00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
Retry this test Dashboard

  • Question 1 - Regarding box and whisker plots, which of the following statements is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding box and whisker plots, which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: The box is divided by the mode

      Correct Answer: 25% of the values lie below the lower quartile

      Explanation:

      A box and whisker plot is defined as a graphical method of displaying variation in a set of data. In most cases, a histogram analysis provides a sufficient display, but a box and whisker plot can provide additional detail while allowing multiple sets of data to be displayed in the same graph.

      The procedure to develop a box and whisker plot comes from the five statistics below:

      (1) Minimum value: The smallest value in the data set

      (2) Second quartile: The value below which the lower 25% of the data are contained

      (3) Median value: The middle number in a range of numbers

      (4) Third quartile: The value above which the upper 25% of the data are contained

      (5) Maximum value: The largest value in the data set

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      7.2
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - Carbamazepine is indicated for all of the following EXCEPT for: ...

    Incorrect

    • Carbamazepine is indicated for all of the following EXCEPT for:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Myoclonic seizures

      Explanation:

      Carbamazepine is a drug of choice for simple and complex focal seizures and is a first-line treatment option for generalised tonic-clonic seizures. It is also used in trigeminal neuralgia and diabetic neuropathy. Carbamazepine may exacerbate tonic, atonic, myoclonic and absence seizures and is therefore not recommended if these seizures are present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - Which of the following corticosteroids has the most potent mineralocorticoid effect: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following corticosteroids has the most potent mineralocorticoid effect:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fludrocortisone

      Explanation:

      Fludrocortisone has the most potent mineralocorticosteroid activity, making it ideal for mineralocorticoid replacement in adrenal insufficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old guy who has had a knee-high plaster cast on his left...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old guy who has had a knee-high plaster cast on his left leg for the past 5 weeks arrives at the emergency department complaining of numbness on the dorsum of his left foot and an inability to dorsiflex or evert his foot. You know that his symptoms are due to fibular nerve compression. Where is the fibular nerve located?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neck of fibula

      Explanation:

      Dorsiflexion and eversion of the foot are innervated by the deep fibular nerve and the superficial fibular nerve, respectively.

      The common fibular nerve runs obliquely downward along the lateral border of the popliteal fossa (medial to the biceps femoris) before branching at the neck of the fibula.

      Thus, it is prone to being affected during an impact injury or fracture to the bone or leg. Casts that are placed too high can also compress the fibular nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - Which lobe of the prostate gland is most commonly affected in benign prostatic...

    Incorrect

    • Which lobe of the prostate gland is most commonly affected in benign prostatic hypertrophy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Median

      Explanation:

      Benign enlargement of the prostate is common in men older than 50 years. The cause is possibly an imbalance in the hormonal control of the gland. The median lobe of the gland enlarges upward and encroaches within the sphincter vesicae, located at the neck of the bladder. The leakage of urine into the prostatic urethra causes an intense reflex desire to micturate. The enlargement of the median and lateral lobes of the gland produces elongation and lateral compression and distortion of the urethra so that the patient experiences difficulty in passing urine and the stream is weak. Back-pressure effects on the ureters and both kidneys are a common complication. The enlargement of the uvula vesicae (owing to the enlarged median lobe) results in the formation of a pouch of stagnant urine behind the urethral orifice within the bladder. The stagnant urine frequently becomes infected, and the inflamed bladder (cystitis) adds to the patient’s symptoms.

      In all operations on the prostate, the surgeon regards the prostatic venous plexus with respect. The veins have thin walls, are valveless, and are drained by several large trunks directly into the internal iliac veins. Damage to these veins can result in a severe haemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - Myocardial contractility is best correlated with the intracellular concentration of: ...

    Incorrect

    • Myocardial contractility is best correlated with the intracellular concentration of:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ca2+

      Explanation:

      Contractility of myocardial cells depends on the intracellular [Ca2+], which is regulated by Ca2+entry across the cell membrane during the plateau of the action potential and by Ca2+uptake into and release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - In patients who are not at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure but are...

    Incorrect

    • In patients who are not at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure but are requiring oxygen, the oxygen saturations should be maintained at which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 94 - 98%

      Explanation:

      Oxygen saturation should be 94 – 98% in most acutely ill patients with a normal or low arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO2). In some clinical situations, however, like cardiac arrest and carbon monoxide poisoning, it is more appropriate to aim for the highest possible oxygen saturation until the patient is stable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - Insulin is produced by which of the following pancreatic cells: ...

    Incorrect

    • Insulin is produced by which of the following pancreatic cells:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: β cells

      Explanation:

      Insulin is produced by beta cells, located centrally within the islets of Langerhans, in the endocrine tissues of the pancreas. Insulin is a polypeptide hormone consisting of two short chains (A and B) linked by disulphide bonds. Proinsulin is synthesised as a single-chain peptide. Within storage granules, a connecting peptide (C peptide) is removed by proteases to yield insulin. Insulin release is stimulated initially during eating by the parasympathetic nervous system and gut hormones such as secretin, but most output is driven by the rise in plasma glucose concentration that occurs after a meal. The effects of insulin are mediated by the receptor tyrosine kinase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 9 - A 54 year old patient presents with vertigo, ipsilateral hemiataxia, dysarthria, ptosis and...

    Incorrect

    • A 54 year old patient presents with vertigo, ipsilateral hemiataxia, dysarthria, ptosis and miosis.

      Which of these blood vessels has most likely been occluded?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior inferior cerebellar artery

      Explanation:

      Posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA) occlusion is characterised by vertigo, ipsilateral hemiataxia, dysarthria, ptosis and miosis. PICA occlusion causes infarction of the posterior inferior cerebellum, inferior cerebellar vermis and lateral medulla.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - A 22-year-old presents with acute severe asthma. He takes a drug prescribed by...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old presents with acute severe asthma. He takes a drug prescribed by her GP but cannot recall the name and is receiving regular salbutamol nebulisers. His current potassium level is 2.8 mmol/l.

      Which drug is least likely to have caused his hypokalaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      Serious hypokalaemia can occur in severe asthma and the effect can be potentiated by concomitant treatment with theophyllines like aminophylline, corticosteroids, thiazide and loop diuretics, and hypoxia. Plasma-potassium concentration should be monitored in severe asthma.

      Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, is not likely to have contributed to patients hypokalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 11 - In the emergency room, a patient was diagnosed with acute bacterial tonsillitis. Which...

    Incorrect

    • In the emergency room, a patient was diagnosed with acute bacterial tonsillitis. Which of the following postinfectious complications is most commonly linked to Streptococcus pyogenes:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN) is caused by prior infection with specific nephritogenic strains of group A beta-haemolytic streptococcus. The clinical presentation of PSGN varies from asymptomatic, microscopic haematuria to the full-blown acute nephritic syndrome, characterized by red to brown urine, proteinuria (which can reach the nephrotic range), oedema, hypertension, and acute kidney injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 12 - A 23-year-old has a known diagnosis of HIV. Blood is sent to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old has a known diagnosis of HIV. Blood is sent to the laboratory for tests.

      AIDS be diagnosed at a CD4 counts below?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 200 cells/mm 3

      Explanation:

      A normal CD4 count ranges from 500-1000 cells/mm3.

      At CD4 count of less than 350 cells/mm3 treatment with anti-retroviral therapy should be considered.

      At a CD4 count of >200 cells/mm3 AIDS is diagnosed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 13 - Which of the following nerves is responsible for the symptoms of a patient...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following nerves is responsible for the symptoms of a patient with history of recurrent herpes simplex outbreaks on his face and presents with ophthalmic herpes zoster and a painful vesicle on the tip of his nose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nasociliary nerve

      Explanation:

      Hutchinson sign relates to involvement of the tip of the nose from facial herpes zoster. It implies involvement of the external nasal branch of the nasociliary nerve which is a branch of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve.

      The nasociliary branch of the trigeminal nerve innervates the apex and lateral aspect of the nose, as well as the cornea. Therefore, lesions on the side or tip of the nose should raise suspicion of ocular involvement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 14 - A 29-year-old man is diagnosed with a severe case of asthma.

    In the treatment...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man is diagnosed with a severe case of asthma.

      In the treatment of acute asthma in adults, which of the following is NOT recommended?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nebulised magnesium

      Explanation:

      There is no evidence to support the use of nebulized magnesium sulphate in the treatment of adults at this time.

      In adults with acute asthma, the following medication dosages are recommended:
      By using an oxygen-driven nebuliser, you can get 5 milligrams of salbutamol.
      500 mcg ipratropium bromide in an oxygen-driven nebuliser
      Oral prednisolone 40-50 mg
      100 mg hydrocortisone intravenous
      1.2-2 g magnesium sulphate IV over 20 minutes
      When inhaled treatment is ineffective, intravenous salbutamol (250 mcg IV slowly) may be explored (e.g. a patient receiving bag-mask ventilation).

      Following senior counsel, current ALS recommendations propose that IV aminophylline be explored in severe or life-threatening asthma. If utilized, a loading dose of 5 mg/kg should be administered over 20 minutes, then a 500-700 mcg/kg/hour infusion should be given. To avoid toxicity, serum theophylline levels should be kept below 20 mcg/ml.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 15 - A 30-year-old rugby player suffers from an anterior cruciate ligament tear while pivoting...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old rugby player suffers from an anterior cruciate ligament tear while pivoting to attempt to run around another player. An MRI was performed and showed that his injury caused two other structures in the knee joint to be injured.

      Which of the following structures is most likely also injured?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Medial meniscus

      Explanation:

      The O’Donoghue unhappy triad or terrible triad often occurs in contact and non-contact sports, such as basketball, football, or rugby, when there is a lateral force applied to the knee while the foot is fixated on the ground. This produces an abduction-external rotation mechanism of injury.

      The O’Donoghue unhappy triad comprises three types of soft tissue injury that frequently tend to occur simultaneously in knee injuries. O’Donoghue described the injuries as: anterior cruciate ligament tear, medial collateral ligament injury, and medial meniscal tear (lateral compartment bone bruise).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 16 - Which of the following causes type 1 diabetes mellitus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following causes type 1 diabetes mellitus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autoimmune destruction of beta-cells results in insulin deficiency

      Explanation:

      Type 1 diabetes mellitus results from autoimmune destruction of the insulin-producing beta cells in the islets of Langerhans. This process occurs in genetically susceptible subjects, is probably triggered by one or more environmental agents, and usually progresses over many months or years during which the subject is asymptomatic and euglycemic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 17 - The Auerbach's plexus is a set of ganglia that controls peristalsis and is...

    Incorrect

    • The Auerbach's plexus is a set of ganglia that controls peristalsis and is located in the gut wall.

      Auerbach's plexus is located in which layer of the gut wall?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Muscular layer

      Explanation:

      The Auerbach’s plexus, also known as the myenteric plexus, is a collection of ganglia that controls peristalsis and is located in the gut wall.

      In the muscular layer of the wall, it is located between the circular and longitudinal muscle layers. It is a linear network of linked neurons that runs the length of the gastrointestinal system. The myenteric plexus generates an increase in gut wall tone and the strength of rhythmical contractions when stimulated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal Physiology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 18 - A 24-year-old female visits her family physician to complain of painless lumps in...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old female visits her family physician to complain of painless lumps in her neck. Her physician notes several enlarged, rubbery, non-tender cervical lymph nodes on examination. He immediately refers the patient for a lymph node biopsy, the results of which show the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells.

      What is the diagnosis in this case based on the above scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hodgkin’s lymphoma

      Explanation:

      The presence of Reed-Sternberg cells is pathognomonic for Hodgkin’s Lymphoma, which is a disease-causing neoplastic transformation of lymphocytes. There is a bimodal age distribution with peaks in the 20s and 60s. Patients typically present with enlarged, rubbery, non-tender lymph nodes. Symptoms such as fever, night sweats and weight loss may be present.

      Pain after alcohol consumption is a pathognomonic sign of Hodgkin’s lymphoma, it is, however, not a ‘B’ symptom. It is rare though, only occurring in 2-3% of patients with Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
      The Ann Arbour clinical staging is as follows:
      Stage I: one involved lymph node group
      Stage II two involved lymph node groups on one side of the diaphragm
      Stage III: lymph node groups involved on both sides of the diaphragm
      Stage IV: Involvement of extra-nodal tissues, such as the liver or bone marrow
      Diagnosis is made by lymph node biopsy, which should be taken from a sufficiently large specimen or excisional biopsy, as opposed to a fine needle biopsy.

      Multiple myeloma most commonly presents with bone pain, especially in the back and ribs.

      In non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, Reed-Sternberg cells are not present.

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia will present with features of anaemia, thrombocytopenia and leukopenia.

      The most common symptoms of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia are fatigue, night sweats and low-grade fever.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 19 - Which of the following could denote a diagnosis of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following could denote a diagnosis of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) in a patient infected with HIV:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CD4 count < 200 cells/uL

      Explanation:

      A diagnosis of AIDS can be made in a patient infected with HIV if the patient has a CD4 count < 200 cells/uL, or an AIDS-defining illness. Antiretroviral treatment should be considered in patients with CD4 counts < 350 cells/uL.

      Oral candidiasis is not an AIDS defining illness – candidiasis of the bronchi, trachea, lungs or of the oesophagus is an AIDS defining illness.

      A positive p24 antigen test seen in early HIV infection and does not indicate the development of AIDS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 20 - For which of the following is micelle formation necessary to facilitate intestinal absorption?...

    Incorrect

    • For which of the following is micelle formation necessary to facilitate intestinal absorption?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamin D

      Explanation:

      The arrangement of micelles is such that hydrophobic lipid molecules lie in the centre, surrounded by hydrophilic bile acids that are arranged in the outer region. This arrangement allows the entry of micelles into the aqueous layers surrounding the microvilli. As a result, the products of fat digestion (fatty acids and monoglycerides), cholesterol and fat-soluble vitamins (such as vitamin D) can then diffuse passively into the enterocytes. The bile salts are left within the lumen of the gut where they are reabsorbed from the ileum or excreted in faeces.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 21 - Which lobe of the prostate gland is most commonly affected in prostatic carcinoma?...

    Incorrect

    • Which lobe of the prostate gland is most commonly affected in prostatic carcinoma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior

      Explanation:

      The periurethral portion of the prostate gland increases in size during puberty and after the age of 55 years due to the growth of non-malignant cells in the transition zone of the prostate that surrounds the urethra. Most cancers develop in the posterior lobe, and cancers in this location may be palpated during a digital rectal examination (DRE).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 22 - Which of the following side effects is most likely caused by erythromycin: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following side effects is most likely caused by erythromycin:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: QT - prolongation

      Explanation:

      The side effects of erythromycin include abdominal pain, anaphylaxis,
      cholestatic hepatitis, confusion,
      diarrhoea, dyspepsia, fever, flatulence, hallucinations, hearing loss,
      headache, hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, hypotension, Interstitial
      nephritis, mild allergic reactions, nausea, nervous system effects,
      including seizures, pain, pruritus, pseudomembranous colitis,
      QT prolongation, rash, skin eruptions, tinnitus, urticaria,
      ventricular arrhythmias, ventricular tachycardia, vertigo, vomiting

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 23 - Regarding relationships between two variables, what does a negative correlation coefficient indicate: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding relationships between two variables, what does a negative correlation coefficient indicate:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The two variables are inversely related

      Explanation:

      A negative correlation coefficient means that the two variables are inversely related e.g. socio-economic class and mortality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      • Statistics
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 24 - A 27-year-old female is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance with extensive...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance with extensive bleeding from her upper arm following a fall from a bicycle onto a fence. On inspection her biceps brachii muscle has been lacerated.
      How will the muscle heal from this injury? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Satellite cells will produce a small number of regenerated myocytes

      Explanation:

      Muscle heals with fibrous tissue to form a scar. Once cut, it will never regain its previous bulk or power. Within the scar a small number of myocytes (muscle cells) may be seen, which are formed from satellite cells but they contribute little to the function of the muscle overall.
      In more widespread ischaemic injury, such as critical ischaemic limb due to arterial compromise, or in compartment syndrome, damaged myocytes are replaced diffusely with fibrous tissue. This fibrous tissue contracts and reduces movement, and in extreme cases can pull the limb into abnormal positions such as in Volkmann’s ischaemic contracture of the forearm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 25 - A 67-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department with chest pain. Flecainide is...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department with chest pain. Flecainide is one of the medications she is taking.

      Which of the following statements about flecainide mechanism of action is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blocks Na+ channels in the heart

      Explanation:

      Flecainide is an antiarrhythmic drug of class Ic that works by blocking the Nav1.5 sodium channel in the heart, prolonging the cardiac action potential and slowing cardiac impulse conduction. It has a significant impact on accessory pathway conduction, particularly retrograde conduction, and significantly reduces ventricular ectopic foci.

      Many different arrhythmias can be treated with flecainide, including:
      Pre-excitation syndromes (e.g. Wolff-Parkinson-White)
      Acute atrial arrhythmias
      Ventricular arrhythmias
      Chronic neuropathic pain

      The use of flecainide is contraindicated in the following situations:
      Abnormal left ventricular function
      Atrial conduction defects (unless pacing rescue available)
      Bundle branch block (unless pacing rescue available)
      Distal block (unless pacing rescue available)
      Haemodynamically significant valvular heart disease
      Heart failure
      History of myocardial infarction
      Long-standing atrial fibrillation where conversion to sinus rhythm not attempted
      Second-degree or greater AV block (unless pacing rescue available)
      Sinus node dysfunction (unless pacing rescue available)

      Flecainide should only be used in people who don’t have a structural heart problem. The CAST trial found a significant increase in sudden cardiac death and all-cause mortality in patients with an ejection fraction of less than 40% after a myocardial infarction, where it tended to be pro-arrhythmic.

      Anti-arrhythmic drugs have a limited and ineffective role in the treatment of atrial flutter. It’s important to keep in mind that flecainide shouldn’t be used by itself to treat atrial flutter. When used alone, there is a risk of inducing 1:1 atrioventricular conduction, which results in an increase in ventricular rate that is paradoxical. As a result, it should be used in conjunction with a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker with a rate-limiting effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 26 - A 32 year old man is brought to ED having been thrown off...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old man is brought to ED having been thrown off his motorbike. Following initial resuscitation and ruling out life-threatening injuries, you establish the patient has weakness of hip flexion. Which of the following nerves has most likely been injured:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Femoral nerve

      Explanation:

      Flexion of the hip is produced by the iliacus, the psoas major, the sartorius, rectus femoris and the pectineus muscles. The femoral nerve innervates the iliacus, pectineus, sartorius and quadriceps femoris muscles, and supplies skin on the anterior thigh, anteromedial knee and medial leg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 27 - You need to give your patient antibiotics, so you call microbiology for some advice.

    Of...

    Incorrect

    • You need to give your patient antibiotics, so you call microbiology for some advice.

      Of the following antibacterial drugs, which of them is a protein synthesis inhibitor?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Bacteriostatic antibiotics include erythromycin and other macrolides. They work by attaching to the bacterial ribosome’s 50S subunit, preventing translocation and, as a result, inhibit protein synthesis. Macrolide antibiotics are actively concentrated inside leukocytes and delivered into the infection site as a result.

      Action Mechanisms- Examples:

      Cell wall production is inhibited
      Vancomycin
      Vancomycin
      Cephalosporins

      The function of the cell membrane is disrupted
      Nystatin
      Polymyxins
      Amphotericin B

      Inhibition of protein synthesis
      Chloramphenicol
      Macrolides
      Aminoglycosides
      Tetracyclines

      Nucleic acid synthesis inhibition
      Quinolones
      Trimethoprim
      Rifampicin
      5-nitroimidazoles
      Sulphonamides
      Anti-metabolic activity
      Isoniazid

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 28 - During the second and third trimesters of her pregnancy, a 36-year-old woman is...

    Incorrect

    • During the second and third trimesters of her pregnancy, a 36-year-old woman is given a drug to treat a medical condition. The foetus has developed hypoperfusion and the oligohydramnios sequence as a result of this.

      Which of the following drugs is most likely to be the cause of these side effects?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Hypoperfusion, renal failure, and the oligohydramnios sequence are all linked to ACE inhibitor use in the second and third trimesters.

      The oligohydramnios sequence refers to a foetus’ or neonate’s atypical physical appearance as a result of oligohydramnios in the uterus. It’s also linked to aortic arch obstructive malformations and patent ductus arteriosus.

      The inhibitory effects on the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system appear to be the cause of these defects. To avoid these risks, ACE inhibitors should be stopped before the second trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 29 - A 57-year-old woman receives vitamin B12 injections following a gastrectomy.

    Which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman receives vitamin B12 injections following a gastrectomy.

      Which of the following cell types, if absent, is responsible for her vitamin B12 deficiency?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Parietal cells

      Explanation:

      Intrinsic factor, produced by the parietal cells of the stomach, is essential for the absorption of vitamin B12 from the terminal ileum.
      After a gastrectomy, the absorption of vitamin B12 is markedly reduced, and a deficiency will occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal Physiology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 30 - The monospot test for infectious mononucleosis uses which of the following types...

    Incorrect

    • The monospot test for infectious mononucleosis uses which of the following types of red blood cell?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Horse red blood cells

      Explanation:

      Infectious mononucleosis can be diagnosed using specific EBV antibodies and a variety if unrelated non-EBV heterophile antibodies. These antibodies can be detected by two main screening tests:

      The monospot test uses horse red blood cells. It agglutinates in the presence of heterophile antibodies.

      Sheep red blood cells is used in Paul-Bunnell test. The blood agglutinates in the presence of heterophile antibodies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular (0/1) 0%
Physiology (0/1) 0%
Passmed
Retry this test Dashboard