analyses to date have failed to show any clear benefit.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A child is brought to the hospital by his mother, who complains that...

    Correct

    • A child is brought to the hospital by his mother, who complains that he has been running a fever and associated with a headache.Which of the following clinical features, if present, is suggestive of raised intracranial pressure?

      Your Answer: Bradycardia

      Explanation:

      Among the options provided, bradycardia is a feature of raised intracranial pressure.The features of raised intracranial pressure include relative bradycardia and hypertension, altered consciousness, focal neurology and seizures.All other options are signs of shock but not raised intracranial pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - An 8 year old girl presents with a chest injury, following a road...

    Correct

    • An 8 year old girl presents with a chest injury, following a road traffic accident. You intubate and ventilate her. However, at some point you notice that the girl becomes tachycardic and her blood pressure drops. Her trachea is displaced to one side and neck veins appear quite distended. What should you do next?

      Your Answer: Needle Decompression

      Explanation:

      The clinical picture suggests tension pneumothorax which requires immediate needle decompression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 10-year-old asthmatic boy is brought to the emergency department with severe stridor,...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old asthmatic boy is brought to the emergency department with severe stridor, wheeze, and lip swelling following the ingestion of a cashew nut at a birthday party.Which of the following can be considered an acceptable treatment option for this child?

      Your Answer: IM adrenaline 100 microgram/kg

      Correct Answer: Nebulised adrenaline 5ml 1:1,000

      Explanation:

      The patient is suffering from an anaphylactic reaction to the cashew nut he consumed.Anaphylaxis:Anaphylaxis is an acute, rapidly progressing, potentially life-threatening IgE mediated Type I hypersensitivity reaction.It involves the release of mediators from mast cells, basophils and inflammatory cells. It is characterised by oedematous swelling of the airway mucosa giving rise to dyspnoea and respiratory distress.The most common cause of anaphylaxis in children is a food allergy.Risk factors for death in patients with anaphylaxis include asthma, age 11+, peanut allergy, and delay in adrenaline administration.Management of anaphylaxis includes:- Resuscitation – ABCD- Remove the allergen- IM adrenaline is given at ten microgram/kg or Nebulised adrenaline 5ml 1:1,000- IV Hydrocortisone is given at 4mg/kg- pro re nata IV fluid support. – Followed by observation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 17-year-old boy presents to the emergency after being involved in a fight...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old boy presents to the emergency after being involved in a fight outside a club and being beaten with a baseball bat. Under observation his GCS deteriorates, and he becomes comatose. Which of the following parameters are most likely to be present during this condition?

      Your Answer: Hypertension and bradycardia

      Explanation:

      Cushing reflex is a physiological nervous system response to increased intracranial pressure (ICP) that results in Cushing’s triad of increased blood pressure, irregular breathing, and bradycardia. It is usually seen in the terminal stages of acute head injury and may indicate imminent brain herniation. It can also be seen after the intravenous administration of epinephrine and similar drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 12 year old girl is admitted with severe (35%) burns following a...

    Incorrect

    • A 12 year old girl is admitted with severe (35%) burns following a fire at home. She was transferred to the critical care unit after the wound was cleaned and dressed. She became tachycardic and hypotensive one day after skin grafts were done. She has vomited three times and blood was seen in it. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Disseminated intra vascular coagulation

      Correct Answer: Curling's ulcers

      Explanation:

      Answer: Curling’s ulcersCurling’s ulcer is an acute gastric erosion resulting as a complication from severe burns when reduced plasma volume leads to ischemia and cell necrosis (sloughing) of the gastric mucosa. The most common mode of presentation of stress ulcer is the onset of acute upper GI bleed like hematemesis or melena in a patient with the acute critical illness. A similar condition involving elevated intracranial pressure is known as Cushing’s ulcer. Cushing’s ulcer is a gastro-duodenal ulcer produced by elevated intracranial pressure caused by an intracranial tumour, head injury or other space-occupying lesions. The ulcer, usually single and deep, may involve the oesophagus, stomach, and duodenum. Increased intracranial pressure may affect different areas of the hypothalamic nuclei or brainstem leading to overstimulation of the vagus nerve or paralysis of the sympathetic system. Both of these circumstances increase secretion of gastric acid and the likelihood of ulceration of gastro-duodenal mucosa.Mallory-Weiss syndrome is characterized by upper gastrointestinal bleeding secondary to longitudinal mucosal lacerations (known as Mallory-Weiss tears) at the gastroesophageal junction or gastric cardia. However, Mallory-Weiss syndrome may occur after any event that provokes a sudden rise in the intragastric pressure or gastric prolapse into the oesophagus, including antecedent transoesophageal echocardiography. Precipitating factors include retching, vomiting, straining, hiccupping, coughing, primal scream therapy, blunt abdominal trauma, and cardiopulmonary resuscitation. In a few cases, no apparent precipitating factor can be identified. One study reported that 25% of patients had no identifiable risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 20-year-old female was brought to the emergency department. Her presentation was highly...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old female was brought to the emergency department. Her presentation was highly suggestive of meningitis. Direct ophthalmoscopy revealed no signs of papilledema. Thus, she was planned for a lumbar puncture. What is the structure first encountered while inserting the needle?

      Your Answer: Supraspinous ligament

      Explanation:

      During lumbar puncture, the first structures encountered by the needle are skin and subcutaneous tissue. But, since they are not provided in the options, the most superficial structure after them is the supraspinous ligament.Lumbar puncture is a procedure performed to obtain cerebrospinal fluid. The procedure is best performed at the level of L3/L4 or L4/5 interspace. During the procedure, the needle pierces the following structures in order from superficial to deep: Skin, subcutaneous tissue, supraspinous ligament, interspinous ligament, ligamentum flavum, the epidural space containing the internal vertebral venous plexus, dura, and arachnoid, finally entering the subarachnoid space. The supraspinous ligament connects the tips of spinous processes and the interspinous ligaments between adjacent borders of spinous processes.As the needle penetrates the ligamentum flavum, it causes a give. A second give is felt when the needle penetrates the dura mater and enters the subarachnoid space. At this point, clear CSF flows through the needle and can be collected for diagnostic purposes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      16.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Emergency Medicine (6/10) 60%
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