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Question 1
Correct
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Which statement about the 2nd heart sound is true?
Your Answer: It is caused by closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves.
Explanation:The second heart sound is produced due to closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves. It is a high pitched dub sound.
Normally the aortic closure sound (A2) occurs prior to the pulmonic closure sound (P2), and the interval between the two (splitting) widens on inspiration and narrows on expiration. With quiet respiration, A2 will normally precede P2 by 0.02 to 0.08 second (mean, 0.03 to 0.04 sec) with inspiration. In younger subjects inspiratory splitting averages 0.04 to 0.05 second during quiet respiration. With expiration, A2 and P2 may be superimposed and are rarely split as much as 0.04 second. If the second sound is split by greater than 0.04 second on expiration, it is usually abnormal. Therefore, the presence of audible splitting during expiration (i.e., the ability to hear two distinct sounds during expiration) is of greater significance at the bedside in identifying underlying cardiac pathology than is the absolute inspiratory increase in the A2–P2 interval.
The respiratory variation of the second heart sound can be categorized as follows: (1) normal (physiologic) splitting; (2) persistent (audible expiratory) splitting, with normal respiratory variation; (3) persistent splitting without respiratory variation (fixed splitting); and (4) reversed (paradoxical) splitting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 2
Correct
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Which of the following describes a principal action of insulin?
Your Answer: Inhibition of phosphorylase and gluconeogenic enzymes
Explanation:Insulin stimulates glycolysis and lipogenesis, but inhibits gluconeogenesis. Insulin promotes the dephosphorylating of glycogen phosphorylase, therefore suppressing glycogenolysis. Insulin also inhibits FOX3, FOX4, and FOX6 and their ability to promote hepatic gluconeogenesis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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Question 3
Correct
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A 64 year old female presents with sudden onset pain, swelling and stiffness in her right knee. Her medical history is significant for osteoarthritis affecting her hand joints and diet controlled diabetes mellitus. On examination, the right knee is swollen, erythematous and tender. Which of the following tests would be most useful in the diagnosis of this case?
Your Answer: Aspiration and examination of the synovial fluid
Explanation:Arthrocentesis should usually be done when there is a suspicion of pseudogout or septic arthritis as in this case which leads to an early diagnosis and prompt treatment. Polarized microscopy demonstrates weakly positively birefringent rhomboid crystals which are blue when parallel to light and yellow when perpendicular to light. Elevated serum uric acid levels that cause gout are usually found after large consumption of alcohol or meat, or post surgery. Autoimmune diseases like SLE, RA etc require an autoimmune screen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Connective Tissue
- Medicine
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Question 4
Correct
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A 62 year old female has complained she feels unsteady when she is walking. She is examined and is found to have pyramidal weakness of her left lower leg. She also has reduced pain and temperature sensation on her right leg and right side of her torso up to the umbilicus. Her joint position sense is also impaired in her left big toe but is found to be normal elsewhere. She has definite left extensor plantar response, and the right plantar response is equivocal. Where is the lesion?
Your Answer: Left mid-thoracic cord
Explanation:In Brown-Sequard syndrome, there is paralysis and loss of proprioception, which occurs on the same (ipsilateral) side of the body, as the lesion. Loss of pain and temperature sensation, therefore, occurs on the opposite (contralateral) side of the body as the lesion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Geriatrics
- Medicine
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Question 5
Correct
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Concerning surface anatomy, where is the base of the heart
Your Answer: 2nd left costal to 3rd right costal cartilage
Explanation:The base of the heart, also known as the superior border of the heart corresponds to a line connecting the inferior border of the 2nd left costal cartilage to the superior border of the 3rd right costal cartilage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 6
Correct
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Arterioles stemming from the coronary artery can also empty into the heart directly via the:
Your Answer: Arteriosinusoidal vessels
Explanation:Most of the venous blood returns to the heart via the coronary sinus and the anterior cardiac veins. Apart from these there are other vessels that drain directly into the heart chambers. They include arteriosinusoidal vessels, which connect the arterioles to the heart chambers. The thebesian veins drain the capillaries into the chambers and the arterioluminal vessels drain small arteries directly into the chambers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 7
Correct
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Question 8
Correct
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A typical sleep cycle from stage 1 to the end of REM sleep in a normal adult is approximately how long?
Your Answer: 90 min
Explanation:A single sleep cycle has stages 1, 2, 3, 4 and REM (Rapid eye movement). These stages progress cyclically from 1 through to REM and then begin again with stage 1. A complete sleep cycle takes an average of 90-110 minutes, with each stage lasting between 5 to 15 minutes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 9
Correct
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Question 10
Correct
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Which is true of the composition of bile in the human hepatic duct?
Your Answer: Contains only actively secreted substances
Explanation:Hepatic bile is an isotonic fluid and its electrolyte composition resembles that of plasma. 97% of water is found in the gallbladder bile, not hepatic duct. Hepatic bile is alkaline. The ratio of bile acids: phosphatidylcholine: cholesterol is 20:1:3. Hepatic bile contai9ns only actively secreted substances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Hepatobiliary
- Medicine
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Question 11
Correct
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Oxygen enters blood from the alveoli by:
Your Answer: Passive diffusion
Explanation:Oxygen enters blood from the alveoli by simple diffusion along a concentration gradient. Concentration of oxygen and the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli are higher than the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood. So, oxygen moves from alveoli into blood via simple diffusion according to the concentration gradient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Respiratory
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Question 12
Correct
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The transporter responsible for most glucose absorption in the lumen of the small intestine is called?
Your Answer: SGLT 1
Explanation:GLUT = Glucose transporter. GLUT are a family of proteins of different types. GLUT 1 is mainly expressed in erythrocytes, whereas GLUT 2 is mainly expressed by, liver cells and renal tubular cells. GLUT 5 is a sucrose transporter in enterocytes. SGLT- Sodium-dependent glucose cotransporter or sodium-glucose linked transporter are a family of proteins of different types. SGLT1 transporter is found in the intestinal mucosa of the small intestine and SGLT2 in the proximal tubule of the nephron.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 13
Correct
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What is the function of secondary messengers?
Your Answer: Communication from extracellular to intracellular signalling pathways
Explanation:First messengers may not physically cross the phospholipid bilayer to initiate changes within the cell directly. This functional limitation necessitates the cell to devise signal transduction mechanisms to transduce first messenger into second messengers, so that the extracellular signal may be propagated intracellularly. Second messengers are intracellular signalling molecules released by the cell to trigger physiological changes such as proliferation, differentiation, migration, survival, and apoptosis. Secondary messengers are therefore one of the initiating components of intracellular signal transduction cascades.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Medicine
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Question 14
Correct
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In Argyll Robertson pupils…
Your Answer: All of the options given
Explanation:Argyll Robertson pupils are bilaterally small pupils that accommodate or reduce in size near an object but do not react to light. They do not constrict when exposed to bright light. They are a highly specific sign of neurosyphilis but may be seen in diabetic neuropathy as well.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 15
Correct
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Which coronary artery supplies the right atria?
Your Answer: Right coronary
Explanation:The left coronary artery distributes blood to the left side of the heart, the left atrium and ventricle, and the interventricular septum. The circumflex artery arises from the left coronary artery and follows the coronary sulcus to the left. Eventually, it will fuse with the small branches of the right coronary artery. The right coronary artery proceeds along the coronary sulcus and distributes blood to the right atrium, portions of both ventricles, and the heart conduction system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which caspase is part of both the intrinsic and extrinsic apoptotic pathways?
Your Answer: Caspase-5
Correct Answer: Caspase-3
Explanation:Once initiator caspases are activated in both the intrinsic and extrinsic pathway, they produce a chain reaction, activating several other executioner caspases (Caspase 3, Caspase 6 and Caspase 7).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Medicine
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Question 17
Correct
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What is the average life span of red blood cells?
Your Answer: 4 months
Explanation:Approximately 2.4 million new erythrocytes are produced per second in human adults. The cells develop in the bone marrow and circulate for about 100–120 days (4 months) in the body before their components are recycled by macrophages.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Medicine
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Question 18
Correct
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The effects of β1 stimulation include the following
Your Answer: Increased strength of contraction
Explanation:β1 stimulation include the phosphorylation of L type Ca++ channels and phospholamban and increased Ca++ influx from myocytes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which segment of the nephron is impermeable to water?
Your Answer: Descending limb of Henle
Correct Answer: Ascending limb of Henle
Explanation:Considerable differences aid in distinguishing the descending and ascending limbs of the loop of Henle. The descending limb is permeable to water and noticeably less permeable to salt, and thus only indirectly contributes to the concentration of the interstitium. Unlike the descending limb, the thin ascending limb is impermeable to water, a critical feature of the counter current exchange mechanism employed by the loop.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Renal
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Question 20
Correct
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Where do the portal hypophysial vessels arise?
Your Answer: Median eminence
Explanation:The hypothalamic-hypophysial portal system connects the brain to the anterior pituitary. It is made up of two capillary beds, one in the median eminence and the other in the anterior pituitary. Blood from the plexus of the median eminence is carried by portal veins, draining into the cavernous and posterior intercavernous sinuses. This system delivers hypothalamic hormones to their target cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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Question 21
Correct
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Which one of the following features is least associated with primary hyperparathyroidism?
Your Answer: Sensory loss
Explanation:The signs and symptoms of primary hyperparathyroidism are those of hypercalcemia. They are classically summarized by stones, bones, abdominal groans, thrones and psychiatric overtones.
Stones refers to kidney stones, nephrocalcinosis, and diabetes insipidus (polyuria and polydipsia). These can ultimately lead to renal failure.
Bones refers to bone-related complications: osteitis fibrosa cystica, osteoporosis, osteomalacia, and arthritis.
Abdominal groans refers to gastrointestinal symptoms of constipation, indigestion, nausea and vomiting. Hypercalcemia can lead to peptic ulcers and acute pancreatitis.
Thrones refers to polyuria and constipation
Psychiatric overtones refers to effects on the central nervous system. Symptoms include lethargy, fatigue, depression, memory loss, psychosis, ataxia, delirium, and coma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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Question 22
Correct
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Osteopetrosis occurs as a result of a defect in:
Your Answer: Osteoclast function
Explanation:It is a metabolic bone disease caused by defective osteoclastic resorption of immature bone. Osteopetrosis is also known as marble bone disease. Osteoclasts are unable to adequately acidify bone matrix. Impaired bone resorption leads to overly dense bone that is more likely to fracture. It is usually treated with bone marrow transplant and high dose calcitriol.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Connective Tissue
- Medicine
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Question 23
Correct
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Endotoxin
Your Answer: Composed of Lipid A in liposaccharide in cell wall
Explanation:Lipopolysaccharides (LPS), also known as lipoglycans and endotoxins, are large molecules consisting of a lipid (lipid A) and a polysaccharide composed of O-antigen, outer core and inner core joined by a covalent bond; they are found in the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria, and elicit strong immune responses in animals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
- Medicine
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Question 24
Correct
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Which of the following statements is true regarding pulsus alternans?
Your Answer: It is found in association with a third heart sound
Explanation:Pulsus alternans is a physical finding with arterial pulse waveform showing alternating strong and weak beats. It is almost always indicative of left ventricular systolic impairment, and carries a poor prognosis. A pathological third heart sound is usually associated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 25
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman diagnosed with non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma is about to be started on the CHOP regimen (cyclophosphamide, hydroxydaunorubicin, vincristine, and prednisolone). Her pre-chemotherapy blood investigations show:Hb: 11.8 g/dlPlatelets: 423 x 109/lWBC: 11.2 x 109/lNa+: 143 mmol/lK+: 3.9 mmol/lUrea: 6.2 mmol/lCreatinine: 78 μmol/lUric acid: 0.45 mmol/lCiprofloxacin is prescribed in addition to the CHOP regimen to reduce the risk of neutropenic sepsis. Which of the following drugs should be added to lower the risk of other complications?
Your Answer: Allopurinol
Explanation:Tumour lysis syndrome (TLS) occurs most notably in patients with haematological malignancies including, Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma (NHL) and Acute Lymphocytic Leukaemia (ALL).Risk factors for TLS include:• Large tumour burden• Sensitivity of the tumour to chemotherapy• Rapid tumour growth rateTLS is characterized by:• Hyperuricemia• Hyperkalaemia• Hyperphosphatemia• HypocalcaemiaTreatment of TLS:• Allopurinol: It is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor, it reduces the conversion of nucleic acid by-products to uric acid. Thus, it prevents urate nephropathy and subsequent oliguric renal failure. Note: dose reduction is essential in renal failure or if given along with mercaptopurine or azathioprine.Alternatives to Allopurinol: Febuxostat; Rasburicase are useful in patients with hyperuricemia.• Hydration• Diuresis: Should be considered in well hydrated patients with insufficient urine output. Furosemide to be considered in normo-volemic patients with hyperkalaemia. Urine alkalization can be considered for promoting alkaline diuresis.• Treatment of electrolyte imbalances including hyperkalaemia, hyperphosphatemia, and hypocalcaemia.• Dialysis can be considered in refractory cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 26
Correct
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Select the correct statement about the microanatomy of the thyroid gland.
Your Answer: The capillaries adjacent to thyroid cells have a fenestrated endothelium.
Explanation:Fenestrated capillaries have a very thin endothelium, which is perforated by numerous fenestrations or pores. Hormones are usually released into these capillaries, reaching their target cells through the circulatory system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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Question 27
Correct
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The coronary arteries supply which part of the heart’s subendocardial region exclusively in diastole?
Your Answer: Left ventricle
Explanation:It is only during diastole that the blood flows to the subendocardial portion of the left ventricle, as the heart muscle relaxes and the coronary arteries regain their patency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 28
Correct
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In a newly diagnosed acromegaly patient, which of the following would you not expect to find?
Your Answer: Hypohidrosis
Explanation:Features of acromegaly may include:
- Soft tissue swelling visibly resulting in enlargement of the hands, feet, nose, lips and ears, and a general thickening of the skin
- Soft tissue swelling of internal organs, notably the heart with associated weakening of its muscularity, and the kidneys, vocal cords (resulting in a characteristic thick, deep voice and slowing of speech)
- Generalized expansion of the skull at the fontanelle, frontal bossing, prognathism with associated macroglossia (enlargement of the tongue) and teeth spacing.
- Hypertrichosis, hyperpigmentation and hyperhidrosis (not hypohidrosis) may occur in these patients as well as carpal tunnel syndrome and impotence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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Question 29
Correct
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An 87-year-old woman had to double up her dosage of morphine 60mg into 120mg twice a day, in addition to another 10mg oral Morphine 6 times a day. What is the best method of management?
Your Answer: Subcutaneous morphine infusion
Explanation:Stable dose of Morphine is essential for chronic cases of pain that are non-malignant in origin. Using the SC route avoids having to intravenously cannulate a patient and allows for a continuous infusion of drugs over a calculated period of time providing constant dosing A significant advantage is that plasma levels of a drug are much more stable, and appropriate symptom control can be achieved without the toxic effects of the peaks and troughs resulting from episodic drug administration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Geriatrics
- Medicine
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Question 30
Correct
SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
