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  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old male presented to the ER after being rescued from a house...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old male presented to the ER after being rescued from a house fire. He complained of feeling dizzy and having a worsening headache. On examination, he was dyspnoeic, drowsy and confused. There was no evidence of facial burns and no stridor. He was normotensive, tachycardic (pulse rate: 102 bpm), tachypnoeic (respiratory rate: 35/min) and had O2 saturation of 100% in room air. His venous blood gas results are given below:
      pH - 7.28
      pCO2 - 3.5 kPa
      pO2 - 15.9 kPa
      Na+ - 139 mmol/L
      K+ - 4.5 mmol/L
      Bicarbonate - 11 mmol/L
      Chloride - 113 mmol/L
      Lactate - 13.6 mmol/L

      Keeping in mind the likely diagnosis, which among the following is the most appropriate intervention for this patient?

      Your Answer: Intravenous hydroxocobalamin

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate intervention in this patient is intravenous hydroxocobalamin.
      The clinical scenario provided is suggestive of acute cyanide toxicity secondary to burning plastics in the house fire.
      Cyanide ions inhibit mitochondrial cytochrome oxidase, preventing aerobic respiration. This manifests in normal oxygen saturations, a high pO2 and flushing (or ‘brick red’ skin) brought on by the excess oxygenation of venous blood. In the question above it is important to note that the blood gas sample given is venous rather than arterial. His blood gas also demonstrates an increased anion gap, consistent with his high lactate (generated by anaerobic respiration due to the inability to use available oxygen).

      The recommended treatment for moderate cyanide toxicity in the UK is one of three options: sodium thiosulfate, hydroxocobalamin or dicobalt edetate.

      Among the options given is hydroxocobalamin and this is, therefore, the correct answer. Hydroxocobalamin additionally has the best side-effect profile and speed of onset compared with other treatments for cyanide poisoning.

      Other options:
      – Intubation would be appropriate treatment in the context of airway burns but this patient has no evidence of these, although close monitoring would be advised.
      – High-flow oxygen is the treatment for carbon monoxide poisoning – a sensible differential, but this man’s very high lactate and high venous pO2 fit better with cyanide toxicity. Intravenous dexamethasone would be another treatment for airway oedema once an endotracheal tube had been placed.
      – Intravenous sodium nitroprusside is a treatment for high blood pressure that can cause cyanide poisoning, and would, therefore, be inappropriate.

      Note:

      Cyanide may be used in insecticides, photograph development and the production of certain metals. Toxicity results from reversible inhibition of cellular oxidizing enzymes
      Clinical presentation:
      Classical features: brick-red skin, the smell of bitter almonds
      Acute: hypoxia, hypotension, headache, confusion
      Chronic: ataxia, peripheral neuropathy, dermatitis

      Management:
      Supportive measures: 100% oxygen
      Definitive: hydroxocobalamin (intravenously), also a combination of amyl nitrite (inhaled), sodium nitrite (intravenously), and sodium thiosulfate (intravenously).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      38.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A diagnosed case of scabies presented in OPD for some medical advice. Which...

    Correct

    • A diagnosed case of scabies presented in OPD for some medical advice. Which of the following statements best suits scabies?

      Your Answer: It causes itchiness in the skin even where there is no obvious lesion to be seen

      Explanation:

      Scabies is an infection caused by a microscopic mite known as Sarcoptes scabies. The chief presenting complaint is itching especially in skin folds and mostly during night. It spreads from one person to another through skin contact, and therefore it is more prevalent in crowded areas like hospitals, hostels and even at homes where people live in close contact with each other. Treatment options include benzyl benzoate, ivermectin, sulphur and permethrin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • The Skin
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 30-year-old female went to her local doctor's surgery for a follow-up to...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old female went to her local doctor's surgery for a follow-up to a cervical smear test. The smear was sent to histology and was identified as CIN2. Choose the most appropriate management for this patient.

      Your Answer: Refer for colposcopy

      Explanation:

      Screening for cervical carcinoma helps to prevent the development of the disease. According to NICE, the screening interval using liquid-based cytology (as opposed to PAP) is 3 years for women less than 50 years old and 5 years for women over 50 years old. If a smear test is conducted and it shows no endocervical cells then it should be conducted again. This is because there was either inadequate preparation or sampling, or the sampling was done at the wrong point in the menstrual cycle. For severe dyskaryosis or carcinoma in situ, the patient needs treatment and should, therefore, be referred for a colposcopy. Clue cells are vaginal epithelial cells that are fuzzy (i.e.. without distinct edges) when looking at through a microscope. When bacterial vaginosis is present, over 20 per cent of the sample cells are clue cells. Bacterial vaginosis is treated with metronidazole therapy. Although trichomoniasis is treated with metronidazole too, the patient should be tested for other sexually transmitted diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Women's Health
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 57-year-old architect presents with weakness of the right hand. You note global...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old architect presents with weakness of the right hand. You note global wasting of the small hand muscles. There is also sensory loss over the medial border of the forearm around the elbow. Which of the following nerve roots is damaged?

      Your Answer: T1

      Explanation:

      This patient has Klumpke’s paralysis due to damage to the T1 nerve root. This root eventually supplies the median and ulnar nerves. The ulnar nerve supplies all of the intrinsic hand muscles except for those of the thenar eminence and the first and second lumbricals, which are innervated by the median nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 61-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism and inflammatory arthritis is admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism and inflammatory arthritis is admitted after slipping on ice and falling over. Some routine blood tests are performed:


      Na+ 141 mmol/l
      K+ 2.9 mmol/l
      Chloride 114 mmol/l
      Bicarbonate 16 mmol/l
      Urea 5.2 mmol/l
      Creatinine 75 µmol/l

      Which one of the following is most likely to explain these results?

      Your Answer: Aspirin overdose

      Correct Answer: Renal tubular acidosis (type 1)

      Explanation:

      The patient’s underlying arthritis has most likely led to Renal tubular acidosis RTA type 1, which presents with the following symptoms consistent with the presentation of the patient: Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis/acidaemia, hypokalaemia and hyperchloremia. Comparatively, the other conditions are ruled out because Aspirin and diabetic ketoacidosis is associated with a raised anion gap, Conn’s syndrome explains hypokalaemia but not the metabolic acidosis, and RTA type 4 is associated with hyperkalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      62.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 30 year male admitted following a stab injury to his left upper...

    Correct

    • A 30 year male admitted following a stab injury to his left upper chest. He complained of difficulty in breathing. On examination his chest movements were unequal on the left side. Which of the following nerves is most likely to be damaged?

      Your Answer: Left phrenic nerve

      Explanation:

      Difficulty in breathing and unequal chest movements are due to paralysis of the diaphragm. So the nerve affected is the left phrenic nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old male is admitted following a collapse while competing in an iron...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old male is admitted following a collapse while competing in an iron man triathlon. His blood results are as follows:
      Na+ 122 mmol/l
      K+ 3.4 mmol/l
      Urea 3.2 mmol/l
      Creatinine 69 umol/l

      During assessment he becomes increasingly obtunded and goes on to have multiple tonic clonic seizures. What is the most appropriate treatment from the list below to improve his neurological status?

      Your Answer: Hypertonic saline

      Explanation:

      Over consumption of fluids, prolonged race duration and inadequate training all can predispose to acute hyponatraemia.
      Mild symptoms include a decreased ability to think, headaches, nausea, and an increased risk of falls. Severe symptoms include confusion, seizures, and coma. Normal serum sodium levels are 135 – 145 mEq/liter (135 – 145 mmol/L). Hyponatremia is generally defined as a serum sodium level of less than 135 mEq/L and is considered severe when the level is below 120 mEq/L.
      The correct treatment to give is hypertonic saline. Decompressive craniotomy would help alleviate raised intracranial pressure due to cerebral oedema however is not an appropriate first line treatment. Demeclocycline is used for SIADH and mannitol is more likely to be used in the context of traumatic brain injury.
      Hyponatremia is corrected slowly, to lessen the risk of the development of central pontine myelinolysis (CPM), a severe neurological disease involving a breakdown of the myelin sheaths covering parts of nerve cells. During treatment of hyponatremia, the serum sodium (salt level in the blood) should not rise by more than 8 mmol/L over 24 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      31.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 65-year-old retired postman has been complaining of a two-month history of lethargy...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old retired postman has been complaining of a two-month history of lethargy associated with dyspnoea. He has never smoked and takes no medication. The chest X-ray shows multiple round lesions increasing in size and numbers at the base. There is no hilar lymphadenopathy.
       
      What condition does he most likely have?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary metastases

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary metastasis is seen in 20-54% of extrathoracic malignancies. The lungs are the second most frequent site of metastases from extrathoracic malignancies. Twenty percent of metastatic disease is isolated to the lungs. The development of pulmonary metastases in patients with known malignancies indicates disseminated disease and places the patient in stage IV in TNM (tumour, node, metastasis) staging systems.
      Chest radiography (CXR) is the initial imaging modality used in the detection of suspected pulmonary metastasis in patients with known malignancies. Chest CT scanning without contrast is more sensitive than CXR.
      Breast, colorectal, lung, kidney, head and neck, and uterus cancers are the most common primary tumours with lung metastasis at autopsy. Choriocarcinoma, osteosarcoma, testicular tumours, malignant melanoma, Ewing sarcoma, and thyroid cancer frequently metastasize to lung, but the frequency of these tumours is low.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      37.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 32-year-old asthmatic woman presents with an acute attack. Her arterial blood gases...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old asthmatic woman presents with an acute attack. Her arterial blood gases breathing air are as follows:
      pH 7.31
      pO2 9.6 kPa
      pCO2 5.1 kPa

      What do these results signify?

      Your Answer: Cardiorespiratory arrest could be imminent

      Correct Answer: Her respiratory effort may be failing because she is getting tired

      Explanation:

      In any patient with asthma, a decreasing PaO2 and an increasing PaCO2, even into the normal range, indicates severe airway obstruction that is leading to respiratory muscle fatigue and patient exhaustion.

      Chest tightness and cough, which are the most common symptoms of asthma, are probably the result of inflammation, mucus plugs, oedema, or smooth muscle constriction in the small peripheral airways. Because major obstruction of the peripheral airways can occur without recognizable increases of airway resistance or FEV1, the physiologic alterations in acute exacerbations are generally subtle in the early stages. Poorly ventilated alveoli subtending obstructed bronchioles continue to be perfused, and as a consequence, the P(A-a)O2 increases and the PaO2 decreases. At this stage, ventilation is generally increased, with excessive elimination of carbon dioxide and respiratory alkalemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      35.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A drunken man has fallen asleep in a position with his arm hanging...

    Incorrect

    • A drunken man has fallen asleep in a position with his arm hanging down. After waking up he complained of wrist drop and sensory loss at the web of the thumb. Which of the following structures is most likely to be affected?

      Your Answer: Axillary nerve

      Correct Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      This presentation is known as ‘Saturday night palsy’. When someone falls asleep with a arm hanging over the arm rest of a chair, the radial nerve compresses and causes wrist drop and loss of sensation at the web of the thumb.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 20-year-old woman presents with weakness and is found to have a serum...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old woman presents with weakness and is found to have a serum potassium of 2.2 mmol/l and pH 7.1.
       
      Which of the following would be LEAST useful in differentiating between renal tubular acidosis Types 1 and 2?

      Your Answer: Osteomalacia

      Explanation:

      Osteomalacia is a marked softening of the bones that can present in both type I and type II Renal Tubular Acidosis (RTA) and will thus not differentiate the two types in any case. The other measures will allow differentiation of the two types.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      93.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 24-year-old woman develops hyperthyroidism 6 weeks after delivery. On examination, she has...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old woman develops hyperthyroidism 6 weeks after delivery. On examination, she has a painless, firm enlarged thyroid gland.
      Which of the following statements is most correct regarding her probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Around 20% of women have some degree of thyroid dysfunction post partum

      Correct Answer: The condition is more likely in those in whom thyroid peroxidase (TPO) antibodies were positive prior to delivery

      Explanation:

      Up to 10% of postpartum women may develop lymphocytic thyroiditis (postpartum thyroiditis) in the 2-12 months after delivery. The frequency may be as high as 25% in women with type 1 diabetes mellitus.

      Some patients return spontaneously to a euthyroid state within a few months, but most patients experience a phase of hypothyroidism that takes 2 to 6 months to resolve; of this group, some develop permanent hypothyroidism. About 50% of patients, however, will develop permanent hypothyroidism within 5 years of the diagnosis of postpartum thyroiditis.

      High titres of anti-TPO antibodies during pregnancy have been reported to have high sensitivity and specificity for postpartum autoimmune thyroid disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      51.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 82-year-old woman admitted following a fractured neck of femur has been discharged....

    Incorrect

    • A 82-year-old woman admitted following a fractured neck of femur has been discharged. On review, she is making good progress but consideration is given to secondary prevention of further fractures. What is the most appropriate step in the prevention of further fractures?

      Your Answer: Arrange DEXA scan + start strontium ranelate if T-score < -2.5 SD

      Correct Answer: Start oral bisphosphonate

      Explanation:

      In such a clinical scenario, NICE guidelines support initiating treatment with bisphosphonates without waiting for a DEXA scan.

      Osteoporosis is defined as low bone mineral density caused by altered bone microstructure ultimately predisposing patients to low-impact, fragility fractures.

      Management:
      Vitamin D and calcium supplementation should be offered to all women unless the clinician is confident they have adequate calcium intake and are vitamin D replete
      Alendronate is the first-line treatment. Around 25% of patients cannot tolerate alendronate, usually due to upper gastrointestinal problems. These patients should be offered risedronate or etidronate.
      Strontium ranelate and raloxifene are recommended if patients cannot tolerate bisphosphonates.
      Other medications that are useful in the treatment of osteoporosis are denosumab, teriparatide, raloxifene, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      27.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 45-year-old male complains of abdominal pain and loose stools. On endoscopy, multiple...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male complains of abdominal pain and loose stools. On endoscopy, multiple ulcers were seen from the oesophagus until the stomach. What will be the next best investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer: Sigmoidoscopy

      Correct Answer: Serum gastrin estimation

      Explanation:

      Serum gastrin level will helps in the diagnosis of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, which is characterised by a  history of recurrent and multiple gastric ulcers, due to increase gastrin secretion by the cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      45.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 6-year-old boy has been taken to his local hospital for his third...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old boy has been taken to his local hospital for his third sore throat in one month. Doctors have discovered bleeding from his gums and nose. He is also presenting with pale conjunctiva. From the list of options, what is the single cell type most likely to be seen on microscopy?

      Your Answer: Blast cells

      Explanation:

      Many of the symptoms favour blast cells: the patient’s young age; a reoccurring sore throat caused by neutropenia and abnormal lymphoblasts; pale conjunctiva due to reduced production of red blood cells (this is because the marrow has been occupied by blast cells). There are no risk factors present for aplastic anaemia, and congenital aplastic anaemia would present itself earlier in life. A bone marrow aspiration would be needed to confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      22.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 23-year-old student commences chemotherapy for B-type acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. She suffers from...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old student commences chemotherapy for B-type acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. She suffers from vomiting, but 36 hours later her condition worsens and her bloods reveal a corrected calcium of 2.0 mmol/l and serum potassium of 6.7 mmol/l.

      Which of the following options is the best way to avoid this problem from occurring?

      Your Answer: Hydration and allopurinol pre-chemotherapy

      Explanation:

      This case is most likely tumour lysis syndrome, often occurring immediately after starting chemotherapy because the tumour cells are killed and their contents are released into the bloodstream. After treating lymphomas or leukaemia, there is a sudden hypocalcaemia, hyperphosphatemia, and hyperkalaemia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 17-year-old Caucasian woman presents with lethargy and chronic nausea. Her mother is...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old Caucasian woman presents with lethargy and chronic nausea. Her mother is worried she may be depressed.

      On examination, there are signs of chronic liver disease and a gold-yellow ring at the periphery of the iris in both eyes. Her serum copper level is low.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Haemochromatosis

      Correct Answer: Wilson's disease

      Explanation:

      This patient has Wilson’s disease. They Kayser-Fleischer ring (ring that encircles the iris) is diagnostic of this. Low serum copper is seen in Wilson’s disease. With the Kayser-Fleischer ring, this makes all of the other answer choices incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      205.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 72-year-old woman who presented with headache and neck stiffness was started on...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old woman who presented with headache and neck stiffness was started on IV ceftriaxone after undergoing a lumbar puncture. The CSF culture shows listeria monocytogenes. What is the treatment of choice?

      Your Answer: Change to IV amoxicillin + gentamicin

      Explanation:

      The best option would be the combination of ampicillin and gentamycin. Changing to IV amoxicillin+gentamycin is however the best among the given choices here.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      138.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Arrange the following opioid analgesics in order of increasing potency. ...

    Incorrect

    • Arrange the following opioid analgesics in order of increasing potency.

      Your Answer: Codeine, oxycodone, morphine, diamorphine

      Correct Answer: Codeine, morphine, oxycodone, diamorphine

      Explanation:

      Opioid analgesics produce pain relief by attaching to the opioid receptors in the brain. Out of these, codeine is the least potent and diamorphine the most potent. Codeine is used to relieve mild to moderate pain. Morphine is a stronger analgesic used to treat pain like that experienced after surgery or injury. Oxycodone acts like the endorphins in the brain and reduces pain sensation. It is more potent than codeine and morphine and is used for relieving moderate to severe forms of pain. Among the listed, diamorphine is the most potent opioid analgesic. It is administered intravenously, subcutaneously, or intramuscularly to treat severe pain after surgery or in terminally-ill patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      22.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 33-year-old woman has missed her last two periods and has been lactating....

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old woman has missed her last two periods and has been lactating. Upon anamnesis, she claims she's lost weight and she's been suffering from vaginal dryness. The endocrinologist suggests that she checks her prolactin levels. Which of the following inhibits prolactin release from the hypophysis?

      Your Answer: Thyrotropin releasing hormone

      Correct Answer: Dopamine

      Explanation:

      Dopamine (DA) holds a predominant role in the regulation of prolactin (PRL) secretion. Through a direct effect on anterior pituitary lactotrophs, DA inhibits the basally high-secretory tone of the cell. It accomplishes this by binding to D2 receptors expressed on the cell membrane of the lactotroph, activation of which results in a reduction of PRL exocytosis and gene expression by a variety of intracellular signalling mechanisms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      36.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following is a good prognostic factor in chronic lymphocytic leukaemia?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a good prognostic factor in chronic lymphocytic leukaemia?

      Your Answer: CD38 expression positive

      Correct Answer: Female sex

      Explanation:

      Good prognosis of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) is associated with deletion of the long arm of chromosome 13 (del 13q). This is the most common abnormality, seen in around 50% of all CLL patients. Poor prognosis of the disease is related to deletion of part of the short arm of chromosome 17 (del 17p). This is seen in around 5-10% of the patients suffering from CLL.

      Poor prognostic factors of CLL include:
      1. Male sex
      2. Age >70 years
      3. Lymphocyte count >50
      4. Prolymphocytes comprising more than 10% of blood lymphocytes
      5. Lymphocyte doubling time <12 months
      6. Raised LDH
      7. CD38 expression positive

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      38.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 74-year-old woman is admitted with headaches, polyuria and polydipsia of recent onset....

    Incorrect

    • A 74-year-old woman is admitted with headaches, polyuria and polydipsia of recent onset. She has a history of mastectomy for breast cancer. A CT head scan shows multiple cerebral metastases.

      Her admission biochemistry results are as follows:
      Sodium 153 mmol/l
      Potassium 4.0 mmol/l
      Urea 5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 110 micromol/l
      Glucose 5 mmol/l.
      Over the next 24 hours, she has a urinary volume of 4.4 litres and further tests reveal plasma osmolality 320 mOsm/kg and urinary osmolality: 254 mOsm/kg.

      Which one of the following treatments should be used?

      Your Answer: Demeclocycline

      Correct Answer: Desmopressin (DDAVP)

      Explanation:

      Diabetes insipidus (DI) is defined as the passage of large volumes (>3 L/24 hr) of dilute urine (< 300 mOsm/kg). It has the following 2 major forms:
      – Central (neurogenic, pituitary, or neurohypophyseal) DI, characterized by decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH; also referred to as arginine vasopressin [AVP])
      – Nephrogenic DI, characterized by decreased ability to concentrate urine because of resistance to ADH action in the kidney
      This patient has the central type from metastases.
      In patients with central DI, desmopressin is the drug of choice. It is a synthetic analogue of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). It is available in subcutaneous, IV, intranasal, and oral preparations. Generally, it can be administered 2-3 times per day. Patients may require hospitalization to establish fluid needs. Frequent electrolyte monitoring is recommended during the initial phase of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      80.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 55-year-old male visited his diabetic clinic with a complaint of inability to...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male visited his diabetic clinic with a complaint of inability to walk properly due to weakness of his lower limbs. On examination, dorsiflexion was found to be weak bilaterally and there was diminished sensation on the dorsum of his feet as well as on the lower lateral portions of his legs. Which of the following could have led to this condition?

      Your Answer: Compression of the S1 nerve root

      Correct Answer: Compression of the common peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      The branches of the common peroneal nerve innervate the skin of the dorsum of the foot as well as the muscles which help to carry out dorsiflexion of the foot. Compression of the common peroneal nerve cause foot drop as well as the loss in sensation of the skin on the dorsum of the foot.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      42
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - What are the most common types of transformation seen in patients with polycythaemia...

    Incorrect

    • What are the most common types of transformation seen in patients with polycythaemia vera?

      Your Answer: Myelodysplasia + chronic myeloid leukaemia

      Correct Answer: Myelofibrosis + acute myeloid leukaemia

      Explanation:

      5-15% of the cases of polycythaemia vera progress to myelofibrosis or acute myeloid leukaemia (AML).

      Polycythaemia vera (PV), also known as polycythaemia rubra vera, is a myeloproliferative disorder caused by clonal proliferation of marrow stem cells leading to an increase in red cell volume, often accompanied by overproduction of neutrophils and platelets. It has peak incidence in the sixth decade of life, with typical features including hyperviscosity, pruritus, splenomegaly, haemorrhage (secondary to abnormal platelet function), and plethoric appearance.

      Some management options of PV include lose-dose aspirin, venesection (first-line treatment), hydroxyurea (slightly increased risk of secondary leukaemia), and radioactive phosphorus (P-32) therapy.

      In PV, thrombotic events are a significant cause of morbidity and mortality. 5-15% of the cases progress to myelofibrosis or AML. The risk of having AML is increased with chemotherapy treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      27.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 33-year-old Afro-Caribbean gentleman with a 5 year history of HIV infection presents...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old Afro-Caribbean gentleman with a 5 year history of HIV infection presents with swollen ankles. He has been treated with highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) for 2 years, with partial response.

      His plasma creatinine concentration is 358 μmol/l, albumin is 12 g/dl, CD4 count is 35/μl and 24 hour urine protein excretion rate is 6.8 g. Renal ultrasound shows echogenic kidneys 13.5 cm in length.

      What would a renal biopsy show?

      Your Answer: Microcystic tubular dilatation and collapsing FSGS

      Explanation:

      HIV-associated nephropathy (HIVAN) show typical findings of scarring called focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS) and microcystic tubular dilatation, prominent podocytes, and collapsing capillary loops.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      28
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 25-year-old woman comes to the endocrine clinic for her regular follow up....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to the endocrine clinic for her regular follow up. She has hypertension, controlled by a combination of Ramipril and indapamide and was diagnosed with 11-beta hydroxylase deficiency since birth when she was found to have clitoromegaly.
      Which of the following is most likely to be elevated?

      Your Answer: 17-OH progesterone

      Correct Answer: 11-Deoxycortisol

      Explanation:

      11-beta hydroxylase is stimulated by ACTH and responsible for conversion of 11-deoxycortisol to cortisol and deoxycorticosterone to corticosterone.

      In 11-beta hydroxylase deficiency, the previously mentioned conversions are partially blocked, leading to:
      – Increased levels of ACTH
      – Accumulation of 11-deoxycortisol (which has limited biological activity) and deoxycorticosterone (which has mineralocorticoid activity)
      – Overproduction of adrenal androgens (DHEA, androstenedione, and testosterone)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Tumour suppressor genes MLH1 and MSH2 are affected in which familial cancer? ...

    Correct

    • Tumour suppressor genes MLH1 and MSH2 are affected in which familial cancer?

      Your Answer: Hereditary non-polyposis colonic carcinoma (HNPCC)

      Explanation:

      In hereditary non-polyposis colonic carcinoma (HNPCC), mutations in MSH2, MSH6, PMS2 or MLH1 genes are found.
      Ataxia telangiectasia – ATM gene is affected.
      Familial adenomatous polyposis – APC gene is affected.
      Li-Fraumeni syndrome – mutation of the TP53 tumour suppressor gene. Neurofibromatosis – mutation in or a deletion of the NF1 gene

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 43-year-old man is about to be started on chemotherapy for a high-grade...

    Correct

    • A 43-year-old man is about to be started on chemotherapy for a high-grade lymphoma. He is given intravenous rasburicase to help lower the risk of tumour lysis syndrome (TLS).

      What is the mechanism of action of this drug?

      Your Answer: Converts uric acid to allantoin

      Explanation:

      Rasburicase is a recombinant version of urate oxidase which is an enzyme that metabolizes uric acid to allantoin.

      TLS is a potentially fatal condition occurring as a complication during the treatment of high-grade lymphomas and leukaemias. It occurs from the simultaneous breakdown (lysis) of the tumour cells and subsequent release of chemicals into the bloodstream. This leads to hyperkalaemia and hyperphosphatemia in the presence of hyponatraemia. TLS can occur in the absence of chemotherapy, but it is usually triggered by the introduction of combination chemotherapy. Awareness of the condition is critical for its prophylactic management.

      Patients at high risk of TLS should be given IV rasburicase or IV allopurinol immediately prior to and during the first few days of chemotherapy. Allantoin is much more water soluble than uric acid and is therefore more easily excreted by the kidneys. Patients in lower-risk groups should be given oral allopurinol during cycles of chemotherapy in an attempt to avoid the condition.

      TLS is graded according to the Cairo-Bishop scoring system as:
      1. Laboratory tumour lysis syndrome
      2. Clinical tumour lysis syndrome

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - An 80-year-old male has been receiving treatment for prostate cancer. He has complained...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old male has been receiving treatment for prostate cancer. He has complained of pain in his pelvis and, following radiological investigations, is shown to have pelvic metastases. Choose the most appropriate course of investigation for this patient.

      Your Answer: Pamidronate IV

      Correct Answer: Palliative radiotherapy

      Explanation:

      The patient could respond well to palliative radiotherapy. This course of action is likely to shrink the cancer and will, therefore, reduce the pain felt. Analgesics should then be used to control the symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      45.2
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 50-year-old diabetic and hypertensive patient who is on medication, presented in the...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old diabetic and hypertensive patient who is on medication, presented in the OPD with complaints of constipation, polyuria, polydipsia and confusion. On investigation: Serum calcium was 3.07, serum electrophoresis is negative and the X-ray is normal. Which is the most probable cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Drug induced-Bendroflumethiazide

      Explanation:

      Bendroflumethiazide is a drug used for treating hypertension and is a diuretic. It produces side effects such as constipation, frequent urination, fatigue, polydipsia etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      27.2
      Seconds

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Pharmacology (2/4) 50%
The Skin (1/1) 100%
Women's Health (1/1) 100%
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Renal System (3/4) 75%
Emergency & Critical Care (2/2) 100%
Respiratory System (1/2) 50%
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Gastrointestinal System (0/2) 0%
Haematology & Oncology (3/6) 50%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
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